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Planes and Axes of Motion

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which plane divides the body into right and left portions and primarily involves flexion and extension movements?

a)

Sagittal plane with flexion and extension

b)

Horizontal plane with rotation movements

c)

Oblique plane with circumduction actions

d)

Frontal plane with abduction and adduction

2.

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

a)

Horizontal plane running superior to inferior

b)

Sagittal plane running front to back

c)

Frontal plane running side to side

d)

Longitudinal plane running top to bottom

3.

Rotation typically occurs within which plane?

a)

Sagittal plane about a frontal axis

b)

Oblique plane about a diagonal axis

c)

Frontal plane about a sagittal axis

d)

Horizontal plane about a vertical axis

4.

Axes of motion are always oriented how relative to their joint planes of motion?

a)

Variable depending on muscle

b)

At a forty-five degree angle

c)

Perpendicular to the plane

d)

Parallel to the plane surface

5.

Which axis is also termed medial-lateral and is associated with flexion and extension?

a)

Transverse axis passing horizontal

b)

Vertical axis passing superior-inferior

c)

Frontal axis passing side to side

d)

Sagittal axis passing anterior-posterior

6.

Abduction and adduction typically occur within which plane and about which axis?

a)

Sagittal plane about frontal axis

b)

Frontal plane about vertical axis

c)

Frontal plane about sagittal axis

d)

Horizontal plane about vertical axis

7.

The three cardinal planes intersect at which anatomical location concept?

a)

Second lumbar vertebra

b)

Midpoint of each limb

c)

Center of mass approximately

d)

Center of gravity precisely

8.

Which statement best describes the mid-sagittal plane?

a)

Divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts

b)

Divides the body diagonally into unequal sections

c)

Divides the body into equal right and left parts

d)

Divides the body into equal superior and inferior parts

9.

Which axis is sometimes termed a longitudinal axis?

a)

Transverse axis running horizontal

b)

Vertical axis running superior-inferior

c)

Frontal axis running medial-lateral

d)

Sagittal axis running anterior-posterior

10.

Thumb flexion and extension occur within which plane and about which axis?

a)

Sagittal plane about sagittal axis

b)

Frontal plane about frontal axis

c)

Frontal plane about sagittal axis

d)

Horizontal plane about vertical axis

11.

What is the maximum degrees of freedom a single joint can have?

a)

Four degrees across multiple planes

b)

Three degrees across three planes

c)

Two degrees across two planes

d)

One degree across one plane

12.

A uniaxial joint moves within how many planes and about how many axes?

a)

One plane about one axis

b)

Two planes about two axes

c)

Three planes about three axes

d)

One plane about two axes

13.

Active range of motion occurs under which condition?

a)

Gravity alone moves joints without effort

b)

Muscles not contracting, external force moves joint

c)

Muscles contract to move joints through ROM

d)

Joints immobilized by external support

14.

Which movements are classified as osteokinematic?

a)

Elastic deformation of ligaments only

b)

Translation, glide, spin at articular surfaces

c)

Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation

d)

Neural activation thresholds in motor units

15.

In anatomical position, flexion and extension typically occur within which plane and about which axis?

a)

Frontal plane about sagittal axis

b)

Sagittal plane about frontal axis

c)

Horizontal plane about vertical axis

d)

Oblique plane about diagonal axis

16.

Which term best describes movement that brings two anterior surfaces closer together within the sagittal plane about a frontal axis?

a)

Abduction of a limb segment

b)

Horizontal adduction of a segment

c)

Lateral rotation of a segment

d)

Flexion of a limb segment

17.

During knee flexion, which surfaces move toward each other, representing an exception to the typical flexion definition?

a)

Medial thigh and leg surfaces

b)

Anterior thigh and leg surfaces

c)

Lateral thigh and leg surfaces

d)

Posterior thigh and leg surfaces

18.

Elbow flexion is defined by which movement of the forearm relative to the arm?

a)

Lateral forearm toward lateral arm

b)

Anterior forearm toward anterior arm

c)

Medial forearm toward medial arm

d)

Posterior forearm toward posterior arm

19.

When toes point downward toward the floor, which ankle movement is occurring?

a)

Plantar flexion of the ankle

b)

Dorsiflexion of the ankle

c)

Inversion at the ankle

d)

Eversion at the ankle

20.

