wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Anatomy and Physiology BIO-202/211 EXAM 1

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the target of Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone (GHRH)?

a)

Anterior pituitary

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Posterior pituitary

d)

Thymus

2.

The pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" because:

a)

It is the largest gland in the human body.

b)

It controls the functions of all other endocrine glands.

c)

It is located in the brain.

d)

It produces the highest number of hormone

3.

Select the two hormones that are produced by the posterior pituitary gland

a)

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

d)

Antidiuretic Hormone

4.

What does Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) target and what does it do?

a)

Targets the Zona Fasciculata to stimulate the production of cortisol and DHEA

b)

Targets the Zona Reticularis to stimulate the production of dihydrotestosterone and DHEA

c)

Targets the Adrenal Medulla to stimulate the production of catecholamines

d)

Targets the Zona Glomerulosa to stimulate the production of aldosterone

5.

Dr. Primack presents to the Emergency Department with a laceration from Cross Fit training. They stitch up the laceration and he is completely fine, but a full hormone panel is done nevertheless. The results? Low LH and FSH and low serum testosterone. What deficiency is responsible for this?

a)

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

b)

Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)

c)

Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)

d)

Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone (GHRH)

6.

A 45 year old Shaquille O’Neal is visiting his primary care physician. This physician notices that Shaquille O’Neal possesses abnormally large ears, an abnormally large nose, and coarse, thickened skin. Bloodwork will later show elevated Insulin-like Growth Factor-1, but the physician can expect which hormone to be the cause of these features indicative of acromegaly?

a)

Calcitriol

b)

Testosterone

c)

Insulin

d)

Human Growth Hormone

7.

Jack is a student who is unfortunately missing both lungs. Don’t worry, he’s on ECMO, so he’s receiving adequate perfusion. However, his blood pressure is dropping. Why is this happening?

a)

He does not have lungs, so he cannot oxygenate his blood to increase blood pressure

b)

Without his lungs, he cannot produce angiotensinogen

c)

Without his lungs, he cannot release Angiotensin II

d)

Without his lungs, he cannot produce Angiotensin-converting Enzyme

8.

Our homeboy Jack is back and he’s got some lungs again. Unfortunately, he was taking Organic Chemistry right after his transplant, and his grades drove him to some severe binge drinking and now his skin is yellow :( . Why would this make his blood pressure drop and make him hyponatremic?

a)

Alcohol inhibits ADH, meaning he is urinating much more, thus reducing his blood volume

b)

The damage to the liver resulted in inhibited production of angiotensinogen

c)

Additives to the alcoholic beverages were potassium-dense, reducing blood volume

d)

The alcohol damages the stomach to the point of internal bleeding

9.

Select the hormone that increases blood pressure and water retention through an increase in sodium retention

a)

Aldosterone

b)

ADH

10.

Kevin just got through his fellowship and is now an attending physician. Kevin and his wife are looking forward to having kids, and Kevin, being a physician, wants to get an idea of his fertility markers. He begins by conducting a full hormone panel. A deficiency in which hormone would raise the biggest concern for Kevin?

a)

Testosterone

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

EPO

11.

Jessica presents to the Emergency Department showing substantial skeletal muscle atrophy, hypertension, and flu-like symptoms. Physicians have traced the cause of this to an abnormality of a region of the adrenal glands. Which region is responsible?

a)

Adrenal Medulla

b)

Zona Reticularis

c)

Zona Glomerulosa

d)

Zona Fasciculata

12.

A patient has a blood glucose level of 315 mg/dL. (This is pretty high, if you didn’t know.) What hormone is this patient in desperate need of?

a)

T3

b)

Cortisol

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

13.

Renin is produced by which organ?

a)

Liver

b)

Lungs

c)

Kidneys

d)

Adrenals

14.

Your patient presents to the Emergency Department unconscious. The Emergency Medical Technicians inform you that he has a blood glucose level of 10 (Extremely low). The EMT’s are in Arizona, meaning they legally could not administer which hormone targeting the liver to restore the patient’s blood sugar?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Cortisol

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Insulin

15.

A prohormone is defined as a physiological precursor of a more bioactive hormone. Which of the following would be considered a prohormone?

a)

T4

b)

Parathyroid hormone

c)

TSH

d)

T3

16.

Once T4 is converted to T3, it regulates metabolic activity throughout the body outside of a few organs. Which organs are not directly affected by T3?

a)

Liver, brain, adipose tissue

b)

Spleen, uterus, lungs

c)

Gall bladder, testes, liver

d)

Testes, spleen, uterus

17.

Teenage boys today have taken to using Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators and Aromatase Inhibitors to inhibit the activity of estrogen, as well as the overall amount of estrogen, in their bodies to increase their height before their growth plates close. Why is this a horrible idea?

a)

Estrogen binds to receptors in the brain during puberty, playing a critical role in brain development

b)

Even though teenage boys are doing this, it’s not a bad idea. Boys don’t need estrogen

c)

Estrogen is needed in order to stimulate the hypothalamus to produce GnRH

d)

Estrogen inhibits stimulative activity in the gonads, regardless of the sex of the individual

18.

