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Worksheets

PTA 1800 Chap 3

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which phase of tissue healing primarily prepares the injury site for subsequent repair?

a)

Hemostasis Phase prepares the site for repair

b)

Remodeling/Maturation Phase prepares the site for repair

c)

Inflammatory Phase prepares the site for repair

d)

Repair/Proliferation Phase prepares the site for repair

2.

What is the main focus of the Repair/Proliferation Phase in tissue healing?

a)

Preparing the area through vascular and cellular responses

b)

Restoring full function and maturation of tissues

c)

Tissues begin to build strength and structure

d)

Resolving inflammation without any tissue changes

3.

How do the three phases of tissue healing relate over time?

a)

They happen randomly without any predictable order

b)

They are mutually exclusive and never coincide

c)

They occur sequentially with no overlap at all

d)

They overlap chronologically with interdependent timing

4.

Which statement best captures the dependency between inflammation and healing?

a)

Inflammation can occur without healing, but healing cannot occur without inflammation

b)

Healing and inflammation are unrelated processes entirely

c)

Inflammation always requires healing to begin

d)

Healing can occur without inflammation in many cases

5.

Which term describes redness in the inflammation phase due to increased blood flow, also called hyperemia?

a)

Dolor indicates increased perfusion

b)

Calor indicates increased perfusion

c)

Tumor indicates increased perfusion

d)

Rubor indicates increased perfusion

6.

During acute inflammation, which cardinal sign is primarily linked to increased permeability and vasodilation?

a)

Dolor from nociceptor pressure

b)

Calor from arterial inflow

c)

Tumor from vascular leakage

d)

Rubor from capillary dilation

7.

Hyperemia contributes most directly to which cardinal sign observed at inflamed tissue?

a)

Swelling from fluid exudate

b)

Redness from higher flow

c)

Pain from pressure change

d)

Loss of function from guarding

8.

Which statement best characterizes the immediate purpose of the inflammation phase?

a)

To restore full function rapidly

b)

To eliminate all edema instantly

c)

To reverse vasodilation promptly

d)

To protect and prepare for healing

9.

A patient presents with heat, redness, swelling, and pain after ankle sprain. What additional clinical outcome completes the classic set of signs?

a)

Reduced joint mobility

b)

Accelerated collagen synthesis

c)

Enhanced tissue perfusion

d)

Increased systemic fever

10.

Which trigger is MOST consistent with chemical induction of inflammation?

a)

Exposure to strong alkali

b)

Invasion by gram bacteria

c)

Cold-induced frostbite

d)

Autoimmune joint reaction

11.

Foreign bodies can initiate inflammation. Which example best fits this mechanism?

a)

RA synovial autoimmunity

b)

Viral upper infection

c)

Retained surgical suture

d)

UV skin irradiation

12.

Which scenario exemplifies thermal agents causing inflammatory responses?

a)

Sunburn from ultraviolet

b)

Fracture of tibial shaft

c)

Knee contusion after fall

d)

Burn from hot surface

13.

Which event occurs first at the injury site during the acute vascular reaction?

a)

Sustained local vasodilation with permeability

b)

Brief systemic vasoconstriction from pain and SNS

c)

Formation of purulent exudate rich in leukocytes

d)

Overwhelmed lymphatic drainage causing fluid stasis

14.

The primary purpose of short-lived systemic vasoconstriction after trauma is to

a)

Recruit macrophages to clean debris

b)

Increase lymphatic pumping to clear fluid

c)

Raise tissue acidity to guard muscles

d)

Shunt blood and initiate clot formation

15.

Which mediator is most closely linked to systemic vasoconstriction in the acute phase?

a)

Bradykinin from plasma proteins

b)

Histamine released from mast cells

c)

Norepinephrine via sympathetic nerves

d)

Prostaglandins from endothelial cells

16.

Local vasodilation and increased vascular permeability near the injury primarily function to

a)

Limit chemical accumulation and acidity

b)

Reduce hydrostatic pressure in capillaries

c)

Bring cells to kill microbes and clean

d)

Prevent leukocyte margination

17.

Edema formation in interstitial tissues is best described as

a)

Excess red cell migration into tissues

b)

Collapse of capillary endothelial cells

c)

Accumulation of fluid outside vessels

d)

Rapid plasma loss into arterioles

18.

Which combination contributes most to edema development during inflammation?

a)

Increased venule permeability

b)

Reduced interstitial osmotic pressure

c)

Enhanced lymphatic clearance

d)

Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

19.