Which statement accurately defines extension within the sagittal plane?

a)

Movement occurs only in the frontal plane

b)

Anterior surfaces move away from each other

c)

Movement occurs about a vertical axis

d)

Anterior surfaces move toward each other

21.

Head tipping posteriorly to face toward the ceiling exemplifies which movement from anatomical position?

a)

Extension of the head and neck

b)

Flexion of the head and neck

c)

Lateral rotation of the head

d)

Horizontal abduction of the head

22.

Which term describes movement beyond a joint’s expected nonpathological extension range?

a)

Hyperextension of the joint

b)

Supination of the joint

c)

Hypoflexion of the joint

d)

Circumduction of the joint

23.

Abduction and adduction primarily occur in which plane and about which axis?

a)

Sagittal plane, frontal axis

b)

Transverse plane, longitudinal axis

c)

Horizontal plane, vertical axis

d)

Frontal plane, sagittal axis

24.

What is the reference point for determining finger abduction and adduction?

a)

Middle finger as the reference

b)

Thumb as the reference point

c)

Ring finger as the reference

d)

Index finger as the reference

25.

Which statement about the second toe’s movements is correct?

a)

It abducts medially or laterally only

b)

It adducts toward the hallux only

c)

It flexes and extends only

d)

It circumducts around the midline

26.

Horizontal abduction of the shoulder requires which prerequisite movement?

a)

Initial abduction to 90 degrees

b)

Initial flexion to 90 degrees

c)

Initial extension to neutral

d)

Initial external rotation

27.

Radial deviation of the wrist moves the hand in which direction?

a)

Away from the carpal bones

b)

Toward the ulnar/little finger side

c)

Toward the radial/thumb side

d)

Toward the midline of the forearm

28.

Lateral flexion of the trunk involves bending to the side, moving the shoulder toward which hip?

a)

Posterior pelvic tilt

b)

Ipsilateral hip alignment

c)

Contralateral hip alignment

d)

Anterior pelvic tilt

29.

Rotation of a limb segment occurs in which plane and about which axis?

a)

Sagittal plane, frontal axis

b)

Horizontal plane, vertical axis

c)

Oblique plane, longitudinal axis

d)

Frontal plane, sagittal axis

30.

Medial rotation is also termed which of the following?

a)

Pronation terminology

b)

Supination terminology

c)

External rotation terminology

d)

Internal rotation terminology

31.

Which joints are capable of both medial and lateral rotation in typical human movement?

a)

Shoulder and hip joints

b)

Intervertebral and sacral joints

c)

Elbow and knee joints

d)

Wrist and ankle joints

32.

Which concept defines the number of independent directions a joint can move?

a)

Open-chain concept

b)

Degrees of freedom concept

c)

Active insufficiency concept

d)

Force couple concept

33.

Active range of motion differs from passive range of motion because active ROM is performed by which mechanism?

a)

Joint arthrokinematics only

b)

Gravity-assisted movement

c)

External manual assistance

d)

Voluntary muscle contraction

34.

Which statement best distinguishes supination from pronation of the forearm in anatomical position?

a)

Supination orients the palm anteriorly, pronation posteriorly

b)

Supination turns the palm inferiorly, pronation superiorly

c)

Supination flexes the elbow, pronation extends it

d)

Supination abducts the wrist, pronation adducts it

35.

Medial rotation of the shoulder involves which directional movement relative to the body's midline?

a)

Lateral surface rotates toward the axial skeleton

b)

Posterior surface rotates away from the midline

c)

Anterior surface rotates away from the midline

d)

Anterior surface rotates toward the midline

36.

Circumduction at the shoulder is best described as a cone-shaped pattern requiring what sequential actions?

a)

Flexion, abduction, extension, adduction with rotation

b)

Extension, adduction, supination, pronation with glide

c)

Inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion cycles

d)

Protraction, retraction, elevation, depression movements

37.

Which pairing correctly matches ankle movement with its classical definition?

a)

Inversion: dorsiflexion only; Eversion: plantar flexion only

b)

Inversion: sole faces laterally; Eversion: sole faces medially

c)

Inversion: adduction of toes; Eversion: abduction of toes

d)

Inversion: sole faces medially; Eversion: sole faces laterally

38.