Recent studies have been conducted to assess whether administration of a small amount of a particular hormone to individuals suffering from autism can improve their ability to form meaningful, emotional connections with the people in their lives. Which hormone is this? [Hint: This hormone plays a key role in bonding between partners]

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Testosterone

19.

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) helps regulate serum calcium levels via an interesting mechanism. What is it?

a)

PTH stimulates osteoclast activity to increase blood calcium levels

b)

PTH stimulates osteoblast activity to decrease blood calcium levels

c)

PTH promotes elimination of calcium from blood through kidneys

d)

PTH promotes absorption of calcium from blood in kidneys

20.

I was forced to sell my left kidney in Columbia for some quick cash so that I could buy fruit snacks from HerdStop after my dining dollars ran out. Even though I solved one problem, I created another problem. Which hormone deficiency can I potentially expect?

a)

Erythropoietin deficiency

b)

ANP deficiency

c)

ADH deficiency

d)

Prolactin deficiency

21.

As a side effect of eating too much Taco Bell, Michael has killed off all of the parietal cells he once had. What deficiency can Michael effect?

a)

HCl deficiency

b)

Pepsinogen deficiency

c)

Gastrin deficiency

d)

Secretin deficiency

22.

The duodenum in particular produces a hormone that works in conjunction with cholecystokinin. What hormone is this?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Pepsinogen

c)

Calcitriol

d)

Secretin

23.

Despite his parents being as tan as Ken and Barbie at the beach, Liam is so pale that he is almost translucent. It’s honestly horrifying, but that’s beside the point. What hormone is Liam likely lacking?

a)

Cholecalciferol

b)

Calcitriol

c)

Corticotropin Releasing Hormone

d)

Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone

24.

Select the hormone that is NOT produced by the hypothalamus.

a)

PIH

b)

ACTH

c)

PRH

d)

GHIH

25.

If you see a hormone abbreviation ending in “SH,” you should automatically know it is produced in the:

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thyroid

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Posterior pituitary

26.

If you see a hormone abbreviation ending in “RH,” you should automatically know it is produced in the:

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thyroid

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Posterior pituitary

27.

Alcohol directly suppresses the production of ADH. What does this do?

a)

Makes you urinate less

b)

Makes you urinate more

c)

Increases thyroid activity

d)

Modifies your sleep rhythms

28.

Sometimes, men develop a tumor on their pituitary gland called a prolactinoma. This results in supraphysiological secretion of prolactin. What would this cause?

a)

Altered serotonin levels

b)

Altered thyroid levels

c)

Lactation

d)

Altered serum calcium levels

29.

Victor Wembanyama is a seven foot, three and three-quarters inches eighteen-year-old from France who is a once-in-a-generation basketball player. By the age of thirteen, he had reached a height of six foot eight inches. What condition did doctors likely suspect Victor had at this age?

a)

Acromegaly

b)

GHRH deficiency

c)

Addison’s disease

d)

Gigantism

30.

Around 85% of the twenty tallest human beings to ever live had some sort of pituitary abnormality, often a tumor. Which hormone was likely the most affected in these individuals?

a)

GHRH

b)

TSH

c)

GH

d)

GHIH

31.

Carissa is approximately 42 weeks pregnant. You heard that right. Making things worse, this baby is thought to be about ten pounds. Production of which hormone will result in labor?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

c)

PRH

d)

Prolactin

32.

Which hormone is directly linked to IGF-1 levels?

a)

Testosterone

b)

GHRH

c)

GHIH

d)

GH

33.

The Zona Reticularis helps produce some androgens (important in women, especially) and neurosteroids. Which tissues are affected by these products?

a)

Brain

b)

Skeletal muscles

c)

Kidneys

d)

Whole body

34.

Select the answer that is not a function of Parathyroid Hormone

a)

Stimulation of osteoblast activity

b)

Activation of vitamin D

c)

Phosphate excretion

d)

Stimulation of osteoclast activity

35.

What hormone does the pineal gland release?

a)

Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone

b)

Melatonin

36.

What is another name for growth hormone?

a)

Genotropin

b)

Somatropin

c)

Somatotropin

d)

Norditropin

37.

I have begun an intense regimen of eating as many Oreos as I can throughout the day. As a result, I have become exceedingly insulin resistant. What condition am I going to develop if I have not developed it already?

a)

Type II Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Type I Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Diabetes Insipidus

38.

What do exocrine glands do?

a)

Secrete substances onto the surface of the body

b)

Secrete hormones

39.

Match the hormone to the pancreatic cell responsible for producing the particular hormone.

a)

Glucagon produced by beta cells

b)

Insulin produced by alpha cells

c)

Glucagon produced by gamma cells

d)

Insulin produced by beta cells

40.

What kind of hormone is insulin?

a)

A steroid hormone

b)

A cholesterol-derived hormone

c)

A peptide hormone

d)

A triglyceride hormone

41.

Which type of diabetes is an autoimmune disorder often identified while the patient is still a child?

a)

Type I Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Type II Diabetes Mellitus

42.