Transudate is characterized by

a)

Cloudy viscous fluid due to plasma proteins

b)

Excess acidity causing muscle guarding

c)

First fluid forming edema with low proteins

d)

Pus rich in leukocytes and necrotic debris

20.

Exudate differs from transudate because exudate

a)

Is mainly composed of lymph and electrolytes

b)

Forms before transudate during edema

c)

Contains more plasma proteins making it cloudy

d)

Has lower viscosity than transudate

21.

Purulent exudate is defined by

a)

High leukocyte concentration within exudate

b)

Minimal protein content and clear appearance

c)

Early-phase fluid with few cells present

d)

Predominantly erythrocyte accumulation

22.

During the vascular response, fluid stasis most directly leads to

a)

Increased viscosity and tissue acidity

b)

Enhanced lymphatic removal of exudate

c)

Decreased chemical mediators in tissue

d)

Lower vascular permeability in venules

23.

Which statement best connects local vascular changes to functional goals at injury sites?

a)

Vasoconstriction clears bacteria through pus

b)

Vasodilation reduces bleeding but limits clotting

c)

Lymphatic overload prevents leukocyte migration

d)

Permeability increases to deliver fragile cells

24.

Which sequence best represents early events in the vascular response to injury?

a)

Pus accumulation → transudate formation → vasodilation

b)

Systemic vasoconstriction → local vasodilation → edema formation

c)

Exudate formation → norepinephrine release → stasis

d)

Local permeability rise → systemic vasoconstriction → clotting

25.

Which event best defines the cellular response early in inflammation?

a)

Keratinocytes seal the wound surface

b)

Endothelial cells form new vessels

c)

Fibroblasts build collagen bundles

d)

Leukocytes migrate to clear debris

26.

Which leukocyte primarily performs initial phagocytosis at the injury site?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Basophil

d)

Eosinophil

27.

Which statement describes how neutrophils influence other cells at an injury?

a)

They attract other leukocytes to the area

b)

They dissolve fibrin lattices entirely

c)

They differentiate into plasma cells rapidly

d)

They inhibit mast cell degranulation strongly

28.

Which substance release by working macrophages can inhibit microbial growth?

a)

Prostaglandin E4

b)

Bradykinin peptide

c)

Histamine sulfate

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

29.

Which process creates a temporary plug to limit local bleeding?

a)

Elastin fiber deposition

b)

Fibrin lattice cross-linking

c)

Collagen triple helix unwinding

d)

Platelet apoptosis pathways

30.

Immediately after vascular injury, platelets most directly bind to which structure?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum lipids

b)

Circulating immunoglobulin chains

c)

Exposed subendothelial collagen

d)

Keratin filaments of epithelium

31.

Which best explains the role of fibrin released during hemostasis?

a)

Promotes angiogenesis and collagenase

b)

Blocks antigen binding to plasma cells

c)

Activates complement and lyses bacteria

d)

Stimulates clotting and stabilizes platelets

32.

Which immune pathway culminates in formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)?

a)

Complement system cascade

b)

Coagulation factor pathway

c)

Platelet activation cycle

d)

Kinin–prostaglandin axis

33.

Which cells are activated to become plasma cells that produce antibodies?

a)

Fibroblasts activated by platelets

b)

B cells activated by T lymphocytes

c)

Basophils activated by mast cells

d)

Neutrophils activated by macrophages

34.

Which outcome is most directly achieved by the MAC?

a)

Differentiation of B cells only

b)

Lysis of foreign cell membranes

c)

Formation of fibrin cross-links

d)

Chemotaxis of neutrophil clusters

35.

During day 1 of inflammation, which coordinated interaction most effectively clears bacteria?

a)

Neutrophil phagocytosis with macrophage recruitment

b)

Platelet adhesion with collagen remodeling

c)

Complement inhibition with fibrin breakdown

d)

Keratinocyte migration with angiogenesis start

36.

Which feature best distinguishes a muscle spasm from other guarding types shown in the diagram?

a)

Conscious action driven by fear of pain

b)

Sudden reflexive twitching that fades with support

c)

Prolonged subconscious contraction without fear component

d)

Doughy, dense feel that persists with support

37.

What condition causes voluntary muscle guarding according to the diagram?

a)

Sudden reflexive twitching due to nociception

b)

Accumulation of muscle metabolites during stasis

c)

Prolonged subconscious contraction relieved by support

d)

Fear of pain prompting conscious muscle action

38.

