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Page 1

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes enzymes in biological systems?

a)

Carbohydrates that form structural fibers

b)

Proteins that act as biological catalysts

c)

Lipids that store metabolic energy

d)

Nucleic acids that encode genetic traits

2.

Fill in the blank: The study of enzymes and their roles in metabolic pathways is called (a)   .

3.

Which option correctly pairs the molecule type with its role: substrate and product?

a)

Product binds enzymes; substrate leaves reactions unchanged

b)

Substrate is a byproduct of enzyme action; product is waste

c)

Product is what enzymes act upon; substrate is formed

d)

Substrate is what enzymes act upon; product is formed

4.

List two reasons why measuring plasma enzyme levels can indicate tissue damage, and explain the underlying mechanism.

4 lines
5.

Which statement about enzyme concentrations is accurate?

a)

Higher in cells than in plasma

b)

Equal in cells and plasma

c)

Higher in plasma than in cells

d)

Absent in plasma under normal conditions

6.

Which best explains why enzymes are crucial for metabolic pathways?

a)

They replace the need for regulatory proteins entirely

b)

They permanently alter substrates into inactive molecules

c)

They catalyze individual steps at life-sustaining rates

d)

They supply energy directly to cellular respiration

7.

Explain how clinical enzymology is applied in diagnosing and treating diseases, giving one example of application.

4 lines
8.

Which statement about isoenzymes is most accurate?

a)

Isoenzymes catalyze the same reaction but differ by tissue

b)

Isoenzymes are identical proteins across all tissues

c)

Isoenzymes are carbohydrates used for metabolism

d)

Isoenzymes perform unrelated reactions in plasma

9.

Tight regulation of enzyme activity is essential for homeostasis. What term describes genetic diseases arising from enzyme dysfunction?

a)

Hemostatic dyscrasias

b)

Autoimmune enzymopathies

c)

Acquired proteinopathies

d)

Inborn errors of metabolism

10.

A patient presents with chest pain. Which reasoning process would best use plasma enzyme changes to evaluate myocardial damage?

4 lines
11.

Which condition results from mutation in phenylalanine hydroxylase causing phenylalanine accumulation?

a)

Homocystinuria

b)

Tyrosinemia

c)

Maple syrup urine disease

d)

Phenylketonuria

12.

Clinical enzymology primarily focuses on changes in enzyme levels for diagnosis, differential diagnosis, and monitoring. Fill in the blank: Tracking disease progression and treatment response is called (a)   .

13.

Elevated serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK2) supports which clinical application when ECG changes are inconclusive?

a)

Prognosis of chronic liver disease

b)

Therapeutic monitoring of chemotherapy

c)

Diagnosis of myocardial infarction

d)

Screening for pulmonary embolism

14.

A patient shows elevated serum glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase (GOT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Which diagnosis is most supported?

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Acute pancreatitis

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Hepatic failure

15.

Pulmonary embolism is best indicated by elevation of which single serum enzyme?

a)

Amylase alone

b)

LDH alone

c)

ALT alone

d)

CPK2 alone

16.

During chronic antidepressant or chemotherapy use, elevations in which serum enzymes are commonly monitored?

a)

Amylase or lipase

b)

Isocitrate dehydrogenase or ornithine carbamoyl-transferase

c)

Creatine phosphokinase or troponin

d)

GGT or alkaline phosphatase

17.

Functional plasma enzymes are synthesized by the liver and act within plasma. Which is the best example category?

a)

Transaminases and dehydrogenases

b)

Mitochondrial respiratory enzymes

c)

Coagulation and lipoprotein-metabolizing enzymes

d)

Digestive and lysosomal enzymes

18.

Non-functional plasma enzymes are normally intracellular and present at low plasma levels. Which finding most suggests cell damage?

a)

Elevated plasma levels

b)

Normal low plasma levels

c)

High urinary excretion

d)

Absence in plasma

19.

Classify plasma enzymes into functional and non-functional types and describe their clinical significance.

4 lines
20.

