WorksheetsCellular Pathology: Reed-Sternberg Cell
Total questions: 128
Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins
In the diagram, which feature most reliably distinguishes the Reed–Sternberg cell from the normal lymphocyte?
Thin elongated nucleus with scant cytoplasm
Abundant cytoplasm lacking nucleoli
Small round dense chromatin nucleus
Irregular nuclear membrane without nucleoli
Bilobed nucleus with prominent nucleoli
A pathologist compares the labeled cells. Which interpretation best explains why the larger labeled cell indicates Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Plasma cell with eccentric nucleus indicating multiple myeloma
Small mature lymphocyte typical of reactive hyperplasia
Eosinophil with bilobed nucleus indicating allergy
Large atypical cell with bilobed nucleus signals Hodgkin's
Macrophage with foamy cytoplasm suggesting infection
You must confirm a suspected Reed–Sternberg cell seen in this image. Which next step most appropriately validates the identification?
Request peripheral blood smear review
Order CD15 and CD30 immunostains on the tissue
Start broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately
Measure serum lactate dehydrogenase level
Perform CT scan of chest and abdomen
Which behavior most increases the risk of acquiring HIV through bloodborne exposure?
Sharing IV needles during drug use
Donating blood at licensed centers
Receiving routine vaccinations at clinics
Working as a lifeguard at public pools
Which group may be underdiagnosed with HIV due to symptom overlap with other illnesses?
Older adults in primary care
Adolescents with acne
Athletes with muscle strains
Infants with colic symptoms
Which sexual practice best reduces HIV transmission risk?
Periodic abstinence on weekends
Consistent condom use with partners
Withdrawal method during intercourse
Using spermicides without condoms
Which scenario represents occupational exposure to HIV?
Mechanic repairs car transmissions
Teacher shares classroom pencils
Nurse sustains a needlestick injury
Chef handles raw poultry daily
Early HIV infection commonly presents with which constellation of symptoms?
Fever, night sweats, rash
Constipation, tinnitus, hiccups
Joint stiffness, hair loss, sneezing
Blurred vision, dry skin, cramps
Which finding is a typical early sign of HIV-related immune activation?
Isolated ankle swelling
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Localized bone fracture pain
Hepatic jaundice only
Which prevention strategy targets transmission via injection drug use?
Inject slowly to reduce trauma
Avoid sharing needles entirely
Rotate injection sites daily
Use cotton filters for solutions
For routine screening, which age range is recommended for HIV testing?
Ages sixty-five and older
Ages five through twelve
Ages thirteen through sixty-four
Ages twenty-five through thirty
Which vaccination is specifically recommended for individuals with HIV risk?
Live smallpox vaccine
Yellow fever live booster
Oral polio sugar cube
Pneumococcal immunization
Which combined approach most effectively reduces HIV risk in sexually active individuals?
Consistent condoms plus routine testing
Occasional condoms plus herbal supplements
Spermicides alone without condoms
Routine testing without barrier methods
Which screening test primarily detects HIV antibodies after sufficient time post-exposure?
ELISA screening assay
Western blot test
HIV RNA PCR
CD4 flow cytometry
After approximately how long do most people produce enough antibodies for HIV detection by standard screening?
About 12 weeks
About 8 weeks
About 20 weeks
About 4 weeks
Which test is used to confirm a positive HIV screening result?
Brain MRI
ELISA repeat test
Western blot or IFA
CBC with differential
What does viral load testing primarily measure in HIV management?
Amount of virus in blood
Antibody concentration level
Platelet aggregation function
CD4 lymphocyte percentage
A CBC abnormality commonly associated with HIV includes which finding?
Polycythemia presence
Thrombocytopenia state
Eosinophilia surge
Hyperleukocytosis
Which nursing priority best reduces the risk of opportunistic infections in HIV patients?
Support hydration status
Prevent infection proactively
Encourage medication adherence
Provide emotional support
Monitoring which two parameters best reflects disease progression and treatment response in HIV?
CD4 count and viral load
BMI and daily weights
Electrolytes and creatinine
Hemoglobin and hematocrit
A patient’s platelets are <150,000. Which complication is most concerning?
Renal failure onset
Hypertension risk increase
Bleeding tendency risk
Seizure threshold drop
Which noninvasive specimen can be used for certain HIV tests besides blood?