Which statement about involuntary muscle guarding is accurate in the diagram?

a)

Subconscious inhibited muscle due to metabolite buildup

b)

Subconscious prolonged muscle action that eases with support

c)

Sudden reflexive twitching that resolves with support

d)

Conscious action that will disappear with no fear

39.

Which type is labeled as chemical muscle guarding in the diagram?

a)

Prolonged subconscious contraction that eases with support

b)

Conscious action that vanishes once fear subsides

c)

Subconscious inhibited muscle from metabolite buildup with stasis

d)

Sudden reflexive twitching that stops when supported

40.

According to the pain cycle diagram, what immediately follows injury?

a)

Pain leading to muscle guarding

b)

Circulatory stasis and metabolite retention

c)

Lowered tissue thresholds and tolerances

d)

Limited activity and prolonged healing

41.

In the cycle, what mechanism most directly contributes to chemical muscle guarding?

a)

Lowered tissue thresholds from prolonged guarding

b)

Retention of waste products like lactic acid

c)

Limited activity following irritation and re-injury

d)

Fear-driven conscious contraction

42.

Which intervention would most effectively break the pain cycle at the guarding stage, based on the diagram logic?

a)

Encourage fear to heighten voluntary action

b)

Provide support to reduce pain and guarding

c)

Increase immobilization to protect tissues

d)

Promote metabolite accumulation through stasis

43.

Which sequence best represents the self‑perpetuating loop shown in the pain cycle diagram?

a)

Injury → Guarding → Pain → Stasis → Metabolites → Thresholds → Activity → Re‑injury → Chemical muscle

b)

Injury → Pain → Guarding → Stasis → Metabolites → Chemical muscle → Lowered thresholds → Limited activity → Re‑injury/irritation → Pain

c)

Injury → Pain → Chemical muscle → Guarding → Stasis → Metabolites → Limited activity → Re‑injury → Thresholds

d)

Injury → Stasis → Pain → Metabolites → Guarding → Chemical muscle → Limited activity → Lowered thresholds → Pain

44.

Which time window best characterizes the proliferation phase of tissue repair?

a)

Day 0 to day 3

b)

Day 3 to day 20

c)

Day 21 to day 60

d)

Day 60 to day 100

45.

During the proliferation phase, what happens to inflammation?

a)

Inflammation remains unchanged

b)

Inflammation increases markedly

c)

Inflammation fluctuates unpredictably

d)

Inflammation decreases progressively

46.

Which initial collagen type predominates early in proliferation and has low tensile strength?

a)

Type I collagen

b)

Type II collagen

c)

Type IV collagen

d)

Type III collagen

47.

Neovascularization during healing refers to which process?

a)

Formation of epithelial layers

b)

Formation of lymphatic ducts

c)

Formation of blood vessels

d)

Formation of new nerves

48.

Which cell type primarily drives wound contraction in the proliferation phase?

a)

Keratinocytes

b)

Myofibroblasts

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Endothelial cells

49.

Which statement best describes re-epithelialization?

a)

Deposition of fibrin clot

b)

Aggregation of platelets

c)

Restoration of skin coverage

d)

Crosslinking of collagen fibers

50.

According to typical healing timelines, when does collagen accumulation become most prominent?

a)

Remodeling phase

b)

Late proliferation phase

c)

Early inflammation phase

d)

During hemostasis phase

51.

Which events are most characteristic of the hemostasis stage in early wound healing?

a)

Fibroblast proliferation begins

b)

Chemotactic signals escalate

c)

Epithelial cells migrate to cover

d)

Platelet aggregation and fibrin clot

52.

Which phase of healing can persist for more than a year after injury and focuses on restoring prior tissue function?

a)

Maturation phase emphasizing functional restoration

b)

Proliferative phase emphasizing collagen synthesis

c)

Inflammatory phase emphasizing edema control

d)

Hemostasis phase emphasizing clot stabilization

53.

During maturation, what process primarily restores tissue strength by changing collagen type?

a)

Elastin deposition increasing tissue recoil

b)

Fibroblast apoptosis reducing scar volume

c)

Collagen conversion replacing type III with type I

d)

Angiogenesis expanding capillary networks

54.

Which statement best differentiates type III from type I collagen in healing tissues?

a)

Type III is more elastic; type I is vascular

b)

Type III is weaker; type I is stronger

c)

Type III is permanent; type I is absent

d)

Type III is stronger; type I is immature

55.

