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manage2

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these refers to small refinements in current organizational practices or routines that do not challenge, but rather build on or improve, existing aspects and practices within the organization?

a)

Differentiation change

b)

Incremental change

c)

Culture change

d)

Technological change

e)

Structural change

2.

Which of these refers to significant shifts in an organizational system that may cause significant disruption to some underlying aspect of the organization, its processes, or structures?

a)

Transformational change

b)

Incremental change

c)

Culture change

d)

Technological change

e)

Differentiation change

3.

Which of these represents a kind of change that is necessary for an organization to achieve the focus it needs to make needed transfer missions and work it does feel to stay competitive in the current or larger organization, larger market environment, or societal environment?

a)

Differentiation change

b)

Structural change

c)

Culture change

d)

Technological change

e)

Strategic change

4.

Which of the following definitions of leadership is adopted by your textbook authors?

a)

Leadership is initiating structure so group members know how to complete a task.

b)

Leadership is the art of persuasion.

c)

Leadership is the process of developing a vision, communicating that vision, and orchestrating the group’s energy toward goal attainment.

d)

Leadership is defined as a social influence relationship between two or more persons who depend upon one another for the attainment of certain mutual goals in a group situation.

e)

None of these.

5.

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between management and leadership is NOT true?

a)

The two concepts are defined differently.

b)

Leaders and managers come to be in their positions of headship through different processes.

c)

Managers and leaders are often differentiated from one another in terms of the type and sources of power they exercise.

d)

Leaders are seen as motivating primarily through extrinsic processes while managers motivate primarily through intrinsic processes.

e)

Effective leadership often calls for the ability to manage, and effective management often requires leadership.

6.

All of the following are key components of the leadership process EXCEPT:

a)

The context

b)

The followers

c)

The consequences

d)

The vision statement

e)

The leader

7.

The major determinant of the most effective style of leadership will be:

a)

The task

b)

The context

c)

The follower’s personality

d)

The consequences of the prior leadership situation

e)

The leader’s personality

8.

The relationship between leader behavior and follower behavior can best be characterized as:

a)

Leader behavior has little effect on follower behavior

b)

Follower behavior has no effect on leader behavior

c)

While the effectiveness of leader behavior is determined by follower characteristics or expectations it has also been found that follower behavior determines leader behavior

d)

Leader expectations of follower behavior determine leader behavior and follower expectations of leader behavior determine follower effectiveness.

e)

None of these.

9.

Two important group outcomes or consequences of the interactive process that unfolds between a leader, follower, and the situation include:

a)

Group cohesiveness and task performance

b)

Group cohesiveness and group maintenance

c)

Task performance and group maintenance

d)

Group superiority and group cohesiveness

e)

Task performance and group superiority

10.

The leader that members of a group acknowledge as their leader is:

a)

The formal leader

b)

The task leader

c)

The group maintenance leader

d)

The informal leader

e)

The initiating structure leader

11.

Leaders who stem from the dynamics and processes that unfold within and amongst a group of individuals as they work on the achievement of a collective goal are called:

a)

Formal leaders

b)

Designated leaders

c)

Emergent leaders

d)

Evolving leaders

e)

The initiating structure leader

12.

When power or influence within an organization flow to individuals or leaders who have the ability to help an organization or group handle challenges, the leadership influence is one based on:

a)

A designated leader

b)

A formal leader

c)

An informal leader

d)

Critical contingencies

e)

The initiating structure leader

13.

When people surrender their power to define reality for themselves to individuals whom they believe are capable of making meaningful contribution to those needs, they have surrendered their power because of:

a)

Critical contingencies

b)

Informal leadership

c)

Idiosyncrasy credits

d)

Formal power

e)

The initiating structure relationship

14.

An essential ingredient for effective leadership is the exercise of:

a)

Patience

b)

Understanding

c)

Power

d)

Politics

e)

Morals

15.

