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Chapter 7 Identifying-Arresting Suspects

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Field or show-up identification is on-the-scene identification of a suspect by a victim or witness of a crime. The show-up must be:


a)

shortly after the incident.

b)

close in location to the incident.

c)

based on a warrant.

d)

in conjunction with an attorney’s consent.

2.

A field identification is also called a:

a)

show-up.

b)

follow-up.

c)

shake-down.

d)

hot stops.

3.

Which method is used to identify suspects?

a)

field or show-up identification

b)

family empathy

c)

grand jury indictment hearings

d)

hearsay evidence

4.

In Whren v. United States (1996), the Supreme Court affirmed that officers could stop vehicles to allay any suspicions even though they have no evidence of criminal behavior. This type of stop is referred to as a:

a)

pretextual stop.

b)

silver platter stop.

c)

Terry stop.

d)

racial profiling stop.

5.

Which of the following can be created using Identi-Kit?

a)

composite drawings and sketches

b)

physical evidence left at the crime scene

c)

unknown latent fingerprints

d)

booking photos

6.

Psychological profiling:

a)

can help eliminate and develop suspects.

b)

is used only in conjunction with a psychic.

c)

is 95 percent accurate in all criminal cases.

d)

is no longer used in police work.

7.

In the DEA smuggling case, United States v. Weaver (1992), what did the Court rule?

a)

Race can be considered among other factors to use in developing suspects.

b)

Only agents of the same race as a suspect can work undercover to avoid racism charges.

c)

Race can never be used as a factor in developing suspects.

d)

Racial profiling is always illegal.

8.

Live lineups generally contain:

a)

two to four individuals.

b)

four to six individuals.

c)

six  to ten individuals.

d)

four to 12 individuals.

9.

In United States v. Wade, the Court said that a suspect must be informed of his or her right to have a lawyer present during what type of process?

a)

booking

b)

Terry stops

c)

invasive searches

d)

lineups

10.

The objective of surveillance in criminal investigations is to:

a)

make a suspect aware that they are being watched.

b)

obtain information about people, their associates, and their activities that may help solve a criminal case or protect a witness.

c)

obtain information about anyone or anything.

d)

punish the offenders.

11.

Wiretaps are legal when there is probable cause and they are:

a)

ordered by the chief of police or sheriff.

b)

authorized by the investigating officer.

c)

reviewed by a grand jury.

d)

authorized by a court.

12.

In United States v. Knotts (1983), the Court ruled that installing and monitoring a bird dog tracking device in a public location:


a)

violates a suspect’s rights.

b)

is illegal.

c)

does not violate a suspect’s rights.

d)

is inadmissible.

13.

Florida v. Riley (1989) approved warrantless aerial surveillance, noting that:

a)

there had to be at least 10,000 feet between the police airplane and the suspects.

b)

there should be no reasonable expectation of privacy from the skies above.

c)

this was a test case and was only approved once and therefore is not widely applicable in investigation.

d)

it must be in conjunction with a simultaneous ground-level surveillance.

14.

Making a legal arrest, gaining information for warrants, or even preventing crime can all be the result of:


a)

criminal profiling.

b)

surveillance.

c)

entrapment.

d)

pretextual traffic stops.

15.

Surveillance, undercover assignments, and raids are used only when:

a)

the case involves narcotics.

b)

the case is a felony.

c)

normal methods of continuing the investigation fail to produce results.

d)

terrorist activity is suspected.

16.

What is one precaution specifically for an undercover agent to keep in mind?

a)

Write notes that the subject can read.

b)

Carry professional identification in case they need to make an arrest.

c)

Ensure that communication with headquarters is covert.

d)

Use drugs and alcohol to get in with the suspect.

17.

What must be established before an arrest can be made?

a)

occurrence of a crime

b)

finding of a victim

c)

probable cause

d)

notification of suspect’s lawyer

18.

The requirement of providing counsel to a suspect in a lineup that occurs after indictment or arraignment is known as the:


a)

Miranda rule.

b)

Wade-Gilbert rule.

c)

exclusionary rule.

d)

“fruits of the poisoned tree” rule.

19.

On a linear use-of-force continuum, where do "hard empty hand techniques/impact weapon" fall in relation to the use of a TASER or chemical agent?

a)

They fall to the left (i.e., they are less forceful).

b)

They fall to the right (i.e., they are more forceful).

c)

They are equivalent.

d)

They are not on the same use-of-force continuum.

20.

What term is used to describe bizarre and aggressive behavior, paranoia, panic, violence, hyperthermia, and unexpected physical strength?

a)

excited delirium

b)

use of deadly force

c)

de facto arrest

d)

nightcap provision

21.

Which 2007 case ​defined the use of "ramming" in pursuit as a use-of-force tactic that the police use today?


a)

Mapp v. Ohio

b)

Kim Wong Ark v. United States

c)

Scott v. Harris

d)

United States v. Weeks

22.

Which non-lethal weapon uses projectiles specially designed to cause non-lethal trauma and incapacitation when it comes into contact with a suspect’s body?

a)

restraints

b)

conducted energy devices (CEDs)

c)

impact munitions

d)

aerosols

23.

Force necessary to overcome resistance offered during an arrest is referred to as:

a)

extraneous force.

b)

reasonable force.

c)

the Blue Hammer.

d)

extralegal force.

24.

Which 1985 court case eliminated the "fleeing­ felon rule," banning law enforcement officers from shooting to kill a fleeing felon unless an imminent danger to life exists?

a)

Argersinger v. Hamlin

b)

Brown v. Mississippi

c)

Terry v. Ohio

d)

Tennessee v. Garner

25.

In Saucier v. Katz (2001), the Supreme Court held that the guide for use of excessive force is that the:


a)

officer fears for his or her safety.

b)

force is objectively reasonable under Fourth Amendment excessive force analysis.

c)

suspect is armed.

d)

suspect presents a dangerous risk to the public.