Balanced synthesis and lysis during maturation are necessary for what outcome?

a)

Immediate return to full tensile strength

b)

Complete elimination of fibroblasts

c)

Rapid clot formation and degranulation

d)

Normal remodeling of scar architecture

56.

As collagen matures and vascularity decreases, how does the scar’s appearance typically change?

a)

From pale to cyanotic coloration

b)

From red to white coloration

c)

From purple to brown coloration

d)

From white to red coloration

57.

During the proliferative phase, tensile strength may be as low as approximately what percentage due to immature collagen?

a)

5% of normal tensile strength

b)

15% of normal tensile strength

c)

50% of normal tensile strength

d)

90% of normal tensile strength

58.

Around which time does type III collagen begin to be replaced by type I collagen in healing tissue?

a)

Day 3 post-injury

b)

Day 7 post-injury

c)

Day 12 post-injury

d)

Day 30 post-injury

59.

By roughly six weeks of healing, tissue tensile strength typically reaches what range with collagen maturation?

a)

95–100% of original strength

b)

75–80% of original strength

c)

45–55% of original strength

d)

25–35% of original strength

60.

Which statement best describes scar tissue in normal healing?

a)

It is a more mature collagen than normal

b)

It is always problematic and requires removal

c)

It is a natural part of healing processes

d)

It contains abundant elastin like normal skin

61.

Scar tissue becomes problematic primarily when it is:

a)

Fully remodeled and pale

b)

Excessive or disorganized

c)

Confined to original wound edges

d)

Well organized and limited

62.

During maturation, the physical characteristics of a scar are determined by the balance between:

a)

Edema and angiogenesis rates

b)

Synthesis and lysis of collagen

c)

Elastin deposition and fibrin

d)

Inflammation and vasoconstriction

63.

If collagen production exceeds collagen breakdown, the likely outcome is:

a)

Improved tensile strength

b)

Keloid or hypertrophic scar

c)

Faster wound epithelialization

d)

Atrophic scar formation

64.

Which feature distinguishes keloids from hypertrophic scars?

a)

They regress within months

b)

They extend beyond original boundaries

c)

They remain confined to incision line

d)

They form only with infection present

65.

Keloids are primarily associated with:

a)

Enhanced oxygen-independent synthesis

b)

Reduced fibroblast differentiation

c)

Excessive elastin production

d)

Genetic defects in collagen lysis

66.

Why can compression therapy help treat keloids?

a)

It increases local oxygen for synthesis

b)

It expands scar boundaries into healthy tissue

c)

It reduces oxygen, favoring collagen lysis

d)

It stimulates elastin deposition in scars

67.

Collagen synthesis after injury can persist for approximately:

a)

2–4 weeks total

b)

12–24 months total

c)

3–6 years total

d)

48–72 hours total

68.

Intervention aimed at directing tissue remodeling is most effective during:

a)

The first 24 hours

b)

Between days 5–21

c)

Months 10–18

d)

After 6–9 months

69.

By 6–9 months, scar collagen typically becomes:

a)

Similar to normal dermal collagen

b)

Highly elastic and extensible

c)

Unable to be deformed or lengthened

d)

Most responsive to mechanical therapy

70.

Which visual cue suggests ongoing scar remodeling during follow‑up?

a)

Scar appears paler than skin

b)

Scar contains visible elastin fibers

c)

Scar is fully flat and mobile

d)

Scar appears redder than surrounding tissue

71.

At approximately 3–5 weeks after injury, what percentage of tissue durability/integrity is typically present?

a)

100 percent integrity

b)

10 percent integrity

c)

40 percent integrity

d)

70 percent integrity

72.

Which tissue uniquely heals to 100 percent of its original collagen with full cellular turnover?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Ligament tissue

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Bone tissue

73.

Collagen remodels most effectively when exposed to which condition?

a)

Complete load avoidance

b)

Prolonged immobilization

c)

Optimal healthy stress

d)

Continuous heat therapy

74.

Which statement best reflects the principle often summarized as “form follows function” in tissue healing?

a)

Movement demands guide tissue structure

b)

Pain level dictates collagen type

c)

Blood flow sets joint geometry

d)

Tissue shape determines movement

75.

Which combination of factors must be managed to promote optimal tissue healing with stress application?

a)

Age, gender, height

b)

Diet, hydration, sleep

c)

Location, color, size

d)

Timing, type, amount

76.