A leader who operates from a base of power where others want to associate with or be accepted by him or her is called:

a)

Referent power

b)

Reward power

c)

Expert power

d)

Legitimate power

e)

Coercive power

16.

When followers’ form of compliance is one of “how much am I getting,” or “how much should I give,” the base of power is probably:

a)

Legitimate power

b)

Reward power

c)

Referent power

d)

Coercive power

e)

Expert power

17.

Power with respect to leadership essentially answers the question:

a)

Who

b)

When

c)

How

d)

Why

e)

What

18.

Research evidence suggests that which one of the following bases of power is the most effective in terms of its impact upon follower commitment, motivation, performance, satisfaction, and group effectiveness?

a)

Position

b)

Expert

c)

Legitimate

d)

Reward

e)

Coercive

19.

A leader who wants to communicate a vision in such a way that it provides meaning will likely use:

a)

The mission statement

b)

The referent base of power

c)

Storytelling

d)

Reward power

e)

Carrot and sticks approach

20.

A Theory X leader would be more likely to exercise which of the following leadership styles?

a)

Permissive democratic

b)

Directive democratic

c)

Directive autocrat

d)

Free rein

e)

Permissive autocratic

21.

A Theory Y leader would likely tend to exhibit which of the following leadership styles?

a)

Boss centered

b)

Permissive democratic

c)

Permissive autocratic

d)

9,1 on Blake and Mouton’s grid

e)

Directive autocrat

22.

The starting point for the development of the study of leadership began with:

a)

McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y

b)

The great man theory

c)

Autocratic and democratic leadership styles

d)

Napoleon

e)

Frederick Taylor

23.

The great man theory of leadership basically states that:

a)

Leaders rise from a state of fortuitous circumstances

b)

Leaders are developed as a result of being in situations that require the use of power

c)

Leaders are born

d)

Historically the best leaders have tended to be autocratic

e)

Leaders emerge out of crisis

24.

The question, “What are the distinguishing characteristics of effective leaders?” sparked what approach to the study of leadership?

a)

Great man theory

b)

Contingency theory of leadership

c)

Trait approach to leadership

d)

Behavioral approach to leadership

e)

Charismatic approach to leadership

25.

Which of the following is NOT one of the traits identified by Locke as a precondition that endows people with leadership potential?

a)

Drive

b)

Honesty

c)

Cognitive ability

d)

Willingness to tolerate frustration

e)

Knowledge of the business

26.

According to personality psychologists, leader traits will play a stronger role shaping leader behavior in what type of situations?

a)

Weak

b)

Strong

c)

Structured

d)

Bureaucratic

e)

All of these.

27.

Recent evidence on sex and gender role as they relate to leadership suggests:

a)

Sex appears to be more predictive of emergent leaders than gender role

b)

Those individuals with feminine role characteristics or exhibit cheerfulness are more likely to emerge in leadership roles

c)

Androgynous individuals tend to be at a disadvantage as emerging leaders

d)

Individuals who simultaneously possess both masculine and feminine characteristics are as likely to emerge in leadership roles as individuals with only masculine characteristics

e)

None of these.

28.

Positive mood has been shown to:

a)

Be most strongly associated with the feminine role

b)

Be unrelated to gender role

c)

Be associated with interpersonal competence and more effective functioning as a leader

d)

Result in low self-monitoring and more effectiveness as a leader

e)

Be most strongly associated with the masculine role

29.

The knowledge, skills, and receptiveness to learning that an individual brings to a task or job refers to:

a)

Job experience

b)

Intelligence

c)

Ability

d)

Motivation

e)

Emotion

30.

All of the following are determinants of individual performance in organizations EXCEPT:

a)

Motivation

b)

Ability

c)

Market competition

d)

Constraints

e)

Accurate role perceptions

31.

A force within or outside of the body that energizes, directs, and sustains behavior is known as:

a)

Ability

b)

Effort

c)

Intensity

d)

Motivation

e)

Emotion

32.