Mucosal fluid or urine
Pleural fluid collection
Cerebrospinal fluid sample
Synovial fluid aspirate
Which nursing assessment set is most appropriate during routine HIV care?
Skin biopsy, sputum culture, endoscopy
Pain scale only, gait test, reflexes
ECG only, glucose checks, lipids
I/O, daily weights, nutrition, electrolytes
Which supportive intervention directly addresses hypoxemia during acute HIV-related illness?
O2 administration therapy
Increased oral fluids
Vitamin supplementation
Passive range exercises
Which action best reinforces transmission prevention counseling for an HIV-positive patient?
Stop all physical activity
Recommend high-protein diet
Schedule brain MRI routinely
Discuss safe sex practices
Which ART class blocks HIV fusion with the host cell membrane?
Integrase inhibitors like raltegravir
Protease inhibitors like indinavir
Entry inhibitors like maraviroc
Fusion inhibitors such as enfuvirtide
Maraviroc primarily acts by blocking which host receptor?
CD4 surface glycoprotein
HLA class II molecule
CXCR4 coreceptor protein
CCR5 chemokine co-receptor
Which NRTI example inhibits RNA to DNA conversion by reverse transcriptase?
Dolutegravir as an integrase agent
Zidovudine as a nucleoside analog
Efavirenz as a non-nucleoside drug
Atazanavir as a protease blocker
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) like efavirenz primarily:
Inhibit protease-mediated assembly
Allosterically inhibit reverse transcriptase
Block CCR5-mediated viral entry
Prevent viral DNA strand insertion
Protease inhibitors such as atazanavir mainly:
Block viral protein assembly
Target CCR5 coreceptor binding
Inhibit reverse transcription
Prevent membrane fusion events
Integrase inhibitors like raltegravir:
Allosterically block reverse transcriptase
Prevent viral DNA insertion
Block protease cleavage steps
Inhibit CCR5-dependent entry
Primary goals of ART include:
Enhance CCR5 expression on T cells
Eliminate latent HIV reservoirs fully
Increase viremia and induce immunity
Suppress replication and preserve CD4
Routine monitoring for patients on ART should include:
Urinalysis and sputum cultures
ECG and echocardiography
Bone density and DEXA scans
CBC, WBC, liver function tests
Which laboratory values are specifically tracked for metabolic effects of ART?
Lipids and bilirubin levels
Serum amylase and lipase
Ferritin and transferrin
Uric acid and lactate
A normal CD4:CD8 ratio is closest to:
Approximately three to one
Approximately two to one
Approximately one to two
Approximately one to one
A CD4:CD8 ratio less than 1 suggests:
Primary immunization response
Acute hypersensitivity reaction
Effective viral suppression
Disease progression or resistance
Key patient education to prevent resistance emphasizes:
Skipping doses to reduce toxicity
Alternating drugs every other day
Stopping therapy when asymptomatic
Taking medications exactly as prescribed
Common opportunistic infections in HIV include:
Otitis media, sinusitis, impetigo
Lyme disease, tetanus, malaria
TB, PCP pneumonia, candidiasis
Influenza A, norovirus, RSV
Management priorities for wasting syndrome include:
High-protein small frequent meals
Fluid restriction to <1 L/day
Prolonged fasting for ketosis
Low-protein renal-sparing diet
Kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV is best categorized as:
An autoimmune arthropathy
A bacterial opportunistic disease
An AIDS-associated malignancy
A hereditary connective disorder
For fluid and electrolyte imbalance in advanced HIV, typical orders include:
Hypertonic saline bolus therapy
Strict NPO with minimal fluids
2–3 liters fluids daily with labs
No labs unless symptomatic
Which interprofessional team member primarily manages antiretroviral therapy selection and opportunistic infection treatment for a patient with HIV?
Home health nurse
Infectious disease specialist
Rehabilitation therapist
Respiratory therapist
A patient with HIV asks about food safety. Which advice is most appropriate to prevent gastrointestinal infections?
Avoid raw or undercooked foods
Rinse meats with cold water
Choose raw seafood dishes
Use herbal supplements daily
A patient with HIV has two cats. Which recommendation minimizes infection risk related to pet care?