Clinically, the triplanar movement combination termed supination of the foot most commonly includes which set?

a)

Eversion, abduction, dorsiflexion

b)

Inversion, adduction, plantar flexion

c)

Inversion, abduction, dorsiflexion

d)

Eversion, adduction, plantar flexion

39.

During pronation of the foot, which triplanar combination is typically present?

a)

Inversion, abduction, dorsiflexion

b)

Eversion, adduction, plantar flexion

c)

Inversion, adduction, plantar flexion

d)

Eversion, abduction, dorsiflexion

40.

Opposition at the thumb is characterized by what specific contact pattern?

a)

Thumb pad faces pads of the other fingers

b)

Thumb dorsal surface faces the palm

c)

Thumb nail aligns parallel with index finger nail

d)

Thumb shaft rotates laterally toward the forearm

41.

Which statement best contrasts opposition and reposition of the thumb?

a)

Opposition brings the pad to other pads; reposition returns to anatomical

b)

Opposition is wrist motion; reposition is elbow motion

c)

Opposition returns to anatomical; reposition brings the pad to other pads

d)

Opposition flexes MCP; reposition extends IP only

42.

Which statement best distinguishes statics from dynamics in mechanics?

a)

Statics studies velocity vectors in moving systems

b)

Statics focuses on motion created by forces over time

c)

Statics analyzes accelerating bodies with changing forces

d)

Statics analyzes non-moving systems under forces

43.

In biomechanics, kinematics primarily describes which aspect of movement?

a)

Stabilization produced by muscular contraction

b)

Motion created by forces without causes

c)

Internal torque generated at joint axes

d)

Magnitude and direction of applied forces

44.

Which measure is a scalar quantity?

a)

Acceleration direction toward the ground

b)

Velocity measured in meters per second

c)

Force measured in newtons

d)

Speed measured in miles per hour

45.

Vectors differ from scalars because vectors include what property?

a)

Magnitude and direction together

b)

Only magnitude without direction

c)

Mass independent of motion

d)

Time independent of space

46.

Clinically, documenting both magnitude and direction of a force allows what outcome?

a)

Removal of friction between surfaces

b)

Conversion of vectors to scalars easily

c)

Elimination of gravity during movement

d)

Comparison of treatments over time

47.

Push and pull forces create which respective mechanical effects?

a)

Push causes shear; pull causes rotation

b)

Push causes rotation; pull causes shear

c)

Push causes traction; pull causes compression

d)

Push causes compression; pull causes traction

48.

Which is an internal force in the human body?

a)

Muscular contraction generating joint torque

b)

Gravity acting downward on body mass

c)

Externally applied resistance like a weight

d)

Ground reaction from supporting surface

49.

What is the ground reaction force during standing?

a)

Upward force exerted by the support surface

b)

Downward gravitational weight acting on the body

c)

Resistance between two surfaces called friction

d)

Internal ligament tension stabilizing a joint

50.

Which statement about friction is accurate?

a)

Friction is only present in internal body tissues

b)

Friction accelerates motion along smooth surfaces

c)

Friction equals gravitational force in magnitude

d)

Friction opposes motion between contacting surfaces

51.

Which configuration defines linear forces on an object?

a)

Two or more forces colinear along the same line

b)

Two equal forces parallel but opposite directions

c)

Three noncolinear forces intersecting at a point

d)

A single torque causing rotation about an axis

52.

A patient performs elbow flexion with a 10-pound dumbbell. To fully describe the applied vector, what must be specified?

a)

Time and space factors without magnitude

b)

Only the joint angle in degrees is required

c)

Only the magnitude of 10 pounds is required

d)

Magnitude of 10 pounds and direction of application

53.

Which domain does biomechanics most directly apply to?

a)

Genetic determinants of musculoskeletal traits

b)

Electromagnetic fields around bones

c)

Chemical reactions within muscle fibers

d)

Principles of mechanics to human movement

54.

Which statement best defines torque in human movement?

a)

Tendency of a force to produce rotation

b)

Amount of linear force along a segment

c)

Rate of change of position over time

d)

Opposing compression causing concavity

55.

Velocity includes which two components?

a)

Magnitude and direction of motion

b)

Force and moment arm length

c)

Acceleration and mass of object

d)

Compression and traction forces

56.

Speed differs from velocity because speed is

a)

A scalar without direction

b)

A vector with direction

c)

Measured only in ft/s2

d)

Dependent on torque length

57.