After waiting in line for 2 hours you finally get to eat your Chick-Fil-A. Right after taking the first bite of your chicken sandwich your small intestine releases what hormone?

a)

Secretin

b)

CCK

c)

Gastrin

d)

Glucagon

43.

Which hormone is released in response to high blood glucose levels to facilitate the uptake and storage of glucose in cells, thus lowering blood sugar levels?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Epinephrine

44.

Which hormone is released in response to low blood glucose levels to stimulate the breakdown of glycogen in the liver and increase blood glucose levels?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Epinephrine

45.

What do fluids in the cardiovascular system regulate?

a)

Temperature

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Hormone production

d)

Nutrient absorption

e)

All of the above

46.

What kind of tissue is Blood?

a)

Muscle tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Epithelial tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

47.

What makes blood fluid?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Platelets

c)

Plasma

d)

White blood cells

48.

What are the 3 formed elements of blood?

a)

Hormones, antibodies, and enzymes

b)

Plasma, platelets, and leukocytes

c)

Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

d)

Proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates

49.

What is the main defense in the body against disease and infection?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Platelets

c)

Plasma proteins

d)

White blood cells

50.

What is the most abundant plasma protein?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Immunoglobulin

51.

What substances does albumin transport?

a)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

Hormones and enzymes

c)

Fats, hormones, and drugs

d)

Glucose and amino acids

52.

Where are 90% of plasma proteins made?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Lungs

c)

Kidneys

d)

Liver

53.

What would happen to plasma protein production with liver disease?

a)

Production would increase

b)

Production would remain the same

c)

Production would decrease

d)

Production would stop completely

54.

What are plasma cells derived from?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Platelets

c)

B lymphocytes (B cells)

d)

T lymphocytes (T cells)

55.

What is Hematocrit (Hct, crit, or PVC)?

a)

The rate of blood clotting

b)

The percentage of red blood cells in the blood

c)

The number of platelets in the blood

d)

The amount of plasma in the blood

56.

Where are RBC’s destroyed when damaged or at the end of their life span?

a)

Liver

b)

Lungs

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidneys

57.

What is the life span of RBC’s?

a)

7 days

b)

30 days

c)

120 days

d)

365 days

58.

Why is carbon monoxide so deadly?

a)

It causes blood clotting

b)

It damages blood vessels

c)

It binds to hemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport

d)

It triggers allergic reactions

59.

What do the macrophages of the liver, spleen, and bone marrow do to RBC’s?

a)

Enhance their production

b)

Convert them into platelets

c)

Break them down and remove their components

d)

Stimulate their growth

60.

What blood type is known as the universal donor?

a)

O Negative

b)

A Positive

c)

B Negative

d)

AB Positive

61.

Why is O Negative the universal donor?

a)

It has no antibodies

b)

It has no antigens

c)

It has no antigens that react with recipient antibodies

d)

It has no antigens that react with donor antibodies

62.

Type O has no antigens present, so why can someone with type O negative blood accept type A or B negative blood?

a)

Type O has special antibodies

b)

Type A and B have no antigens

c)

Type O is genetically superior

d)

Type O lacks antigens that would be recognized as foreign by A or B blood recipients

63.

What would cause an increase in Neutrophils?

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Viral infections

c)

Bacterial infections

d)

Autoimmune diseases

64.

What would cause an increase in Eosinophils?

a)

Bacterial infections

b)

Fungal infections

c)

Parasitic infections

d)

Allergic reactions

65.

What is the main target in allergy medications?

a)

White blood cells

b)

Platelets

c)

Histamine receptors

d)

Red blood cells

66.

What secretes histamines?

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Mast cells

c)

T cells

d)

Spleen

67.

What is thrombocytosis?

a)

Low platelet count

b)

Abnormally high platelet count

c)

Formation of blood clots

d)

Low white blood cell count

68.

What is the function of VonWillebrand Factor?

a)

To transport oxygen

b)

To help with blood clotting

c)

To fight infections

d)

To regulate blood pressure

69.

What is hemophilia? Is it more common in males or females?

a)

A disorder of red blood cells – females

b)

A disorder of blood clotting – males

c)

A type of leukemia – females

d)

A bacterial infection – males

70.

Will someone who is a hemophiliac bleed for a longer period of time or bleed more rapidly when compared to someone with normal clotting factor levels?

a)

Bleed for a longer period of time

b)

Bleed more rapidly

71.

What does GP IIB/IIIa do?

a)

Regulates blood pressure

b)

Facilitates platelet aggregation

c)

Breaks down blood clots

d)

Activates white blood cells

72.

What does aspirin block and what does this do for clot formation?

a)

It blocks red blood cell production

b)

It blocks platelet aggregation, preventing clot formation

c)

It blocks white blood cell function

d)

It blocks plasma protein synthesis

73.

A patient is currently suffering a heart attack. The appropriate dose of aspirin in this situation is 81 mg of aspirin × 4 (324 mg). Is the aspirin going to get rid of the clot, or prevent it from getting worse?

a)

Get rid of the clot

b)

Prevent it from getting worse