Avoid cleaning pet litter boxes
Clean litter boxes carefully
Use scented litter products
Feed cats raw meat diets
Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of systemic lupus erythematosus?
Bacterial toxins trigger acute fever
Viral replication destroys immune cells
Autoantibodies drive chronic inflammation
Allergy-mediated histamine release
Which form of lupus primarily affects multiple organ systems and can lead to organ failure?
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Discoid cutaneous lupus
Medication-induced lupus
Transient neonatal lupus
A patient develops lupus-like symptoms after starting hydralazine. Which outcome is most likely after stopping the drug?
Permanent organ failure occurs
Cutaneous lesions persist lifelong
Symptoms resolve gradually
Disease becomes systemic
Which trigger is most likely to precipitate an SLE flare?
Ultraviolet light exposure
High-protein diet changes
Routine aerobic exercise
Cold weather alone
Which patient profile reflects a common age and sex distribution for SLE?
Child aged five to ten
Male aged sixty to seventy
Male adolescent aged thirteen to fifteen
Female aged twenty to forty
Which skin finding best suggests systemic lupus erythematosus?
Butterfly rash across cheeks and nose
Coin-shaped plaques on scalp and face
Dermatographism on trunk and arms
Scaling patches on elbows and knees
Which clinical feature commonly indicates an SLE flare?
Isolated pruritus without rash
Severe thirst without polyuria
Productive cough with sputum
High fever with malaise
Which phenomenon is characterized by triphasic color changes of fingers in cold exposure?
Erythema multiforme
Raynaud's phenomenon
Livedo reticularis
Acrocyanosis
Which hematologic pattern is often seen in SLE on complete blood count?
Eosinophilia with basophilia
Isolated neutrophilia only
Pancytopenia affecting all lines
Polycythemia with leukocytosis
Which test is positive in about 95% of SLE cases but lacks specificity?
Anti-Smith antibody
Antinuclear antibody
Direct Coombs test
Anti-ENA panel
A patient with SLE presents with pleuritic chest pain. What complication is most likely?
Pneumonia causing dull ache
Pulmonary embolism painless
Pericarditis causing sharp pain
Esophagitis causing burning
Which urinary finding suggests renal involvement in SLE?
High specific gravity alone
Alkaline urine without casts
Glucosuria without ketones
Proteinuria with red blood cells
Which diagnostic procedure confirms discoid lupus erythematosus affecting skin lesions?
Nerve conduction study
Chest radiograph imaging
Serum ESR measurement
Skin biopsy of the lesion
Which facial pattern corresponds to the malar rash of SLE?
Scaling at nasolabial folds
Pustules around mouth only
Erythema over cheeks and bridge
Telangiectasia on forehead
Which renal finding most strongly suggests SLE-related nephritis requiring prompt monitoring?
Edema with reduced urine output
Polyuria with normal creatinine
Hematuria without edema
Nocturia with stable BUN
Which assessment finding aligns with pleural effusion in SLE?
Enhanced breath sounds bilaterally
Diminished breath sounds unilaterally
Stridor with inspiratory crackles
Expiratory wheezes diffusely
Which musculoskeletal symptom profile is typical during an SLE flare?
Arthralgia, myalgia, polyarthritis
Dislocations with ligament tears
Bone deformities and contractures
Myopathy with muscle wasting
What is the best meal strategy for an anorexic SLE patient experiencing fatigue?
Only liquid meals twice daily
One large high-protein dinner
Intermittent fasting every other day
Small, frequent meals and supplements
Why is salt intake limited during corticosteroid therapy in SLE?
Minimizes steroid-related anemia
Avoids steroid-induced hypoglycemia
Prevents hyperkalemia from steroids
Reduces steroid-related fluid retention
Which laboratory set is most relevant for renal monitoring in SLE?
PT, INR, fibrinogen
TSH, T3, free T4
AST, ALT, bilirubin
BUN, creatinine, urine output
While on corticosteroids, which complication requires surveillance in older adults?
Increased fracture risk with therapy
No change in bone integrity
Improved bone density consistently
Reduced fracture risk over time
Which reason justifies avoiding NSAIDs in certain SLE patients?
They cause universal allergic reactions
They must be avoided with kidney disease
They worsen liver fibrosis directly
They always raise blood pressure severely
What is a key monitoring priority for immunosuppressants like azathioprine or methotrexate?