Acceleration is best described as

a)

Rate of change of velocity

b)

Rate of change of position

c)

Magnitude of rotary force

d)

Difference between compression and traction

58.

Which formula expresses the relationship among force, mass, and acceleration?

a)

F = m a

b)

T = F × MA

c)

v = d / t

d)

COG above BOS

59.

Moment arm is defined as the

a)

Perpendicular distance from force to axis

b)

Angle between muscle and bone

c)

Magnitude of applied compressive force

d)

Length of the lever segment used

60.

Torque increases when

a)

Line of pull approaches 0 degrees

b)

Mass decreases while velocity rises

c)

Speed of motion increases

d)

Force or moment arm increases

61.

When force is applied perpendicular to a limb segment, the result is

a)

Torque decreases with longer moment arm

b)

No torque and pure traction only

c)

All applied force becomes compression

d)

All applied force generates torque

62.

If resistance is applied at the ankle during knee extension, compared with mid‑leg application, the patient must

a)

Generate less muscle force

b)

Maintain identical muscle force

c)

Eliminate all compressive forces

d)

Generate more muscle force

63.

As the line of pull of the biceps approaches 90 degrees, the muscle

a)

Decreases efficiency across ROM

b)

Has minimal torque production

c)

Generates greatest compression force

d)

Generates greatest rotary force

64.

When the line of pull is less than 90 degrees, what happens to forces at the joint?

a)

Torque doubles for same applied force

b)

Compression decreases, rotation increases

c)

Traction increases, rotation increases

d)

Compression increases, rotation decreases

65.

Which change will decrease torque if moment arm stays constant?

a)

Decrease applied force magnitude

b)

Apply force more perpendicular

c)

Increase applied force magnitude

d)

Increase moment arm length

66.

Torsional forces are best characterized as

a)

Direct traction on concave surfaces

b)

Linear translation along long axis

c)

Single compressive load on convex side

d)

Two opposing forces causing twisting

67.

Bending loads produce which paired effects on an elongated object?

a)

Uniform traction across both sides

b)

Compression on concave, traction on convex

c)

Compression on convex, traction on concave

d)

Uniform compression across both sides

68.

Which statement about speed and velocity is correct?

a)

Speed lacks direction; velocity has direction

b)

Both are vectors with direction

c)

Speed is ft/s2; velocity is ft/s

d)

Velocity is mass per unit distance

69.

Select the most efficient joint angle for rotary motion by a muscle.

a)

Near 90 degrees at the joint

b)

Near full extension of the joint

c)

Near starting angle of ROM

d)

Near end angle of the ROM

70.

A clinician wants to double torque without changing force. What adjustment achieves this?

a)

Shift resistance closer to axis

b)

Reduce line of pull angle

c)

Halve the moment arm length

d)

Double the moment arm length

71.

Which scenario most increases traction forces at a joint?

a)

Moment arm shortened by half

b)

Force applied purely perpendicular

c)

Line of pull exactly at 90 degrees

d)

Line of pull greater than 90 degrees

72.

Which statement best defines a force arm (FA) in lever systems?

a)

Distance from resistance to axis of rotation

b)

Distance from applied force to axis of rotation

c)

Distance from axis to center of gravity

d)

Distance between two loads on a lever

73.

In human anatomy, what typically determines the resistance arm (RA) for a limb segment?

a)

Distance from muscle origin to insertion

b)

Combined center of mass of segments and any load

c)

Length of the bone only

d)

Joint range of motion at the axis

74.

Which configuration describes a first-class lever?

a)

Force between axis and resistance

b)

Axis between force and resistance

c)

Resistance between axis and force

d)

Axis and force on same side of resistance

75.

For a first-class lever, moving the axis closer to the resistance has which effect?

a)

No change in mechanical advantage

b)

Equal FA and RA lengths

c)

Longer FA and shorter RA

d)

Shorter FA and longer RA

76.

A worker balances two bundles on a shoulder yoke. When one heavier bundle is moved closer to the axis, what occurs?

a)

Lighter bundle gains shorter lever arm

b)

Both bundles have equal lever arms

c)

Heavier bundle gains longer lever arm

d)

Heavier bundle gains shorter lever arm

77.

Which anatomical example represents a first-class lever around the cervical spine?

a)

Skull articulating on first cervical vertebra

b)

Ankle plantarflexion during heel raise

c)

Elbow flexing with biceps

d)

Knee extending with quadriceps

78.

