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Fluids and Electrolytes Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse in the medical-surgical unit is giving a client with low blood pressure a hypertonic solution. What is the expected effect of its administration?

a)

It initially increases the osmotic pressure within the blood.

b)

It initially increases the osmotic pressure within cells.

c)

It initially increases the hydrostatic pressure within the cells.

d)

It initially increases the hydrostatic pressure within the blood.

2.

Third-space fluid shifting may cause the client to demonstrate

a)

Hypertension

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Hypervolemia

d)

Hypovolemia

3.

The client is manifesting severe proteinuria. What clinical manifestation will this client exhibit?

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Edema

4.

A client is manifesting edema formation on both upper and lower extremities. The following mechanisms may explain its occurrence, EXCEPT

a)

Increased hydrostatic pressure in the IVC

b)

Decreased oncotic pressure within the IVC

c)

Increased ADH secretion

d)

Increased oncotic pressure within IVC

5.

A client experiences a loss of intracellular fluid. The nurse anticipates that the intravenous therapy that will be used to replace this type of loss is

a)

0.45% normal saline (NS)

b)

10% dextrose

c)

5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's

d)

Dextrose 5% in 1/2% NS

6.

For a client with a nursing diagnosis of excess fluid volume, the nurse is alert to which of the following signs and symptoms?

a)

Weak, thready pulse

b)

Hypertension

c)

Dry mucous membranes

d)

Flushed skin

7.

Signs and symptoms of ECF fluid volume deficit do not include which of the following?

a)

Weight loss, poor skin turgor

b)

Thirst, dry mouth and mucous membrane

c)

Oliguria, dark concentrated urine

d)

Decreased hematocrit, decreased specific gravity

8.

Based on laboratory findings, what result will cause the release of ADH?

a)

Increased serum sodium

b)

Decreased serum sodium

c)

Decrease in serum osmolarity

d)

Decrease in thirst

9.

Aldosterone secretion in response to fluid loss will result in which one of the following electrolyte imbalances?

a)

Increased serum sodium level and increased potassium level

b)

Decreased serum sodium level and increased potassium level

c)

Increased serum sodium level and decreased potassium level

d)

Decreased serum sodium level and increased potassium level

10.

Prolonged administration of D5W without conscientious monitoring may predispose the client to develop what complication?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Water intoxication

c)

Isotonic fluid volume excess

d)

Hypertonic fluid volume excess

11.

A client with cerebral edema is given Mannitol. You will anticipate that its therapeutic effect is based on the fact that Mannitol's tonicity is

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

12.

A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/dl IV. What electrolyte value should be monitored when a client is receiving a loop diuretic?

a)

Calcium level

b)

Sodium level

c)

K level

d)

Mg Level

13.

The client is receiving albumin supplementation. Expected priority nursing responsibilities with this type of medical management include the following, except

a)

Monitoring of urine output

b)

Auscultation of the lungs for adventitious sounds

c)

Monitoring for constipation

d)

Auscultation for abnormal heart sounds

14.

An 18-year-old client is admitted for signs and symptoms of hypervolemia, isotonic in nature. The client informed the nurse that she is asthmatic and has been taking a corticosteroid inhaler ever since she was a child. Basing on your knowledge, what sodium imbalance is this client prone to manifest?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypernatremia

15.

A diuretic is administered to the client for fluid volume excess management. Upon the client's serum sodium level is 115 mEq/L. This serum sodium level tells us that the client is

a)

Hyponatremic

b)

Hypernatremic

c)

Having a normal level of sodium

16.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of dehydration. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids. Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the dehydration remains unresolved?

a)

An oral temperature of 36.8 C

b)

A urine specific gravity of 1.043

c)

A urine output that is pale yellow

d)

A blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg

17.

You noticed that in a client who has severe burns, the fluid is starting to accumulate in the client's abdominal tissues. There is no change in his weight. What do you suspect?

a)

It is a normal effect after a burn injury

b)

Hypervolemia

c)

Third space shifting

d)

Sepsis

18.

A client has developed hyponatremia as a result of SIADH. Which type of IV fluid would the nurse be most likely to administer initially?

a)

D5W

b)

0.45% NaCl

c)

D10W

d)

0.9% NaCl

19.

Hypertonic IV fluids may cause cerebral and pulmonary fluid overload due to what specific fluid shifting?

a)

Movement of fluids from the interstitial compartment and intracellular compartment to the intravascular compartment.

b)

Movement of fluids from the intravascular compartment to the interstitial and intracellular compartments.

c)

Movement of fluids from the transcellular fluid compartments to the interstitial compartments.

d)

Movement of fluids from interstitial compartment to transcellular compartments.