Daily pulmonary function testing
Electrolyte replacement therapy
Infection and bone marrow suppression
Routine ophthalmologic surgery
Which statement best describes belimumab’s mechanism in SLE?
Enhances complement cascade activity
Inhibits B-cell activation in SLE
Blocks T-cell receptor binding
Stimulates neutrophil proliferation
Which adverse effect mandates regular eye exams with hydroxychloroquine?
Persistent blurred vision changes
Severe tinnitus with ear pain
Sudden anosmia without congestion
Photosensitivity worsening rapidly
Which hygiene recommendation supports skin integrity in SLE?
Apply alcohol-based powders often
Rub skin vigorously after bathing
Air-dry skin without moisturizers
Use mild soaps; moisturize daily
Which precaution reduces infection risk for SLE patients on immunosuppressants?
Share personal hygiene items
Start live vaccines immediately
Avoid crowds and sick contacts
Attend crowded events routinely
Which symptom change requires prompt reporting by an SLE patient at home?
Occasional yawn after fatigue
Mild sunburn that fades quickly
Transient sneezing after dusting
Edema, infection, or sudden changes
Why is ophthalmology follow-up included in interprofessional SLE care?
Monitor cataracts from NSAIDs
Evaluate steroid-induced myopia
Monitor hydroxychloroquine effects
Screen glaucoma from belimumab
Which counseling topic is critical for women with SLE considering pregnancy?
Guaranteed remission during pregnancy
Complete safety of all immunosuppressants
Pregnancy risks with lupus and medications
No medication changes are needed
During assessment, which vital sign needs particular attention in SLE?
Heart rate exclusively
Temperature exclusively
Respiratory rate only
Blood pressure especially
Which nutrition-focused instruction aligns with SLE steroid therapy?
Limit salt to reduce retention
Avoid fluids to prevent edema
Increase salt to prevent cramps
Eliminate all carbohydrates completely
Which neurologic manifestation may appear during severe SLE flare?
Mild situational anxiety
Simple motion sickness only
Confusion, seizures, psychosis
Seasonal allergies and sneezing
Which cardiac monitoring priority accompanies steroid use in SLE?
Monitor for bradycardia only
Monitor for hypertension and fluid retention
Monitor for migraine and tinnitus
Monitor for hyperthermia and rash
Which complication is a leading cause of death in systemic lupus erythematosus and may progress to chronic kidney disease?
Pulmonary embolism causing hypoxia
Hematologic anemia causing fatigue
Dermatitis causing skin breakdown
Lupus nephritis causing renal failure
A client with suspected lupus nephritis presents with facial puffiness and swollen ankles. Which assessment priority best aligns with nursing actions for this complication?
Apply warm compresses to swollen areas
Monitor periorbital and lower‑extremity edema
Encourage high‑protein dietary intake
Schedule daily chest physiotherapy
Which laboratory monitoring is most appropriate to evaluate renal function in lupus nephritis?
Serum amylase and lipase levels
Serum BUN and creatinine levels
Serum troponin and CK‑MB
Arterial blood gas analysis
Pericarditis and myocarditis in SLE primarily involve inflammation of which structures?
Heart muscle, vessels, or pericardial sac
Pulmonary alveoli and pleural lining
Cranial nerves and meninges
Hepatic lobules and bile ducts
Which client education statement best reflects safe management of life‑threatening SLE complications?
Delay reporting chest pain until next visit
Increase fluid intake despite edema symptoms
Use over‑the‑counter NSAIDs for chest pain
Take immunosuppressants and corticosteroids as prescribed
Which mechanism most directly causes thrombocytopenia in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Complement lyses endothelial cells systemically
IgG targets megakaryocytes in bone marrow
IgG coats platelets for splenic clearance
IgM agglutinates red cells causing hemolysis
A hallmark result of antibody-coated platelet destruction in ITP is:
High platelets with petechiae
Low platelets and bleeding risk
Elevated platelet count and clotting
Normal platelets with bruising only
Which is a recognized drug that can induce or trigger ITP?
Proton pump inhibitors for GERD
Thiazide diuretics for hypertension
Acetaminophen used for pain
Statins used for dyslipidemia
Which infection is associated with increased risk for developing ITP?