When the head extends posteriorly about the atlanto-occipital joint, which configuration applies?

a)

Force and load both anterior to axis

b)

Axis posterior to load and force

c)

Load anterior to axis, force posterior

d)

Force anterior to axis, load posterior

79.

Which configuration describes a second-class lever?

a)

Axis between force and resistance

b)

Resistance between axis and force

c)

Force between axis and resistance

d)

Axis and resistance on same side of force

80.

Mechanical advantage in a second-class lever is maximized when which condition is met?

a)

RA longer than FA

b)

FA longer than RA

c)

FA equal to RA

d)

FA shorter than RA

81.

In a wheelbarrow modeled as a second-class lever, what happens when the load is moved closer to the wheel (axis)?

a)

Required force increases due to longer RA

b)

Required force decreases due to shorter RA

c)

Required force unchanged due to equal arms

d)

Required force increases due to longer FA

82.

Which statement about work (W = F × distance) for any lever is accurate?

a)

Work increases when axis is moved

b)

Work is constant for a given load and displacement

c)

Work equals mechanical advantage times distance

d)

Work decreases with longer force arm

83.

If a 6-foot lever has FA and RA both 3 ft lifting 50 lb, how many foot-pounds is the resistance moment?

a)

200 foot-pounds

b)

150 foot-pounds

c)

75 foot-pounds

d)

100 foot-pounds

84.

On the same lever, if FA becomes 4 ft and RA 2 ft, what force lifts the 50 lb load?

a)

25 pounds of force

b)

75 pounds of force

c)

100 pounds of force

d)

50 pounds of force

85.

Which change to a second-class lever decreases the required lifting force?

a)

Move resistance farther from axis

b)

Shorten the force arm length

c)

Lengthen the force arm relative to RA

d)

Place force nearer the axis than resistance

86.

When analyzing anatomical levers, why can RA be difficult to measure precisely?

a)

Muscle forces are always constant

b)

Mass distribution varies across limb segments

c)

Axes of motion are fixed in all joints

d)

Center of mass is identical across subjects

87.

Which statement best describes the force–distance tradeoff common to simple machines like pulleys and inclined planes?

a)

Force and distance change independently of each other

b)

More force requires longer movement distance

c)

Less force requires longer movement distance

d)

Less force requires shorter movement distance

88.

A fixed pulley primarily provides which mechanical advantage in movement tasks?

a)

Changes force direction without multiplying force

b)

Multiplies force with no distance change

c)

Decreases load friction by surface smoothing

d)

Stores elastic energy for later release

89.

Compared with a fixed pulley, a movable pulley in a block-and-tackle system typically does what?

a)

Eliminates rope tension and slack entirely

b)

Reduces required force by sharing the load

c)

Increases required force by adding resistance

d)

Keeps force the same while changing angle

90.

In an anatomical pulley at the knee, what role does the patella most directly serve during extension?

a)

Reduces joint compression through suction

b)

Shortens the muscle fiber resting length

c)

Stores calcium to strengthen the tendon

d)

Deflects tendon to improve moment arm

91.

Why do movable pulleys require pulling more rope length to lift a load the same height?

a)

Mechanical advantage trades distance for force

b)

Energy is lost to rope heat dissipation

c)

Friction forces double with each pulley

d)

Rope elasticity increases displacement error

92.

Which scenario best exemplifies an inclined plane improving accessibility in rehabilitation settings?

a)

A hanging bar for traction therapy

b)

A vertical ladder for ROM practice

c)

A step-down platform for plyometrics

d)

A ramp allowing wheelchair ascent

93.

For a ramp replacing stairs, which variable most directly lowers the effort required to rise?

a)

Greater coefficient of rolling friction

b)

Larger vertical rise for the same run

c)

Shorter horizontal run of the ramp

d)

Smaller slope angle of the ramp

94.

Which quantity increases when a ramp is made longer to maintain the same vertical rise?

a)

Work done against gravity

b)

Required input force

c)

Distance traveled along the ramp

d)

Mechanical load on the joints

95.

In kinesiology terms, an anatomical pulley increases torque by primarily affecting which parameter?

a)

Length–tension resting angle

b)

Joint reaction force magnitude

c)

Moment arm of the tendon

d)

Muscle cross-sectional area

96.