Generally speaking, motivation arises inside people as a consequence of:

a)

Intentions and cognitive dissonance

b)

Unmet needs and intentions

c)

Cognitive dissonance and unmet needs

d)

Pain avoidance and unmet needs

e)

Pain avoidance and intentions

33.

We really could not talk about motivation without the:

a)

Inherent drive of unfilled needs

b)

Hedonistic tendencies of individuals

c)

Interaction of individuals and their situations to satisfy unmet needs and resolve dissonance

d)

Notion of cognitive dissonance

e)

Individual’s desire for pain avoidance and organizational intentions

34.

The amount of effort that a person exerts to achieve a level of job performance is:

a)

Intensity

b)

Direction

c)

Work motivation

d)

Persistence

e)

Cognitive dissonance

35.

The intention to exert effort in order to achieve a goal or target refers to what component of motivation?

a)

Intensity

b)

Persistence

c)

Direction

d)

Goal setting component

e)

Cognitive dissonance

36.

The degree to which people put forth effort to achieve their target refers to what component of motivation?

a)

Intensity

b)

Persistence

c)

Direction

d)

Goal setting component

e)

Cognition

37.

As a manager, which of the following would be most helpful in distinguishing both intensity and direction components of motivation?

a)

Role analysis technique (RAT)

b)

Self-efficacy

c)

Clarification of role perception

d)

Behavior modification

e)

Cognitive dissonance

38.

The two major sets of motivation models or theories of motivation are called:

a)

Context and content theories

b)

Process and context models

c)

Content and process theories

d)

Need theories and instinct theories

e)

Contingency and situational theories

39.

Which of the following statements regarding needs is most true?

a)

Needs provide intensity in the motivation process.

b)

A manifest need is a need that motivates across time and situations.

c)

Hedonism was an early motivation theory assuming people seek pain and avoid pleasure.

d)

Needs provide direction in the motivation process.

e)

None of these.

40.

Whatever need is motivating a person at a given time is:

a)

Probably a physiological or safety need

b)

Given today’s environment a self-actualization need

c)

A manifest need

41.

A human condition that becomes energized when people feel deficient in some respect is:

a)

The physiological set of needs

b)

The safety set of needs

c)

A need

d)

Defensiveness

e)

Emotional intelligence

42.

The need for achievement is:

a)

Necessary for survival in today’s competitive environment

b)

Instinctual

c)

Hereditary

d)

Learned

e)

Emotion-driven

43.

The need to socialize with other people is:

a)

Hereditary

b)

Learned

c)

Blurred or difficult to determine

d)

Manifest

e)

Physiological

44.

A need that cannot be inferred from a person’s behavior at a given time, yet the person may still possess that need is called a:

a)

Manifest need

b)

Self-actualizing need

c)

Growth need

d)

Latent need

e)

None of these

45.

The major implication for managers from Manifest Need Theory is:

a)

The identification of the great number of needs that individuals have

b)

That the manifestation of needs allows a manager to identify those that are most important to employees

c)

That some employee needs are latent

d)

The identification of primary and secondary needs

e)

All of these

46.

McClelland’s research focused on several needs in depth and has been incorporated into present day thinking about organizational behavior. Which of the following is a need that McClelland DID NOT research?

a)

Need for growth

b)

Need for affiliation

c)

Need for achievement

d)

Need for power

e)

McClelland’s research focused on all of these needs

47.

Achievement needs become manifest when individuals experience all of the following types of situations EXCEPT:

a)

When they feel that they are personally responsible for completion of the task

b)

Where the probability of success is moderate

c)

Where there is feedback

d)

Where there are high group goals

e)

Achievement needs become manifest when individuals experience all of these

48.

McClelland has argued that the most important motivator for successful managers is:

a)

Need for achievement

b)

Need for affiliation

c)

Need for social power

d)

Need for personal power

e)

Need for position power

49.

According to McClelland, jobs that are best performed alone are more appropriate for:

a)

Low nAff

b)

High nAff

c)

Low nAch

d)

High nPow

e)

Low need for growth

50.