Which statement best describes secretory enzymes in plasma?

a)

Produced by hepatocytes exclusively for metabolism

b)

Converted from inactive zymogens within plasma

c)

Synthesized by glands and secreted into body lumens

d)

Released after cell damage into circulation

21.

Pancreatitis commonly elevates which pair of secretory enzymes?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase and GGT

b)

AST and ALT

c)

LDH1 and LDH2

d)

Pancreatic amylase and lipase

22.

Elevated alanine transaminase (ALT) most strongly indicates damage in which organ?

a)

Kidney tissue

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Liver parenchyma

d)

Pancreatic ducts

23.

Which mechanism explains increased plasma enzyme levels from apoptosis or necrosis?

a)

Reduced hepatic synthesis due to mutations

b)

Increased release from damaged cells raising membrane permeability

c)

Enhanced renal clearance leading to rapid excretion

d)

Inhibition by insecticides causing enzyme blockade

24.

Name one condition where impaired clearance increases plasma enzymes.

(a)  

25.

Low ceruloplasmin levels are characteristic of which disease?

a)

Obstructive jaundice

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Paget’s disease

d)

Wilson’s disease

26.

Insecticide poisoning that affects pseudocholinesterase primarily causes which change?

a)

Cofactor excess increasing activity

b)

Enhanced enzyme synthesis

c)

Enzyme inhibition or deficiency

d)

Accelerated hepatic clearance

27.

Define isoenzymes in one precise sentence.

4 lines
28.

Which statement about lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) isoenzymes is accurate?

a)

LDH isoenzymes cannot indicate tissue-specific injury

b)

LDH isoenzymes all share identical tissue localization

c)

LDH has five isoenzymes (LDH1–LDH5) linked to different tissues

d)

LDH has two isoenzymes specific to bone and brain

29.

Match LDH isoenzymes to their predominant tissue association.

a)

LDH5—brain and kidney

b)

LDH1/LDH2—liver and skeletal muscle

c)

LDH5—heart and red blood cells

d)

LDH1/LDH2—heart and red blood cells

30.

A patient presents with obstructive jaundice. Which enzyme is most likely elevated due to impaired clearance?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

b)

Ceruloplasmin

c)

Amylase

d)

ALT

31.

Explain how measuring isoenzymes can aid clinical diagnosis.

4 lines
32.

Which enzyme pattern most specifically indicates liver damage when elevated in plasma?

a)

High amylase isoenzymes levels

b)

High lactate dehydrogenase levels

c)

High creatine kinase total levels

d)

High alanine transaminase levels

33.

Elevated aspartate transaminase in plasma may suggest involvement of which tissue besides liver?

a)

Heart muscle involvement

b)

Pancreatic acinar involvement

c)

Renal tubular involvement

d)

Intestinal mucosa involvement

34.

Which simple calculation helps differentiate liver diseases from other conditions using plasma enzymes?

a)

LDH to CK ratio

b)

Total protein to albumin ratio

c)

Amylase to lipase ratio

d)

ALT to AST ratio

35.

Why does measuring more than one enzyme improve diagnostic precision?

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36.

In the liver, which two enzymes are abundant and commonly estimated?

(a)  

37.

What term describes multiple forms of an enzyme that differ in physical or chemical properties?

(a)  

38.

Which enzyme is present in both skeletal and cardiac muscle and has isoenzymes useful in diagnosis?

a)

Lactate dehydrogenase

b)

Aspartate transaminase

c)

Alanine transaminase

d)

Creatine kinase

39.

A patient presents with chest pain. Serial estimations show a rise and fall of CK-MB over time. What does this pattern most likely indicate?

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40.

Which factor enhances the diagnostic value of enzyme measurements by showing the balance between enzyme entry and clearance?

a)

Number of enzyme isoforms present

b)

Total daily enzyme protein concentration

c)

Rate of change in plasma enzyme activity

d)

Baseline fasting plasma glucose level

41.

Persistently raised plasma enzyme activity most likely indicates which condition?

a)

A chronic disorder or impaired clearance

b)

Recent meal causing transient elevation

c)

Excess vitamin intake without disease

d)

Laboratory calibration error only

42.