A therapist selects a two-sheave movable pulley for patient-assisted lifting. What immediate outcome should be expected for the patient’s applied force?

a)

Force doubles while rope travel halves

b)

Force decreases with no distance change

c)

Force halves while rope travel doubles

d)

Force stays constant regardless of sheaves

97.

Which misconception about fixed pulleys should be corrected when teaching patients?

a)

They eliminate friction in the system

b)

They only change the direction of force

c)

They always reduce the required effort

d)

They increase muscle fiber recruitment

98.

A climber uses a haul system with one fixed and one movable pulley. Which statement is most accurate about mechanical advantage?

a)

Advantage is independent of pulley arrangement

b)

Advantage depends on rope segments supporting load

c)

Advantage increases only with larger pulley diameters

d)

Total advantage equals the number of pulleys

99.

Designing a rehab ramp for limited leg strength, which combination best minimizes required push force while keeping rise constant?

a)

Short ramp, high slope angle

b)

Variable ramp, fluctuating slope angle

c)

Long ramp, low slope angle

d)

Medium ramp, medium slope angle

100.

When a tendon wraps around a bony prominence forming an anatomical pulley, the primary functional change is what?

a)

Converted rotational motion to translation

b)

Reduced tendon tension by slackening

c)

Redirected line of pull with larger lever arm

d)

Shortened bone length to decrease torque

101.

A patient reports pulling twice the rope length when using a pulley aid compared to lifting directly. What likely system is being used?

a)

Single fixed pulley with no advantage

b)

Capstan winch with friction braking

c)

Counterweight system with equal masses

d)

Movable pulley providing 2:1 advantage

102.

A fixed pulley in the human body changes the direction of force but provides no mechanical advantage. Which statement best explains why?

a)

Force arm equals resistance arm in fixed pulleys

b)

Force arm is longer than resistance arm in fixed pulleys

c)

Resistance arm is longer than force arm in fixed pulleys

d)

Cable tension increases across fixed pulleys

103.

Which structure acts like a pulley to redirect the fibularis longus tendon?

a)

Acromion of the scapula

b)

Greater trochanter of femur

c)

Medial epicondyle of humerus

d)

Lateral malleolus of the ankle

104.

In a single moveable pulley, a 50‑lb load is supported by two cable segments. What input force at the free end lifts the load at constant velocity?

a)

25 pounds of force

b)

50 pounds of force

c)

12.5 pounds of force

d)

75 pounds of force

105.

What primary benefit is gained by adding more moveable pulleys to a system?

a)

Shorter cable length requirement

b)

Greater change in direction only

c)

Reduced friction at the axis

d)

Increased mechanical advantage for force

106.

Why are moveable pulley systems not found in the human body?

a)

Bones cannot act as axles

b)

They require cables on both sides of the pulley

c)

Muscles lack tendinous attachment

d)

They cannot change force direction

107.

A longer wheelchair ramp to a fixed rise requires less force but more distance. Which simple machine principle explains this?

a)

Inclined plane trades force for distance

b)

Lever trades torque for speed

c)

Wheel and axle trades radius for velocity

d)

Pulley trades tension for direction

108.

Federal guidelines state that an accessible ramp should not exceed a rise of 1 inch per 12 inches of run. What slope angle is approximately described?

a)

About twenty-five degrees slope

b)

About fifteen degrees slope

c)

About two degrees slope

d)

About eight degrees slope

109.

Which statement correctly compares a longer, gentler ramp to a shorter, steeper ramp of the same rise?

a)

Longer ramp needs same force, same distance

b)

Longer ramp needs more force, less distance

c)

Longer ramp needs more power, less time

d)

Longer ramp needs less force, more distance

110.

Carrying a heavy object across the shoulders primarily creates what lower‑extremity joint effect?

a)

Increased compression through the joints

b)

Increased traction through the joints

c)

Increased shear across the joints

d)

Decreased compression through the joints

111.

When carrying a heavy object in the right hand, which force combination is imposed?

a)

Arm and trunk compression

b)

Arm and trunk traction

c)

Right arm traction and right trunk compression

d)

Right arm compression and right trunk traction

112.

To push a large, heavy box across the floor most effectively, how should a person orient their push relative to the desired line of motion?

a)

Downward relative to the line of motion

b)

Upward relative to the line of motion

c)

Perpendicular to the desired line of motion

d)

Parallel to the desired line of motion

113.