Maslow’s theory of needs:

a)

Emphasized the need for self actualization

b)

Emphasized prepotency

c)

Includes the frustration-regression hypothesis

d)

Has received support for the five levels of needs as hypothesized

e)

Collapsed five needs into three

51.

An overriding principle of Maslow’s theory of needs is:

a)

People are driven by self-actualization

b)

The fact self-actualization is never achieved

c)

That a person’s direction and intensity will be focused on satisfying the lowest level need that is not currently satisfied

d)

People go through the five levels in a mechanical fashion

e)

People start at the highest level of the need and work their way down to lower levels

52.

The major implication for managers using Maslow’s need theory of motivation is:

a)

Focus on higher order needs

b)

Design self-actualizing jobs

c)

Help employees satisfy lower order needs

d)

To invert the pyramid

e)

Explore additional needs to satisfy

53.

According to Maslow, which of the following is the lowest order need?

a)

Safety and security

b)

Self-actualization

c)

Ego and esteem

d)

Social needs

e)

Social and esteem

54.

Which of these refers to the information society, using knowledge to generate tangible and intangible values?

a)

Knowledge economy

b)

Paradox

c)

Structural intervention

d)

Cognitive complexity

e)

Cultural intelligence

55.

According to Katzenbach and Smith, people organized to function cooperatively as a group best describe which of the following?

a)

Paradox

b)

A team

c)

Emotional intelligence

d)

Cognitive complexity

e)

Cultural intelligence

56.

All of these elements make teams function EXCEPT:

a)

Common commitment and purpose

b)

Specific performance goals

c)

Identical skills

d)

Commitment to how the work gets done

e)

Mutual accountability

57.

According to Katzenbach and Smith, all of the following practices makes a team effective EXCEPT:

a)

Establishing urgency, demanding performance standards, and direction

b)

Setting some clear rules of behavior

c)

Setting and seizing upon a few immediate performance-oriented tasks and goals

d)

Selecting members for their personality, not for their skill and skill potential

e)

Challenging the group regularly with fresh facts and information

58.

______ refers to working with someone to produce or create something.

a)

Mutual accountability

b)

Paradox

c)

Emotional intelligence

d)

Cognitive complexity

e)

Collaboration

59.

Which of the following is NOT a success factor for having strong collaboration skills?

a)

Surface-level diversity

b)

“Signature” relationship practices

c)

A sense of community

d)

Ambidextrous leaders—good at task and people leadership

e)

Role clarity and talk ambiguity

60.

Which of the following represent the correct sequence of Tuckman’s Stages of Group Development?

a)

Norming, Forming, Storming, Performing

b)

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

c)

Performing, Norming, Forming, Storming

d)

Forming, Storming, Performing, Norming

e)

Storming, Performing, Norming, Forming

61.

Which of the following is known as the “polite stage”?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

62.

In which stage is the team mainly focused on similarities and the group looks to the leader for structure and direction?

a)

Forming

b)

Storming

c)

Norming

d)

Performing

63.

In which stage the informal pecking order begins to develop, but the team is still friendly?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

64.

Which of the following is known as the “win-lose” stage?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

65.

In which stage the members clash for control of the group and people begin to choose sides?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

66.

In which stage the attitude about the team and the project begins to shift to negative, and there is frustration around goals, tasks, and progress?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

67.

In which stage buy-in to group goals occurs?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

68.

Cassandra is part of a team at ABC Products. She finds that her team is establishing and maintaining ground rules and boundaries, and there is willingness to share responsibility and control. Cassandra’s team can be described as operating at which stage of group development?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

69.

Cassandra is part of a team at ABC Products. She finds that finally, her team has started to build momentum and starts to get results. Cassandra’s team can be described as entering which stage of group development?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

70.

Margo’s team, at XY Products, is completely self-directed and requires little management direction. Margo’s team can be described as operating at which stage of group development?

a)

Storming

b)

Performing

c)

Forming

d)

Adjourning

e)

Norming

71.