Which statement best describes the diagnostic insight from intracellular distribution of enzymes?

a)

Enzymes act only in the bloodstream

b)

Extracellular matrix binds all enzymes equally

c)

Serum albumin levels determine enzyme type

d)

Location within cells informs tissue damage

43.

ALT and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) are predominantly located in which cellular compartment?

(a)  

44.

Glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH) is primarily found in which organelle?

(a)  

45.

Which enzyme’s presence in both cytoplasm and mitochondria provides broader diagnostic information regarding cellular damage?

a)

AST

b)

LDH

c)

CK

d)

ALT

46.

Which is NOT a function of creatine kinase (CK) in muscle cells?

a)

Catalyzes ATP regeneration during contraction

b)

Stores high-energy creatine phosphate

c)

Helps maintain muscle ATP levels

d)

Initiates glycogen breakdown for glucose

47.

Which tissue has high concentrations of CK?

a)

Bladder, liver, pancreas

b)

Kidney, lung, intestine

c)

Skeletal muscle, heart, brain

d)

Skin, adipose tissue, spleen

48.

Which CK isoenzyme is specific for myocardial damage and elevated in acute myocardial infarction?

a)

CK-MB (hybrid type)

b)

CK-MM (muscle type)

c)

CK-BB (brain type)

d)

LDH-1 (cardiac type)

49.

After an acute myocardial infarction, CK-MB levels typically rise within how many hours and peak by what time?

a)

Rise 24–36 hours, peak 48–60 hours

b)

Rise 8–12 hours, peak 36–48 hours

c)

Rise 4–8 hours, peak 12–24 hours

d)

Rise 1–2 hours, peak 6–8 hours

50.

Which CK isoenzyme is elevated in CNS damage, tumors, and certain cancers?

a)

CK-BB (brain type)

b)

CK-MB (hybrid type)

c)

GLDH (mitochondrial type)

d)

CK-MM (muscle type)

51.

List two non-disease factors that can influence CK levels.

4 lines
52.

Provide the reference range for CK in males and females.

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53.

Which reaction is catalyzed by lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) in human metabolism?

a)

Citrate to isocitrate via aconitase

b)

Lactic acid to pyruvic acid using NAD+

c)

Pyruvate to acetyl-CoA via CoA transfer

d)

Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate via ATP

54.

LDH is found in multiple tissues. Which list best represents common LDH tissue sources relevant to diagnostics?

a)

Heart, liver, skeletal muscle, kidney, erythrocytes, lungs

b)

Adipose tissue, endocrine glands, cornea, marrow

c)

Pancreas, thyroid, spleen, skin, retina, bone

d)

Intestine, placenta, hair follicles, nails, cartilage

55.

Total LDH levels are nonspecific. Which approach increases diagnostic value for LDH testing?

a)

Measuring only LDH in urine samples

b)

Repeating tests every hour for two days

c)

Analyzing LDH isoenzymes LDH-1 to LDH-5

d)

Using fasting status to reduce variability

56.

Which LDH isoenzymes are typically elevated in acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and hemolysis?

a)

LDH-1 and LDH-2 fractions

b)

LDH-5 fraction only

c)

LDH-3 fraction only

d)

LDH-4 and LDH-5 fractions

57.

Elevations of LDH-3 are most associated with which condition?

a)

Pulmonary disorders and carcinomas

b)

Acute viral hepatitis episodes

c)

Renal failure with uremia

d)

Thyroid storm crises

58.

The LDH isoenzymes LDH-4 and LDH-5 are indicative of disorders in which tissues?

a)

Pulmonary parenchymal fibrosis

b)

Liver and skeletal muscle disorders

c)

Cardiac conduction system issues

d)

Renal glomerular diseases

59.

Provide the typical reference range for total LDH activity.

(a)  

60.

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) primarily performs which biochemical role?

a)

Phosphorylates fructose in hepatic metabolism

b)

Oxidizes ethanol via NAD+ dependent pathway

c)

Hydrolyzes peptide bonds in serum proteins

d)

Transfers amino groups between aspartate and α-keto acids

61.