HIV infection increases risk
Common cold consistently causes ITP
Influenza infection decreases risk
Hepatitis B always prevents ITP
In a patient with severe, active bleeding due to ITP, which immediate supportive measure is appropriate?
Start long-term azathioprine therapy
Begin low-dose aspirin prophylaxis
Schedule elective splenectomy next week
Platelet transfusions for severe bleeding
Which second-line option targets the site of platelet destruction in refractory ITP?
High-dose glucocorticoids daily
Splenectomy removes the destruction site
Heparin to prevent thrombosis
IV immune globulin infusion
Which agent is a thrombopoietin receptor agonist used in ITP management?
Rituximab activates TPO signaling
Cyclophosphamide boosts platelet function
Vancomycin stimulates megakaryocytes
Romiplostim increases platelet production
Priority nursing action for a hospitalized patient with ITP is to:
Promote frequent NSAID use
Encourage vigorous physical activity
Assess urine output hourly
Monitor platelet count regularly
Which teaching point helps reduce bleeding risk for patients with ITP?
Use herbal blood thinners daily
Prefer intramuscular injections frequently
Avoid trauma and NSAIDs use
Increase contact sports participation
Which enzyme deficiency most directly leads to microthrombi formation in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Plasminogen fibrinolytic enzyme defect
ADAMTS13 metalloprotease deficiency
Factor VIII coagulant protein loss
Protein C anticoagulant activity absence
What primary pathophysiologic sequence best characterizes thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Antithrombin excess → inhibited thrombin → hypocoagulation
Immune complex deposition → vasculitis → edema
Hyperfibrinolysis → clot dissolution → bleeding
Platelet aggregation → microthrombi → tissue ischemia
Which clinical finding results from red blood cells being damaged while passing through clots in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Aplastic bone marrow failure
Iron deficiency anemia
Hemorrhagic anemia after trauma
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Which cause is most commonly implicated in acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Bacterial endotoxin–induced thrombosis
Vitamin K dependent factor deficiency
Inherited ADAMTS13 gene mutation
Autoantibody-mediated ADAMTS13 inhibition
Which patient scenario is a recognized trigger for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Dietary iron restriction over months
Pregnancy or postpartum physiologic changes
High-altitude hypoxia exposure alone
Simple viral upper respiratory illness
Which neurologic manifestation commonly occurs in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Isolated cranial nerve palsy
Peripheral demyelinating neuropathy
Chronic progressive myopathy
Confusion with possible seizures
What immediate first-line therapy reduces mortality in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura by removing autoantibodies and replenishing ADAMTS13?
Oral iron supplementation
High-dose platelet transfusion
Therapeutic plasma exchange
Routine prophylactic anticoagulation
Why are platelet transfusions generally contraindicated in untreated thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
They cause immune anaphylaxis in all patients
They can fuel clot formation and worsen ischemia
They permanently suppress bone marrow function
They trigger disseminated bleeding immediately
A patient with thrombocytopenia, fever, renal impairment, and neurologic changes most likely has which disorder when microclots are widespread?
Deep venous thrombosis alone
Hemophilia A with inhibitors
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Which drug exposure is classically associated with triggering thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Statin lipid-lowering therapy
Aspirin low-dose regimen
Acetaminophen analgesic use
Clopidogrel or ticlopidine use
Which room setup best reduces infection risk for an immunocompromised patient?
Negative-pressure isolation with closed door
Shared room with doors kept closed
Positive-pressure isolation with sealed entry
Private room with door may remain open
What sign should be posted to alert staff of special precautions for a compromised immune system?
Contact Precautions sign
Droplet Precautions sign
Airborne Precautions sign
Compromised Host Precautions sign
Which environmental control is appropriate to lower infection risk?
Open containers of sterile water daily
Humidifier with tap water nightly
No standing water in the room
Fresh fruit soaking in sink water
Regarding plants and flowers for an at-risk patient, which statement is correct?
Allowed by policy but patient must not handle
Strictly prohibited in all hospital settings
Permitted only if patient waters them daily
Allowed only in negative-pressure rooms
What is the most important infection prevention action for staff and visitors?
Perform hand hygiene before contact
Wear masks at all times in room
Use gowns and shoe covers routinely
Avoid speaking near the patient
Which vital sign schedule is recommended for monitoring infection risk?