20.

A client, with a sodium level of 178 mEq/L, is ordered to be started on 0.45% NaCl. What is the most IMPORTANT nursing intervention for this client?

a)

Maintain patent IV

b)

Give rapidly to ensure fluids levels are shifted properly

c)

Clarify the doctor's order because 0.45% saline is contraindicated in hypernatremia

d)

Give slowly and watch for signs and symptoms of cerebral edema

21.

The pumping action of the heart generates

a)

Hydrostatic pressure

b)

Hypertonic pressure

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

Oncotic pressure

22.

When ECF sodium is decreased, the adrenal gland secretes aldosterone to cause the kidneys to

a)

Reabsorb water alone

b)

Reabsorb potassium and sodium

c)

Reabsorb sodium and then water

d)

Reabsorb sodium and then potassium

23.

When ECF sodium is elevated, what is released to decrease serum osmolality?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

ADH

c)

ANF

d)

Glucocorticoid

24.

Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to assess in a client with hypotonic fluid volume excess?

a)

Poor skin turgor and increased thirst

b)

Interstitial edema and cellular swelling

c)

Hypotension and pitting edema

d)

Interstitial edema and cellular shrinking

25.

The danger of fluid sequestered in the third space and interstitial compartment is that the fluid

a)

Is hypertonic and can cause hypervolemia

b)

Is hypertonic and can cause water intoxication

c)

Is not available for circulation

d)

Contains large amounts of acids

26.

Fluids would be likely to leave out of the capillary or blood vessel if

a)

Hydrostatic pressure is less than the osmotic pressure within the capillaries and blood vessels

b)

Hydrostatic pressure is greater than the osmotic pressure within the capillary and blood vessels

c)

Osmotic pressure is high in the capillary and blood vessels

d)

Osmotic pressure is less than the hydrostatic pressure in the interstitial compartment

27.

The plasma oncotic pressure does which of the following?

a)

Pulls fluid back into the vascular compartment

b)

Pulls fluid out of the 'vascular compartment

c)

Pushes fluid out of the intracellular compartment into the transcellular compartment.

d)

Pushes fluid back into the transcellular compartment.

28.

Clients suffering from Fluid Volume Deficit will generally have

a)

Low specific gravity

b)

Low-temperature

c)

Increased hematocrit count

d)

Increased albumin level

29.

The R-A-A-S mechanism in hypovolemia elicits the following effects, except

a)

Renal arterial vasodilation

b)

Peripheral vasoconstriction

c)

Retention of sodium and water

d)

Release of aldosterone

30.

Aldosterone secretion in response to fluid loss may result in which one of the following potassium imbalances?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

31.

The state of hyperkalemia is associated with

a)

Catabolism

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Acidosis

d)

Hypothyroidism

32.

The nursing care plan states to observe for hyperkalemia. The nurse should recognize that the greatest risk of hyperkalemia is

a)

Tetany

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Fluid overload

d)

Prevent Tetany

33.

The physician orders regular insulin, 10 "u" added to 50 ml. of 50% dextrose to be given intravenously to a client with renal failure. The expected outcome is to

a)

Lower serum potassium level

b)

Increase the serum potassium level

c)

Reduce cerebral edema

d)

Decrease blood glucose

34.

The 50% dextrose administered with insulin in clients with hyperkalemia would help counter what probable complication?

a)

Hyperosmolar blood

b)

Hypoosmolar blood

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperglycemia

35.

The client manifested signs and symptoms of dysrhythmia secondary to hyperkalemia. Which medication would you anticipate that the physician will order which is specific for this manifestation?

a)

Kayexalate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Insulin and dextrose

d)

Potassium chloride

36.

The following are ECG changes in hyperkalemia, except

a)

Presence of U wave

b)

Elevated ST segment

c)

Prolonged QRS complex

d)

Peaked T wave

37.

The nurse reviews a client's electrolyte results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L. The nurse understands that a potassium value at this level would be noted with which condition?

a)

Traumatic burn injuries

b)

Cushing's disease

c)

Overuse of laxatives

d)

Diarrhea

38.

The nurse reviews a client's electrolyte results and notes a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse note on the cardiac monitor as a result of this laboratory value?

a)

ST elevation

b)

Peaked P wave

c)

Prominent U wave

d)

Peaked T wave

39.

A client is diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. The nurse would assess for what electrolyte imbalance as a result?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypernatremia

40.

The nurse is caring for a bedridden client admitted with a serum calcium level of 11 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Provide passive ROM exercises and encourage fluid intake

b)

Teach the client to increase intake of antacids

c)

Measure intake and output

d)

Provide meticulous skin care

41.