Which tissues show high concentrations of AST under normal physiology?

a)

Pancreas, thyroid, and spleen

b)

Kidney, lung, and intestine

c)

Heart, liver, and skeletal muscle

d)

Skin, bone, and cartilage

62.

In acute viral hepatitis, which enzyme typically shows the highest levels indicating acute liver damage?

a)

AST shows highest elevations

b)

Alkaline phosphatase spikes first

c)

ALT shows lowest changes

d)

LDH decreases markedly

63.

State the typical reference range for AST activity.

(a)  

64.

Which statement best describes alanine aminotransferase (ALT) compared with AST?

a)

Catalyzes similar transamination and is more liver-specific

b)

Acts mainly in renal gluconeogenesis pathways

c)

Primarily a cardiac enzyme with minimal liver presence

d)

Functions in lipid oxidation and ketone formation

65.

Where is ALT primarily found, making it a key marker for hepatocellular injury?

a)

Liver tissue predominantly

b)

Skeletal muscle predominantly

c)

Pulmonary tissue predominantly

d)

Renal cortex predominantly

66.

In acute liver inflammation, how do ALT elevations typically compare with AST?

a)

ALT elevations are higher and longer-lasting

b)

ALT and AST remain unchanged together

c)

ALT decreases while AST rises quickly

d)

ALT rises briefly then normalizes faster

67.

Provide the typical reference range for ALT activity.

(a)  

68.

Which reaction is catalyzed by alkaline phosphatase (ALP)?

a)

Hydrolyzes phosphate esters at alkaline pH

b)

Forms phosphate esters at neutral pH

c)

Transfers phosphate groups at acidic pH

d)

Oxidizes phosphate esters at basic pH

69.

Identify two major tissue sources of ALP used clinically.

a)

Thyroid

b)

Pancreas

c)

Bone

d)

Liver

e)

Skeletal muscle

70.

An adult with cholestasis presents with elevated ALP. Which site most likely accounts for the increase?

a)

Renal tubular secretion impaired

b)

Placental production in late pregnancy

c)

Bone resorption due to osteoporosis

d)

Liver synthesis increased by cholestasis

71.

During normal pregnancy, ALP can rise. Which statement best explains this physiological change?

a)

Bone isoenzyme is suppressed by estrogen

b)

Kidney reabsorption of ALP increases markedly

c)

Erythrocyte breakdown releases ALP into plasma

d)

Placental isoenzyme contributes to higher levels

72.

Acid phosphatase (ACP) functions optimally at approximately which pH?

a)

Around pH 5.0 acidic conditions

b)

Near pH 7.4 physiological range

c)

Above pH 9.0 alkaline conditions

d)

Exactly pH 6.5 mildly acidic

73.

Historically, which disease was ACP used to help detect before PSA became standard?

a)

Prostate cancer detection historically

b)

Paget's disease of bone primarily

c)

Cholestatic liver disease routinely

d)

Pancreatic carcinoma screening

74.

Name one key physiologic role of gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT).

(a)  

75.

Which tissues are common sources of GGT measured in clinical evaluations?

a)

Prostate

b)

Pancreas

c)

Brain

d)

Kidney

e)

Liver

76.

Why is GGT particularly useful in assessing biliary tract obstruction compared to ALP alone?

4 lines
77.

List two non-disease factors that can increase GGT levels.

4 lines
78.

Which enzyme primarily catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen and requires calcium and chloride ions for activation?

a)

Lipase in gastric and intestinal tissues

b)

Amylase from pancreatic acinar cells

c)

G6PD in erythrocyte cytosol

d)

Cholinesterase in neuromuscular junctions

79.

Identify the major tissue sources of amylase relevant to diagnostic testing.

a)

Fallopian tubes and stomach lining

b)

Erythrocytes and cardiac myocytes

c)

Skeletal muscle and small intestine

d)

Pancreatic acinar cells and salivary glands

80.

Elevated serum amylase is most strongly associated with which clinical condition in emergency diagnostics?

a)

Renal tubular necrosis

b)

Acute pancreatitis episodes

c)

Chronic obstructive bronchitis

d)

Hepatic cirrhosis flare

81.