According to Linda A. Hill, managing a team means managing ______.

a)

Knowledge workers

b)

Paradox

c)

Structural interventions

d)

Cognitive complexity

e)

Cultural divergences

72.

Which of the following describes a self-contradictory statement or situation?

a)

Knowledge workers

b)

Paradox

c)

Structural interventions

d)

Cognitive complexity

e)

Cultural divergences

73.

Which of the following is (are) team paradox(es)?

a)

Balancing individual differences and goals AND the collective identity and goals

b)

Fostering support AND confrontation among team members

c)

Balancing managerial authority AND team member discretion and autonomy

d)

Balancing the Triangle of Relationships—manager, team, and individual

e)

All of these.

74.

Which of these refers to the individual, group, or organization that needs or wants to share information with another individual, group, or organization?

a)

Communicator

b)

Receiver

c)

Figurehead

d)

Decoder

e)

Monitor

75.

The individual, group, or organization for which information is intended best describe which of the following?

a)

Communicator

b)

Receiver

c)

Figurehead

d)

Decoder

e)

Monitor

76.

Translating a message into symbols and language that a receiver can understand refers to which of the following?

a)

Noise

b)

Information overload

c)

Encoding

d)

Reputation management

e)

Decoding

77.

Interpreting and understanding and making sense of a message refers to which of the following?

a)

Noise

b)

Information overload

c)

Encoding

d)

Reputation management

e)

Decoding

78.

_____ refers to factors that distort message clarity.

a)

Noise

b)

Information overload

c)

Encoding

d)

Reputation management

e)

Decoding

79.

In _____ feedback, the receiver provides nonevaluative information to the communicator.

a)

Corrective

b)

Role ambiguity

c)

Reinforcing

d)

Informational

e)

Role clarity

80.

In _____ feedback, the receiver responds by challenging the original message.

a)

Corrective

b)

Role ambiguity

c)

Reinforcing

d)

Informational

e)

Role clarity

81.

In _____ feedback, the receiver communicates that she has clearly received the message and its intentions.

a)

Corrective

b)

Role ambiguity

c)

Reinforcing

d)

Informational

e)

Role clarity

82.

Which of the following consists of all messages or exchanges of information that are spoken?

a)

Oral communication

b)

Written communication

c)

Nonverbal communication

d)

Vertical communication

e)

Horizontal communication

83.

Which of the following includes e-mail, texts, letters, reports, manuals, and annotations on sticky notes?

a)

Oral communication

b)

Written communication

c)

Nonverbal communication

d)

Vertical communication

e)

Horizontal communication

84.

Which of these is known for its efficiency and immediacy?

a)

Oral communication

b)

Written communication

c)

Nonverbal communication

d)

Vertical communication

e)

Horizontal communication

85.

Body language and facial expression are examples of which of these?

a)

Oral communication

b)

Written communication

c)

Nonverbal communication

d)

Vertical communication

e)

Horizontal communication

86.

In an organization, office size and its placement communicates certain messages about the individual. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Oral communication

b)

Written communication

c)

Nonverbal communication

d)

Vertical communication

87.

Which of these best described communication?

a)

A social process

b)

Limitation to productivity

c)

Time waster

d)

A biological process

e)

None of these.

88.

Cassandra is part of a team at ABC Products. In her team meetings, at times, she understands and follows the discussion and other times she misses it because she is preoccupied with other thoughts. Which of the following can measure how Cassandra is paying close attention and is alert or observant?

a)

Noise

b)

Interaction attentiveness

c)

Encoding

d)

Vertical communication

e)

Horizontal communication

89.

Interaction involvement consists of three interrelated dimensions:

a)

Responsiveness, perceptiveness, and performance

b)

Performance, perceptiveness, and attentiveness

c)

Responsiveness, perceptiveness, and attentiveness

d)

Responsiveness, performance, and attentiveness

e)

Interaction, performance, assessment

90.