A 26-year-old client has been complaining of profuse vomiting for 4 days. ABG analysis points out that the client suffers from metabolic alkalosis. As a prudent nurse, you will also anticipate what particular potassium imbalance the client might suffer from.

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

42.

A client's serum glucose level increased. This hyperglycemic state predisposes the client to manifest.

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

43.

Potassium chloride intravenously is prescribed for a client with hypokalemia. The following are the actions the nurse should take to plan for the preparation and administration of the potassium, EXCEPT

a)

Assessment and monitoring of urine output prior and during administration, respectively

b)

Preparing the medication for bolus administration

c)

Monitoring the IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis

d)

Ensuring that the medication is diluted in the appropriate volume of fluid

44.

An elderly client is ordered to receive 4 bags of PRBC because of anemia. As a nurse, you would anticipate that the physician may order what particular medication after the last blood bag?

a)

Potassium supplements

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Calcium gluconate

d)

Keto-analogues

45.

For the 1st 72 hours after thyroidectomy, the nurse should assess the client for possible risk of

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

46.

In clients whose serum calcium level is 12 mg/dL, the following may be administered to the client, EXCEPT

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Furosemide

c)

Vitamin D3

d)

Plain NSS

47.

A known hypertensive client is taking an ACE inhibitor. What Potassium imbalance would the client be at risk for developing

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

48.

A decrease in the aldosterone level, as in Addison's disease, would lead to what potassium imbalance?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

49.

The client's serum potassium level is elevated in acute kidney disease, and the nurse administers sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). This drug acts to:

a)

Exchange sodium for potassium ions in the colon, increasing potassium excretion from the colon.

b)

Release hydrogen ions for sodium ions

c)

Increase calcium absorption in the colon

d)

Enhance entry of potassium back into cells

50.

A client manifests a serum calcium level of 13 mEq/L. What hormone is stimulated to act on this abnormality to maintain balance?

a)

Parathyroid Hormone

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Calcitonin

51.

The doctor ordered calcium gluconate to be given slowly through intravenous infusion. This medication has to be diluted with

a)

D5W solution

b)

0.9% NaCl

c)

LR solutions

d)

3% NaCl

52.

A client's lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. Which assessment data does the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a carpopedal spasm after the blood-pressure cuffs inflated?

a)

Positive Chvostek's sign

b)

Positive Trousseau's sign

c)

Tetany

d)

Paresthesia

53.

The client is manifesting circumoral numbness, paresthesia in extremities, and weakness of muscles. The following may be administered to the client, EXCEPT

a)

IV fluid of Plain NSS

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

D5W

54.

You are taking care of a client who is in albumin supplementation. As the nurse, you would anticipate what particular calcium imbalance is if this supplementation goes unmonitored.

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypokalemia

55.

The client had undergone multiple blood transfusions on the 5th day the client manifested signs and symptoms of tetany. This pathophysiologic change could be caused by

a)

Release of too much calcium from red blood cells, increasing serum calcium level

b)

The binding of calcium to hemoglobin decreases oxygen saturation and calcium level

c)

Binding of calcium to citrate contained in the blood bag, decreasing serum calcium level

d)

Release of potassium from red blood cells because of the breakdown of red blood cells

56.

The body of a client whose serum calcium level is decreased will undergo compensation by the increase in the parathyroid hormone release. Based on your knowledge about the mechanism behind such compensatory reaction, you will then anticipate that the client might eventually be suffering from

a)

Tetany

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Pathologic fractures

d)

Carpopedal spasms

57.

In a hypercalcemic state, the gland that will be stimulated to normalize serum calcium level will be

a)

Parathyroid gland

b)

Posterior pituitary gland

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Thyroid gland

58.

A client with renal insufficiency is to undergo electrolyte blood work. As a nurse, you understand that his condition will have an impact on his serum calcium level. What specific calcium imbalance will this client manifest?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypokalemia

59.

Hypoactive bowel sounds and subsequent manifestation of constipation are commonly seen in clients with

a)

Hypocalcemia and hyperkalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia and hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia and hyperkalemia

d)

Hypocalcemia and hypokalemia

60.

Among the etiologies stated, which is not an etiologic factor for hypokalemia?

a)

Prolonged GI suctioning

b)

Treatment for metabolic acidosis

c)

Hyperinsulinism

d)

Administration of stored blood

61.

A patient has the following arterial blood gasses: HCO3 38, pH 7.50, PaCO2 50. Which of the following signs may this patient exhibit as a compensatory mechanism?

a)

Hyperventilation (tachypnea)

b)

Hypoventilation (bradypnea)

c)

Increased potassium level (hyperkalemia)

d)

Constipation

62.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of metabolic acidosis?

a)

Aspirin toxicity

b)

Ileostomy

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

63.