Which statement best describes the diagnostic value of lipase compared with amylase in acute pancreatitis?

a)

Amylase is unaffected by intestinal perforations

b)

Lipase is more specific for pancreatitis diagnosis

c)

Amylase is uniquely specific for salivary lesions

d)

Lipase primarily reflects salivary gland obstruction

82.

Where is lipase primarily sourced for clinical measurement when evaluating pancreatic injury?

a)

Salivary glands predominantly

b)

Skeletal muscle predominantly

c)

Erythrocytes predominantly

d)

Pancreas predominantly

83.

A patient presents with mumps and elevated amylase. Which tissue involvement explains the enzyme rise?

a)

Erythrocyte membrane instability increases

b)

Skeletal muscle fiber breakdown predominates

c)

Pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretion changes

d)

Salivary gland lesions causing enzyme release

84.

Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase most directly leads to which clinical outcome?

a)

Drug-induced hemolytic anemia

b)

Cholinergic crisis in neuromuscular junctions

c)

Obstructive salivary sialadenitis

d)

Acute bacterial pancreatitis

85.

What product of G6PD activity helps maintain erythrocyte redox status?

(a)  

86.

Which enzyme is known as true cholinesterase or acetylcholine acetylhydrolase?

a)

Pseudocholinesterase enzyme variant

b)

True cholinesterase acetylhydrolase

c)

Pancreatic trypsinogen precursor

d)

Serum alkaline phosphatase isoform

87.

Identify one tissue source where true cholinesterase is found.

a)

Bone marrow exclusively

b)

Renal tubules primarily

c)

Erythrocytes among others

d)

Adipose tissue mainly

88.

Decreased true cholinesterase activity is most associated with which condition?

a)

Hepatic disease presentation

b)

Acute pancreatitis flare

c)

Nephrotic syndrome onset

d)

Recovery from liver injury

89.

Increased true cholinesterase levels can indicate which scenario?

a)

Acetylcholine receptor deficit

b)

Severe hepatic failure episode

c)

Recovery from liver damage period

d)

Organophosphate poisoning exposure

90.

Provide the reference range for true cholinesterase listed on the page.

(a)  

91.

Glutamate dehydrogenase catalyzes which reaction?

a)

Hydrolysis of peptide bonds

b)

Reduction of disulfide bridges

c)

Oxidative deamination of glutamate

d)

Phosphorylation of glucose

92.

Which organs are primary tissue sources of glutamate dehydrogenase?

a)

Bone cartilage tendon mostly

b)

Pancreas spleen lung chiefly

c)

Liver heart kidneys mainly

d)

Brain gray matter predominantly

93.

Elevated glutamate dehydrogenase is diagnostically useful for what?

a)

Evaluating cholinergic synapse function

b)

Confirming nephrotic syndrome diagnosis

c)

Detecting pancreatic enzyme activation

d)

Assessing liver cell necrosis severity

94.

State the GLD reference range at 37°C for men.

(a)  

95.

Why can organophosphate poisoning lead to decreased true cholinesterase activity?

4 lines
96.

Which inflammatory response effect is noted on enzyme levels after cellular injury?

a)

Suppresses cytokines with no enzyme level change

b)

Increases only lipase while amylase stays unchanged

c)

Triggers pro-inflammatory cytokines affecting enzyme levels

d)

Reduces α-amylase and lipase activity markedly

97.

For α-amylase (EC 3.2.1.1; AML), which condition is associated with a marked increase at 5–10× the upper reference limit?

a)

Perforated peptic ulcer with slight change

b)

Intestinal obstruction with transient rise

c)

Acute pancreatitis with major elevation

d)

Acute cholecystitis causing mild elevation

98.

What is the stated diagnostic utility of lipase in pancreatic disease?

4 lines
99.

Liver enzymes are categorized into three main groups. Fill in the blank: Markers of (a)   include ALT and AST.

100.