Every 8 hours with night hold
Every 2–4 hours routinely
Continuous monitoring only if febrile
Once daily unless symptomatic
In neutropenic patients, which temperature triggers urgent action?
Above 38°C (101°F) immediately
Above 37°C (98.6°F) within 24 hours
Below 36°C (96.8°F) urgently
Exactly 38°C after repeat check
How should cultures be timed during evaluation of a rising fever in an at-risk patient?
Obtain cultures only if chills present
Draw cultures after antibiotics start
Wait for defervescence before cultures
Draw cultures as temperature rises
What is the recommendation for indwelling catheters and tubes?
Change catheters every other day
Remove catheters and tubes ASAP
Keep catheters until antibiotics end
Flush catheters hourly routinely
Which technique is essential for performing procedures on immunocompromised patients?
Strict aseptic technique required
Clean technique with gloves only
Universal precautions without masks
Sterile technique only for surgeries
For equipment management, what approach is recommended?
Share equipment after quick wipe-down
Use dedicated equipment for the patient
Use central equipment without cleaning
Borrow devices from other rooms often
When should the patient wear a mask under these precautions?
When outside the room; change each trip
Continuously inside the room
Only if coughing inside the room
Never, masks are contraindicated
Which hygiene advice is appropriate for the patient?
Avoid showers to protect skin oils
Handwashing before/after meals, toileting
Use bar soap for better lathering
Hand sanitizer replaces all washing
Which fever statement in neutropenia reflects urgency level?
Low-grade fever requires no evaluation
Fever becomes urgent only with hypotension
Fever in neutropenia is a medical emergency
Fever in neutropenia is routine and expected
During plasmapheresis for TTP, what nursing priority applies?
Closely monitor hemodynamics during procedure
Restrict fluids to prevent overload
Avoid blood pressure checks during exchange
Keep patient NPO after the procedure
Which therapy is first-line for TTP management?
IV fluids with diuretics only
Platelet transfusion as initial step
High-dose aspirin anticoagulation
Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis/PEX)
Why are platelet transfusions generally avoided in TTP?
They are ineffective due to renal clearance
They provide no increase in platelet count
They cause severe allergic reactions invariably
They are contraindicated; can worsen clotting
Which adjunct therapy may be used in TTP?
Vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma only
Long-term warfarin and heparin bridge
Therapeutic phlebotomy and iron chelation
Corticosteroids or monoclonal antibodies
What patient assessment is emphasized in TTP nursing care?
Monitor neurologic status and renal function
Check skin turgor and capillary refill
Assess respiratory rate and breath sounds
Evaluate vision acuity repeatedly
Which precaution should be implemented for TTP patients?
Bleeding precautions instituted
Neutropenic isolation precautions
Airborne TB precautions only
Contact precautions for MRSA
Which soap type is preferred for daily hygiene in at-risk patients?
Medicated bar soap with exfoliants
Detergent-based shampoo instead
Antibacterial wipes exclusively
Liquid soap rather than bar soap
Which food choice best aligns with a low‑microbial diet for an immunocompromised patient?
Home‑canned peaches fully boiled
Unpasteurized yogurt with fruit pieces
Sliced melon from a salad bar
Fresh garden salad with raw tomatoes
What is the primary purpose of coordinating diagnostic test schedules to minimize time in public waiting areas for immunocompromised patients?
Improve staff workflow efficiency
Ensure faster laboratory turnaround
Reduce exposure to infectious agents
Decrease patient travel expenses
A neutropenic patient asks about dairy products. Which guidance is most appropriate?
Prefer artisanal unpasteurized cheeses
Choose raw milk for higher nutrients
Select pasteurized dairy exclusively
Avoid all dairy regardless type
Which education priority most directly supports early intervention for infection in an immunocompromised host?
Teach advanced antimicrobial pharmacology
Review when to report fever promptly
Explain lymphocyte maturation stages
Discuss long‑term vaccination schedules
A patient insists on eating fresh strawberries at home. Which nursing action demonstrates appropriate DoK‑3 reasoning for risk mitigation?
Permit after refrigeration overnight
Recommend canned or fully cooked alternatives
Allow if washed with tap water
Approve if peeled before serving