Respiratory alkalosis can affect other electrolyte levels in the body. Which of the following electrolyte levels can also be affected in this condition?

a)

Calcium level

b)

Potassium level

c)

Calcium and potassium levels

64.

Which of the following is not a cause of respiratory acidosis?

a)

Hypoventilation

b)

Neuromuscular Disorder

c)

Chronic Obstructive

d)

Hyperventilation

65.

The nurse is performing assessment in a client with acute kidney injury who is in the oliguric phase. Which among the assessment findings the nurse will not expect to note?

a)

Increased serum creatinine level

b)

A low and fixed specific gravity

c)

Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

d)

A urine output of 600 to 800 mL in a 24-hour period

66.

You notice the patient is exhibiting a respiratory rate of 8 and is extremely drowsy. Which of the following conditions is the patient at risk for?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

67.

Which of the following would be a potential cause for respiratory acidosis?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Hyperventilation

d)

Hypoventilation

68.

Which of the following may occur with respiratory acidosis?

a)

CNS depression, cerebral arterial dilation, and peripheral vasoconstriction

b)

Tetany and carpopedal spasm

c)

Increased neuromuscular excitability with paresthesias

d)

Alkaline urine and decreased PaCO2

69.

A patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis due to brain trauma. Which of the following lab values correlates with this acid imbalance?

a)

Potassium level of 6.0

b)

Potassium level of 6.05

c)

Potassium level of 6.10

d)

Potassium level of 6.08

70.

You are caring for a patient with respiratory acidosis. Which of the following results confirms this diagnosis?

a)

pH 7.50, PCO2 52 mmHg

b)

pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg

c)

pH 7.25, PCO2 50 mmHg

d)

pH 5.50, PCO2 30 mmHg

71.

Which acid-base imbalance could potentially occur for a patient with an ileostomy?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

72.

A client manifesting alkalosis may exhibit signs of an

a)

Paresthesia and carpopedal spasms

b)

Peaked T wave

c)

Kidney Stones

d)

Widened QRS complex

73.

An individual ingests high amounts of fatty food. This predispose this person to manifests signs and symptoms of

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

74.

An individual has figured in an accident and has lost massive amounts of blood. The physician ordered 4 bags of fresh whole blood to be administered to this client in series. What possible imbalance will this client be at risk for?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

75.

When analyzing an arterial blood gas report of a client with COPD and respiratory acidosis, the nurse anticipates that compensation will develop through which of the following mechanisms?

a)

The kidneys retain bicarbonate

b)

The lungs increase alveolar ventilation

c)

The kidneys excrete bicarbonate

d)

The lungs decrease alveolar ventilation

76.

A patient has metabolic acidosis due to diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you expect to see in this patient?

a)

Neuron excitability

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Deep, rapid breathing

d)

Hyperkalemia

77.

In a client 4 minutes post cardiac arrest, the nurse correlates the largest source of excess hydrogen ions with which cause?

a)

Renal retention of hydrogen ions

b)

Excess bicarbonate loss in stool

c)

Anaerobic metabolism leading to lactic acid buildup

d)

Excess carbonic acid from hyperventilation

78.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury fracture related to alterations in calcium and phosphorus metabolism for a patient with chronic renal disease. The pathologic process directly related to the risk for fractures is

a)

Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in increased GI absorption of calcium

b)

Impaired vitamin E activation resulting in increase GI absorption of calcium

c)

Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium

d)

Impaired vitamin E activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium

79.

Hemorrhage, myocardial infarction and antihypertensive medications are examples of what specific causes of AKI?

a)

Prerenal causes

b)

Intrarenal causes

c)

Postrenal causes

80.

Hypercalcemia has caused the formation of calculi within ureters blocking urine flow to the bladder. This is one of the causes of AKI under one cluster. Among these clusters, where does this condition belong to?

a)

Prerenal causes

b)

Intrarenal causes

c)

Postrenal causes

81.

The physician orders regular insulin, 10 “u” added to 50 mL of 50% dextrose to be given intravenously to a client with renal failure. The expected outcome is to

a)

Lower serum potassium level

b)

Increase serum potassium level

c)

Raise blood glucose level

d)

Decrease serum sodium level

82.

An elderly client is ordered to receive 4 bags of PRBC because of anemia. As a nurse, you would anticipate that the physician may order for what particular medication after the last blood bag?

a)

Potassium supplements

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Calcium gluconate

83.