Alanine transaminase (ALT; EC 2.6.1.2) is described as highly specific to which tissue due to its abundance?

a)

Renal cortex in glomerular function

b)

Skeletal muscle with protein turnover

c)

Hepatocytes showing tissue specificity

d)

Myocardium due to high energy demand

101.

Which condition is associated with marked increase (10–100× upper reference limit) of ALT?

a)

Cholestatic jaundice with slight elevation

b)

Infectious mononucleosis causing mild rise

c)

Cirrhosis producing moderate increase

d)

Acute viral or toxic hepatitis

102.

A patient presents with right upper quadrant pain. Explain how combined amylase and lipase testing aids diagnosis.

4 lines
103.

Which statement best explains why AST is less specific for liver pathology?

a)

Present in cardiac and skeletal muscle

b)

Exclusive mitochondrial localization

c)

Rapidly cleared by the kidneys

d)

Only synthesized in hepatocytes

104.

A 15-fold rise in AST most strongly aligns with which condition?

a)

Acute viral hepatitis

b)

Uncomplicated gallstones

c)

Chronic autoimmune thyroiditis

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

105.

Marked AST elevation may occur in myocardial infarction because AST is also found in cardiac muscle.

(a)  

106.

Which tissue sources contribute to alkaline phosphatase activity measured in serum?

a)

Liver, bone, intestines, placenta

b)

Brain, lung, pancreas, spleen

c)

Kidney, retina, prostate, thymus

d)

Adipose, cartilage, cornea, uterus

107.

In which physiological state is ALP expected to be elevated without disease?

a)

Sedentary lifestyle

b)

Fasting

c)

Dehydration

d)

Pregnancy

108.

Why is lactate dehydrogenase considered a non‑specific marker of cell damage?

a)

Has only one tissue isoenzyme

b)

Rapidly degraded in circulation

c)

Exclusively produced in the liver

d)

Widely distributed across body tissues

109.

Elevated LD is most consistent with which pattern of tissue injury?

a)

Restricted to placental pathology

b)

Isolated pancreatic and adrenal necrosis

c)

Only biliary obstruction and cholestasis

d)

Cardiac and skeletal muscle; liver, kidney, erythrocyte damage

110.

Which cardiac enzyme fraction exceeding 6% of total CK supports early myocardial infarction diagnosis 4–6 hours after symptom onset?

a)

CK-MB isoenzyme fraction

b)

LDH overall activity

c)

Total CK activity level

d)

Troponin T concentration

111.

Elevated levels of which proteins are specific markers for myocardial injury and predict adverse outcomes in angina and myocardial infarction?

a)

Troponins T and I

b)

CK-MB fraction

c)

Plasma myoglobin

d)

Creatinine levels

112.

In cardiac damage, which enzyme is used alongside CK-MB and clinical findings to aid diagnosis?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase

b)

ALT activity

c)

LDH measurement

d)

Amylase test

113.

Fill the blank: In malignancy, common changes include elevated plasma total enzyme activity and detection of abnormal (a)   .

114.

In liver metastasis and leukemia, which enzyme level is typically increased and may assist in monitoring disease?

a)

Troponin I

b)

Serum lipase

c)

LDH activity

d)

CK-MB

115.

Niemann-Pick disease involves deficiency of which enzyme, leading to sphingomyelin accumulation in lysosomes?

a)

Glucocerebrosidase

b)

Hexosaminidase A

c)

Sphingomyelinase

d)

Galactosidase

116.

Homocystinuria is caused by deficiency of which enzyme, resulting in homocysteine accumulation and associated connective tissue abnormalities?

a)

Ornithine transcarbamylase

b)

Tyrosinase

c)

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

d)

Cystathionine β-synthase

117.

Where are enzymes mainly synthesized within the cell, considering their eventual targeting or export?

a)

Mitochondria only

b)

Cytosol or ER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Lysosomes alone

118.

Briefly describe the intracellular distribution of enzymes and mention two organelles involved.

4 lines
119.

Fill the blank: A relatively small number of enzymes are synthesized in the (a)   , and these enzymes stay within this space.

120.