Seat belts mainly prevent injuries related to which of Newton’s laws?

a)

Law of gravitation (universal law)

b)

Law of action and reaction (third law)

c)

Law of inertia (first law)

d)

Law of acceleration (second law)

114.

Why does carrying a load on the shoulders generally reduce stability?

a)

Increased traction through joints

b)

Base of support is unchanged

c)

Newton’s second law

d)

Center of mass is higher

115.

During concentric elbow flexion, the biceps functions as which lever class?

a)

First‑class lever about the elbow

b)

Fourth‑class lever about the elbow

c)

Third‑class lever about the elbow

d)

Second‑class lever about the elbow

116.

During eccentric elbow flexor action while lowering a load, the biceps functions as which lever class?

a)

Variable‑class lever about the elbow

b)

First‑class lever about the elbow

c)

Third‑class lever about the elbow

d)

Second‑class lever about the elbow

117.

Which configuration characterizes a first‑class lever created by a fixed pulley?

a)

Force, axis, resistance aligned

b)

Resistance, force, axis aligned

c)

Axis, resistance, force aligned

d)

Force and resistance at same point

118.

In a moveable pulley, the load is attached to the pulley’s axle. What supports the load?

a)

Two cable segments on either side

b)

One cable segment on the free end

c)

Friction at the groove only

d)

Elasticity of the rope material

119.

Which statement about mechanical advantage in pulleys is correct?

a)

Fixed pulleys double input force

b)

Fixed pulleys give MA of one

c)

More moveable pulleys reduce MA

d)

Moveable pulleys give MA less than one

120.

A person descends a short, steep ramp and reports higher knee stress than on a long, gentle ramp of equal rise. Which biomechanical factor most likely increased?

a)

Time under tension per stride

b)

Mechanical advantage for force

c)

Total travel distance required

d)

Required braking force per step

121.

Which best describes how pulleys are represented in the human body?

a)

Bursae as wheels; nerves as cables

b)

Bones as wheels; tendons as cables

c)

Ligaments as wheels; muscles as cables

d)

Cartilage as wheels; fascia as cables

122.

Which statement best defines a long bone in the human body?

a)

Irregular shape with complex projections

b)

Length exceeds width, tube-shaped shaft

c)

Short, cube-like dimensions in all sides

d)

Thin, curved plate with broad surface

123.

Which pair correctly matches bone regions with long bone structure?

a)

Diaphysis are ends; metaphysis is shaft

b)

Metaphysis is canal; epiphysis is marrow

c)

Epiphysis is shaft; diaphysis are ends

d)

Diaphysis is shaft; epiphysis are ends

124.

What covers the articular surfaces of a long bone’s epiphysis?

a)

Fibrocartilage and compact bone

b)

Dense periosteal membrane only

c)

Thick layer of elastic cartilage

d)

Thin layer of hyaline cartilage

125.

Which bones are typical examples of short bones?

a)

Vertebrae and sacrum

b)

Humerus and femur

c)

Ilium and scapula

d)

Carpal bones of the wrist

126.

Which feature distinguishes short bones from long bones?

a)

More equal height, length, width

b)

Single hollow canal only

c)

Articulate with one bone only

d)

Absence of cancellous interior

127.

Which statement about flat bones is accurate?

a)

Highly irregular shape with spinal opening

b)

Thick cylindrical shaft with medullary canal

c)

Cube-like shape with large articular area

d)

Broad surface, two compact layers with marrow

128.

Which is a primary site of blood formation in the body?

a)

Irregular bones like vertebrae

b)

Long bone shafts exclusively

c)

Short bones like carpals and tarsals

d)

Flat bones such as ilium and cranial bones

129.

Which description best fits irregular bones?

a)

Varied shapes enabling specific functions

b)

Small cubes with equal dimensions

c)

Thin, curved plates forming broad surfaces

d)

Tube-shaped shafts with bulbous ends

130.

Which function is associated with openings in vertebral bones?

a)

Anchor epiphyseal growth cartilage

b)

Store large amounts of yellow marrow

c)

Contain and protect the spinal cord

d)

Reduce friction at synovial joints

131.

Where are sesamoid bones commonly located?

a)

Within joint capsules of flat bones

b)

Inside medullary canals of short bones

c)

Between epiphyses and metaphyses

d)

Within tendons crossing long bone ends

132.