Adequate amount of carbohydrates should be taken in by a uremic client to

a)

Prevent hyperkalemia

b)

Prevent hypoglycemia

c)

Prevent accumulation of metabolic wastes

d)

Prevent accumulation of amino acids

84.

Hyperphosphatemia is one of the clinical manifestations of CKD. What medical intervention would be most appropriate to manage such?

a)

Regular insulin and dextrose

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Epoetin alfa (Epogen)

d)

Calcium acetate

85.

Intrarenal causes include the following, EXCEPT:

a)

Indiscriminate and prolonged use of NSAIDs

b)

Use of ACE inhibitors

c)

Myoglobinuria

d)

Use of mannitol

86.

In clients with CKI, their kidneys lose the ability to concentrate urine. What lab result should we look into?

a)

Platelet count

b)

Serum creatinine level

c)

Urine specific gravity

d)

Serum albumin level

87.

Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used in renal failure to

a)

Correct acidosis

b)

Reduce serum phosphate levels

c)

Exchange potassium for sodium for excretion of potassium

d)

Prevent constipation

88.

In the assessment of a client diagnosed with CKD, manifestations like circumoral numbness, paresthesia, positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau's signs are prominent. Bearing in mind the pathophysiologic cause of these manifestations, the client may be given?

a)

Kayexalate

b)

Regular insulin with 50% glucose

c)

Calcium gluconate

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

89.

Ulceration of the gastric mucosa may be manifested by the client with renal injury. How could this be explained?

a)

Ammonia, which is formed by the breakdown of urea by intestinal bacteria, irritates the gastric mucosa

b)

Serum creatinine from protein metabolism

c)

Increased phosphates in the gastric mucosa

d)

Increased hydrochloric acid

90.

Bleeding tendencies and anemia may be experienced by clients with AKI or CKD. The pathophysiologic causes of these two, except:

a)

Increased serum calcium level

b)

Gastric mucosal damage

c)

Decreased erythropoietin production

d)

Impaired platelet function

91.

SITUATION: Arnolfo Dimautakan, 48 yrs old, was admitted in the hospital. After the laboratory tests were made he was diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone (SIADH). The nurse recognizes that these signs and symptoms indicate the usual manifestation of SIADH.

a)

Flat neck veins, tachypnea and tachycardia

b)

Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypertension

c)

Narrowed pulse pressure and hypotension

d)

Confusion, tremors and bradycardia

92.

SITUATION: Arnolfo Dimautakan, 48 yrs old, was admitted in the hospital. After the laboratory tests were made he was diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone (SIADH). Which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Arnolfo Dimautakan as having fluid volume excess?

a)

Bradypnea

b)

tachycardia

c)

pulmonary edema

d)

Weight loss

93.

SITUATION: Arnolfo Dimautakan, 48 yrs old, was admitted in the hospital. After the laboratory tests were made he was diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone (SIADH). What nursing intervention would be the most accurate in evaluating Arnolfo Dimautakan fluid balance?

a)

Measure the Intake and output

b)

Check for tissue turgor

c)

Evaluate changes in daily weight

d)

Evaluate vital signs every 3 hours

94.

SITUATION: Arnolfo Dimakulangan becomes restless. Vital signs reveal an elevated blood pressure with tachycardia. The nurse recognizes that these signs and symptoms indicate which of the following complications related to SIADH?

a)

Increase ICP

b)

Encephalopathy

c)

Brain tumor

d)

Meningitis

95.

Basing on the knowledge about Arnolfo Dimautakan’s condition, which of the following electrolyte should the nurse watchful for?

a)

Decreased sodium

b)

Increased sodium

c)

Increased potassium

d)

Decreased potassium

96.

What is an allergic reaction that can quickly deteriorate into shock and death?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Graft-versus-host reaction

c)

Serum sickness

d)

Delayed-type hypersensitivity

97.

In the treatment of the progressive stage of shock, the nurse would anticipate the use of:

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Amrinone

d)

Norepinephrine

98.

The nurse is administering heparin, subcutaneous twice daily, for a patient in cardiogenic shock. The expected action of this drug is as:

a)

an inotropic to improve cardiac contractibility

b)

an anticoagulant to prevent blood clots

c)

an antidysrhythmic to restore normal cardiac contractibility

d)

a vasopressor to increase blood pressure

99.

While caring for an elderly client, notes that the patient has a low serum protein level. She will plan to assess for:

a)

Confusion

b)

restlessness

c)

edema

d)

pallor

100.

A patient is receiving 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. During administration of the solution, the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor is

a)

Peripheral pulses

b)

Lung sounds

c)

Peripheral edema

d)

Urinary output