Which of these can arguably lead to a more participative structure and lead to improved communication in the organization?

a)

Command-and-control structure

b)

Centralization

c)

Structural interventions

d)

Decentralization

e)

Vertically tall structures

91.

As head of the marketing division at AB Products, Susan performs several ceremonial duties such as leading the honors reception for outstanding employees. Which of the following best describes what Susan does in this role according to Mintzberg?

a)

Liaison

b)

Figurehead

c)

Leader

d)

Spokesperson

e)

Disseminator

92.

Managers are responsible for the work of the people in their unit, and their actions in this regard are directly related to their role as which of these?

a)

Liaison

b)

Figurehead

c)

Leader

d)

Spokesperson

e)

Disseminator

93.

In which interpersonal role do managers establish and maintain contacts outside the vertical chain of command?

a)

Liaison

b)

Figurehead

c)

Leader

d)

Spokesperson

e)

Disseminator

94.

In which of these roles, managers are constantly scanning the environment for information, talking with liaison contacts and subordinates, and receiving unsolicited information, much of it because of their network of personal contacts?

a)

Monitor

b)

Figurehead

c)

Leader

d)

Spokesperson

e)

Disseminator

95.

In the ______ role, managers pass privileged information directly to subordinates, who might otherwise have no access to it.

a)

Monitor

b)

Figurehead

c)

Leader

d)

Spokesperson

e)

Disseminator

96.

The process by which managers establish goals and specify how these goals are to be attained is:

a)

Management by objectives

b)

Planning

c)

Strategic management

d)

Part of budgeting

e)

Organizing

97.

Plans have which of the following basic components?

a)

Future and past

b)

Current position in the market versus future position

c)

Purpose and value components

d)

Outcome and action statements

e)

Profits and losses

98.

When United Airlines considered putting pilots in its boardroom and when Northwest Airlines provided their workers an employee ownership system, they were:

a)

Making outcome statements as part of their planning

b)

Identifying a purpose statement as part of their planning

c)

Making action statements as part of their planning

d)

Testing the type of relationship they had with key inputs

e)

Controlling their employees

99.

All of the following are key questions managers have to think about when in the planning mode EXCEPT:

a)

What has to be done?

b)

How they will do it?

c)

Who is going to do it?

d)

Who will be on the executive committee and present the strategic plan to the board of directors?

e)

When they will do it?

100.

Which of the following patterns best reflects the planning process?

a)

Awareness→premises→set goals→determine course of action→develop support plans

b)

Premises→awareness→set goals→determine course of action→develop support plans

c)

Premises→awareness→set goals→develop support plans→determine course of action

d)

Awareness→set goals→premises→determine course of action→develop support plans

e)

Determine course of action→awareness→premises→set goals→develop support plans

101.

The stage of the planning process where an organization’s current location is specified, commitments are stated, the vision is set forth, and strengths and weaknesses identified is:

a)

Goal setting stage

b)

Premise stage

c)

Awareness stage

d)

Formulate support plans stage

e)

Determine course of action stage

102.

Where the organization is headed or is going reflects what stage of the planning process?

a)

Goal setting

b)

Premising

c)

Awareness

d)

Selection of alternatives

e)

Determine course of action

103.

Kristan, a freshman in college, has decided that she wants a Bachelor of Science degree in biochemistry. She then constructs a four-year academic plan that will make this goal a reality. Kristan is engaging in:

a)

Directional planning

b)

Domain planning

c)

Goal planning

d)

Hybrid planning

e)

Systems planning

104.

Michael is a senior in high school and wants to major in a business-related class when he goes to college. Michael plans to select a variety of courses from the School of Business curriculum yet not select a major. After selecting courses based upon availability and interest he earns a sufficient number of credits within this chosen area that enables him to graduate with a major in marketing. Michael has engaged in:

a)

Goal planning

b)

Career planning

c)

Domain planning

d)

Hybrid planning

e)

Systems planning

105.