Which role do sesamoid bones primarily serve in tendons?

a)

Store red marrow for hematopoiesis

b)

Protect tendons from excessive wear

c)

Fuse with metaphyses during growth

d)

Replace osteoclasts during remodeling

133.

How do sesamoid bones influence muscle mechanics at joints?

a)

Replace hyaline cartilage at epiphysis

b)

Elongate diaphysis to shift lever arm

c)

Decrease tendon angle to reduce force

d)

Change tendon angle to increase torque

134.

Which cells are chiefly responsible for bone resorption?

a)

Osteoclasts in the endosteum

b)

Chondrocytes in articular cartilage

c)

Fibroblasts in ligaments

d)

Osteoblasts in the periosteum

135.

Which cells primarily form new bone tissue?

a)

Chondrocytes that secrete elastic

b)

Osteoclasts that digest matrix

c)

Osteoblasts that build matrix

d)

Adipocytes that store marrow

136.

Which canal reduces bone weight and houses marrow and vessels?

a)

Epiphyseal canal within metaphysis

b)

Haversian canal in articular cartilage

c)

Medullary canal within diaphysis

d)

Synovial canal inside periosteum

137.

Which classification fits the patella in the knee?

a)

Sesamoid bone embedded in tendon

b)

Irregular bone with complex shape

c)

Short bone forming cube-like shape

d)

Flat bone with two compact layers

138.

Which bones dominate the appendicular skeleton by type?

a)

Flat bones forming cranial vault mainly

b)

Long bones forming upper and lower limbs

c)

Irregular bones constituting all limb girdles

d)

Short bones filling axial column largely

139.

Which statement about axial skeleton bone types is correct?

a)

No long or short bones are present

b)

Mostly long bones with cube shapes

c)

Primarily short bones with epiphyses

d)

Exclusively flat bones like scapula

140.

Which feature distinguishes compact bone from cancellous bone in long bones?

a)

Higher density with organized osteons

b)

Lower density with random osteons

c)

Lower porosity with abundant marrow spaces

d)

Higher porosity with sparse trabeculae

141.

What occupies the medullary canal of a typical adult long bone?

a)

Dense trabecular scaffolding

b)

Cartilage forming epiphyses

c)

Red marrow producing leukocytes

d)

Yellow marrow rich in lipids

142.

Synarthrodial joints primarily serve which functional role?

a)

High mobility across planes

b)

Shock absorption for gait

c)

Stability with minimal motion

d)

Energy storage during movement

143.

Diarthrodial joints are best characterized by which feature?

a)

Synovial cavity allowing mobility

b)

Bone fusion eliminating movement

c)

Fibrous tissue restricting motion

d)

Cartilaginous discs resisting shear

144.

Which statement correctly differentiates fibrous and cartilaginous joints?

a)

Fibrous contain synovial fluid; cartilaginous have bursae

b)

Fibrous are axial only; cartilaginous are appendicular only

c)

Fibrous use dense connective tissue; cartilaginous use cartilage

d)

Fibrous are highly mobile; cartilaginous always immobile

145.

Which component contributes most to the heavier weight of compact bone?

a)

Tightly packed lamellar osteons

b)

High marrow fat content

c)

Extensive vascular sinusoids

d)

Large medullary cavities

146.

Osteokinematics refers to which description of motion?

a)

Ligaments resisting excessive motion

b)

Surfaces gliding within the joint

c)

Bones moving around a joint axis

d)

Muscles producing internal torque

147.

Arthrokinematics is defined by which movement focus?

a)

Joint surface motion between articulations

b)

Gross limb motion in three planes

c)

Muscle length change during activity

d)

Center of mass displacement in gait

148.

Which joint type provides the greatest potential range of motion, with trade-offs in stability?

a)

Primary cartilaginous joints

b)

Secondary cartilaginous joints

c)

Synarthrodial fibrous joints

d)

Diarthrodial synovial joints

149.

Which best describes trabeculae within cancellous bone?

a)

Solid rods resisting torsion only

b)

Dense tubes forming Haversian canals

c)

Random plates without orientation

d)

Struts aligned along stress lines

150.

Where does longitudinal growth in height primarily occur in long bones?

a)

Epiphyseal growth plate region

b)

Articular cartilage surface

c)

Medullary canal lining

d)

Periosteal outer surface