Which stress pattern best supports remodeling of articular cartilage and the inner annulus or nucleus of the disc?

a)

Rapid ballistic stretching

b)

Shear and torsion only

c)

Modified compression and decompression with gliding

d)

Pure tension without motion

77.

Which stress type most appropriately targets bone for remodeling in the line of stress?

a)

Tension loading

b)

Compression and decompression

c)

Rotational torsion

d)

Shear strain

78.

Muscle, tendon, ligament, capsule, and the outer annulus of the disc respond best to which stress in the line of stress?

a)

Compression cycles

b)

Gliding mobilization

c)

Tension loading

d)

Hydrostatic pressure

79.

For the outer annulus of the intervertebral disc, which movement specifically produces the desired line-of-stress tension?

a)

Lateral gliding

b)

Pure compression

c)

Axial rotation

d)

Flexion movement

80.

According to typical healing timelines, what tissue durability/integrity is expected at 2–3 months post-injury?

a)

10 percent integrity

b)

40 percent integrity

c)

70 percent integrity

d)

100 percent integrity

81.

What duration most accurately defines chronic inflammation in clinical practice?

a)

Lasts about one weekend

b)

Lasts fewer than four days

c)

Lasts roughly two weeks

d)

Lasts more than one month

82.

Which statement best distinguishes sub-acute from chronic inflammation by time course?

a)

Sub-acute one weekend; chronic one semester

b)

Sub-acute past four weeks; chronic past one month

c)

Sub-acute past one month; chronic past four weeks

d)

Sub-acute under two weeks; chronic under one month

83.

Which mechanism commonly initiates chronic inflammation?

a)

Immediate hemostatic response

b)

Primary intention wound closure

c)

Persistence of the injuring agent

d)

Abrupt resolution without scarring

84.

Which tissue change is most characteristic of chronic inflammation?

a)

Rapid epithelialization only

b)

Fibroblast proliferation with collagen

c)

Neutrophil burst without repair

d)

Complete absence of edema

85.

Which clinical sign profile aligns with chronic inflammation?

a)

Bright redness, intense heat, no edema

b)

Heat, redness, fluctuating abscess, crepitus

c)

No pain, no edema, full strength quickly

d)

Pain, pitting edema, hardness, no heat

86.

Which local factor most likely delays collagen synthesis during healing?

a)

Young patient age

b)

High dietary protein

c)

Gentle protected movement

d)

Compromised vascular supply

87.

Infection in a wound primarily affects healing by which mechanism?

a)

Reducing collagen production and increasing lysis

b)

Enhancing tensile strength and mobility

c)

Accelerating epithelial closure without scarring

d)

Eliminating need for immune response entirely

88.

Excessive movement of an injured area most likely leads to which outcome?

a)

Delayed healing and possible adhesions

b)

Immediate restoration of full strength

c)

Improved collagen alignment instantly

d)

Reduced infection risk regardless

89.

Which wound characteristic typically heals faster among local factors listed?

a)

Chronic ulcer with ischemic margins

b)

Large poorly perfused abdominal wound

c)

Small well-vascularized scalp wound

d)

Extensive degloving soft tissue wound

90.

Which systemic condition commonly impairs collagen synthesis and increases infection risk during healing?

a)

Poorly controlled diabetes

b)

Mild seasonal allergies

c)

Optimal hydration status

d)

High cardiorespiratory fitness

91.

Which medication effect can delay healing by inhibiting inflammatory pathways?

a)

Antihistamines accelerating lysis

b)

Probiotics increasing neutrophils

c)

Acetaminophen boosting collagen

d)

Corticosteroids blocking the cascade

92.

Which age-related pattern best describes wound closure rates across the lifespan?

a)

Both ages heal at identical rates

b)

Geriatric closure faster than pediatric

c)

Ages have no effect on closure

d)

Pediatric closure faster than geriatric

93.

Which feature most directly explains cartilage’s limited healing capacity?

a)

Presence of rich vasculature and nerves

b)

Avascular and aneural tissue properties

c)

High metabolic rate of chondrocytes

d)

Abundant lymphatic drainage pathways

94.

In musculoskeletal healing, which tissue is characteristically avascular, leading to slow repair?

a)

Ligament tissue in all regions

b)

Cortical bone structures

c)

Articular cartilage of joints

d)

Skeletal muscle fibers

95.