Domain planning would be most appropriate for all of the following situations EXCEPT:

a)

When there is a recognized need for flexibility

b)

When people agree on goals

c)

When an organization is in the startup period

d)

When an organization is in an unstable and uncertain environment

e)

None of these

106.

When managers scan the internal and external environment they are engaging in what stage or step in the planning process?

a)

Awareness

b)

Setting goals

c)

Identifying and selecting alternatives

d)

Developing premises

e)

Determining course of action

107.

The coupling of domain and goal planning results in:

a)

Goal setting

b)

Alternative generation

c)

Premise setting

d)

Hybrid planning

e)

Systems planning

108.

Suppose that an organization decides to switch from a five-day forty-hour workweek to a four-day forty-hour workweek. This major plan would require:

a)

The development of key premises

b)

The careful development and selection of alternatives

c)

Awareness

d)

Supportive plans

e)

A mission

109.

Controlling with respect to the planning process follows:

a)

Premise setting

b)

Goal setting

c)

Alternative selection

d)

Supportive plans

e)

None of these

110.

A way to assess the effects of planned action with a way to view continuous improvement by integrating organizational learning into the planning process is:

a)

The MBO process

b)

The Deming Cycle

c)

The use of Hybrid planning

d)

To use Directional planning

e)

Mission vision cycle

111.

Planning for organizational events, whether in the internal or external environment, should include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Be routinely monitored

b)

Be administered without flexibility to avoid confusion

c)

Be an ongoing process

d)

Be seen as a continuous activity

e)

None of these

112.

All of the following are reasons for formulating plans EXCEPT:

a)

To offset certainty

b)

To focus organizational activity on objectives

c)

To facilitate control by establishing a standard

d)

To provide a coordinated road map for future activities

e)

None of these

113.

Strategic, administrative, and operating plans are:

a)

Organizational scope plans

b)

Hierarchical plans

c)

Contingency plans

d)

Standing plans

e)

Single use plans

114.

The plan that integrates, guides, and serves as a bases for controlling organizational activities for the immediate and long-range future, plus establishes boundaries for managerial decision making is called:

a)

The administrative plan

b)

Hierarchical plan

c)

Organizational scope plan

d)

Strategic plan

e)

Single use plans

115.

A plan that focuses on one of the organization's businesses would probably be a:

a)

Time-frame plan

b)

Strategic plan

c)

Frequency of use plan

d)

Organizational scope plan

e)

Single use plans

116.

The outcomes or goals stated in an organization's mission statement, annual report, and charter are called:

a)

Legitimate goals

b)

Operational goals

c)

Task goals

d)

Official goals

e)

Mission goals

117.

When an organization states it wants to increase output by 10%, they have stated a(n):

a)

Legitimate goal

b)

Operational goal

c)

Official goal

d)

Strategic goal

e)

Residual goal

118.

Goals are formulated as a result of:

a)

Poor performance and strategic initiatives

b)

Balancing stakeholder demands and internal political processes

c)

CEO preferences and market demands

d)

Owner input and internal preferences

e)

None of these

119.

Organizational planning will be most beneficial when:

a)

The market is stable

b)

The market is simple with few competitors and products

c)

The market is complex and unstable

d)

The organization is small

e)

The organization is a one-person operation

120.

Studies have shown that firms who engage in planning are:

a)

More focused in the market place

b)

Higher in employee satisfaction than those that do not plan

c)

Inclined to develop strong cultures

d)

More financially successful than those that do not

e)

More multicultural than those that do not

121.

Classical management thinking advocates:

a)

Involving organization members in developing plans

b)

The implementation of an MBO program

c)

A separation of planning and doing

d)

Lower level participation in planning

e)

Bottom-up planning process

122.

The two primary goal characteristics that enhance the motivating power of goals are:

a)

Goal difficulty and goal acceptance

b)

Goal acceptance and goal feedback

c)

Goal specificity and goal acceptance

d)

Goal specificity and goal difficulty

e)

Goal feedback and goal clarity