Which factor directly influences plasma enzyme levels by determining how quickly enzymes enter circulation from damaged cells?

a)

Rate of release from damaged cells

b)

Renal filtration of small peptides

c)

Dietary protein intake per day

d)

Temperature of the clinical laboratory

121.

Identify the two primary determinants of plasma enzyme levels when active tissue damage is present.

a)

Rate of release from damaged cells

b)

Extent of cell damage

c)

Rate of enzyme clearance

d)

Degree of enzyme synthesis induction

e)

Half-life of the enzyme

122.

When there is no cell damage, which processes most affect changes in plasma enzyme levels?

a)

Extent of cell lysis

b)

Degree of induction of enzyme synthesis

c)

Temperature-dependent denaturation

d)

Rate of release from necrotic cells

e)

Rate of cell proliferation

123.

Which balancing factor helps determine the measured concentration of enzymes in plasma over time?

a)

Number of assay calibration points

b)

Volume of patient plasma sample

c)

Rate of enzyme clearance from circulation

d)

Presence of unrelated lipids in plasma

124.

Choose the best definition of isozymes relevant to clinical diagnostics.

a)

Synthetic enzymes used in assays

b)

Denatured enzymes lacking activity

c)

Different forms catalyzing the same reaction

d)

Unrelated proteins with distinct reactions

125.

Which enzyme is preferred to indicate hepatocellular damage due to its specificity compared with AST?

a)

ALT (SGPT)

b)

LDH (isoenzyme 1)

c)

CK-MB

d)

Amylase

126.

In acute pancreatitis, which plasma enzyme level is expected to rise?

a)

Acid phosphatase

b)

CK-MM

c)

ALT

d)

Amylase

127.

During myocardial infarction, how does LDH behave temporally?

a)

Rises within 24 hours and returns to normal in 5–6 days

b)

Remains unchanged for 7–10 days

c)

Peaks only after 14 days of recovery

d)

Falls immediately and normalizes in 12 hours

128.

Which LDH isoenzyme pattern is typically seen in liver disease?

a)

LDH 3 becomes undetectable

b)

LDH 5 increases

c)

LDH 1 predominates

d)

LDH 2 decreases only

129.

Cholinesterase activity is normally involved in which physiological function?

a)

Neuromuscular conduction

b)

Renal acid-base regulation

c)

Hepatic bile synthesis

d)

Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

130.

Which enzyme is routinely used to estimate blood glucose by producing gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide?

a)

Glycerol kinase

b)

Urease enzyme

c)

Glucose oxidase

d)

Alcohol dehydrogenase

131.

In the glucose oxidase-peroxidase method, which substance acts on the generated hydrogen peroxide to form a measurable colored compound?

a)

Peroxidase enzyme

b)

Renin catalyst

c)

Thrombokinase dye

d)

Lysozyme reagent

132.

Name the enzyme used to estimate the amount of urea in blood.

(a)  

133.

Which pair of enzymes assists in estimating triacylglycerol by acting on glycerol and its phosphate?

a)

Urokinase and lysozyme

b)

Glycerol kinase and glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase

c)

Pepsin and renin

d)

Thromboplastin and peroxidase

134.

Cholesterol levels are commonly determined using which specific oxidase?

(a)  

135.

Alcohol levels are assessed using an assay based on which enzyme?

a)

Urease enzyme

b)

Streptokinase

c)

Alcohol dehydrogenase

d)

Glucose oxidase

136.

Explain why colorimetric measurement in enzyme-based assays yields a signal proportional to analyte concentration.

4 lines
137.

Which therapeutic enzyme is used to treat pulmonary embolism and some myocardial infarctions by lysing clots?

a)

Lysozyme enzyme

b)

Renin protease

c)

Thromboplastin factor

d)

Urokinase agent

138.

Streptokinase is clinically indicated primarily for which purpose?

a)

Treat gastric achylia

b)

Dissolve clot in myocardial infarction

c)

Manage eye infections

d)

Correct blood coagulation abnormalities

139.

Identify the two gastric enzymes employed in managing gastric achylia.

(a)  

140.

Eye infections can be treated with which enzyme known for its bacteriolytic activity?

(a)