Which combination best describes structures absent in cartilage that hinder repair?

a)

Capillaries, venules, lymphatics

b)

Arterioles, sympathetic nerves, glands

c)

Veins, nociceptors, melanocytes

d)

Lymph nodes, endocrine cells, ducts

96.

Tendons typically heal through which sequence during maturation?

a)

Immediate remodeling and rapid strength gain

b)

Inflammation, proliferation, remodeling

c)

Direct ossification without collagen

d)

Angiogenesis absent throughout phases

97.

Ligament healing often results in which mechanical consequence compared to pre-injury?

a)

Restored identical stiffness and alignment

b)

Irreversible necrosis without repair capacity

c)

Residual laxity with altered collagen organization

d)

Complete ossification replacing fibers

98.

Which intervention most directly improves nutrient delivery to injured cartilage?

a)

Increased joint loading causing compression

b)

Controlled motion enhancing diffusion

c)

Prolonged immobilization with casting

d)

High-intensity electrical stimulation

99.

Skeletal muscle injury complicated by myositis ossificans involves which process?

a)

Complete denervation without regeneration

b)

Autoimmune destruction of myofibrils

c)

Ectopic bone formation within muscle

d)

Fibers transforming into adipocytes

100.

Compared with tendon, cartilage’s reparative response is typically characterized by which cellular activity?

a)

Rapid osteoblastic bridging of defects

b)

Extensive satellite cell activation and fusion

c)

Limited chondrocyte division and matrix turnover

d)

Robust fibroblast proliferation and vascular ingrowth

101.

Early tendon healing strength is primarily due to which factor?

a)

Reinnervation improving contractility

b)

Mineral deposition raising stiffness

c)

Scar tissue bridging with type III collagen

d)

Crosslinking of type I collagen fibers

102.

Which statement best contrasts ligament and tendon healing environments?

a)

Tendons are intra-articular and bathed in synovial fluid

b)

Both are avascular and lack any neural input

c)

Ligaments are intramuscular and highly vascular

d)

Extra-articular ligaments have better blood supply than intra-articular ones

103.

What consequence may follow aggressive massage of a large quadriceps contusion in the first week?

a)

Immediate restoration of tensile strength

b)

Increased likelihood of myositis ossificans

c)

Reduced risk of hematoma organization

d)

Enhanced satellite cell fusion into fibers

104.

Which rehabilitation strategy best aligns with tissue-specific healing for tendons in the maturation phase?

a)

Progressive loading with controlled tensile stress

b)

Complete rest until six months post-injury

c)

Continuous passive motion without resistance

d)

Early high-load eccentric training

105.

Which event occurs during the inflammation phase of bone healing shortly after impact?

a)

Medullary canal becomes patent again

b)

Fracture stabilizes with soft callus

c)

Lamellar bone replaces fibrous bone

d)

Hematoma formation lowers local pH

106.

Soft callus formation primarily serves what function during fracture healing?

a)

Initiates neovascularization and contraction

b)

Converts woven bone to lamellar bone

c)

Stabilizes fracture and decreases pain

d)

Restores medullary canal patency

107.

The hard callus phase most closely corresponds to which clinical observation?

a)

Clinical healing period timing

b)

Acute heat and redness signs

c)

Balanced collagen lysis activity

d)

Scar color lightening changes

108.

During bone remodeling, what key transformation occurs to the repaired tissue?

a)

Fibrous bone converts to lamellar bone

b)

Soft callus expands into hematoma

c)

Collagen synthesis ceases completely

d)

Neovascularization declines abruptly

109.

Which set correctly lists the three general phases of tissue repair across tissues?

a)

Inflammation, proliferation, maturation

b)

Hemostasis, ossification, remodeling

c)

Initiation, progression, resolution

d)

Granulation, epithelialization, scar

110.

Which features best characterize the proliferation phase in soft tissue healing?

a)

Epithelialization, fibroplasia, contraction

b)

Hematoma formation and lower pH

c)

Heat, redness, swelling, pain

d)

Balanced collagen synthesis and lysis

111.

Which statement about scar tissue strength is most accurate?

a)

Never differs across tissue types

b)

Often weaker than original tissue

c)

Usually stronger than original tissue

d)

Always equal to original tissue strength

112.

Which factor can hinder the normal healing response and potentially delay recovery?

a)

Balanced collagen turnover

b)

Stable hard callus formation

c)

Anti‑inflammatory drug use

d)

Adequate neovascularization