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SAS 013 Midterm 1 — Worksheet Questions (Grade 13)

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Led the Human Genome Project.

a)

Francis Collins

b)

John Enders

c)

Maurice Hilleman

d)

Tu Youyou

2.

Identified the gene responsible for cystic fibrosis as the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.

a)

Francis Collins

b)

Akiko Iwasaki

c)

Rachel Carson

d)

Robert Koch

3.

Developed the first successful measles vaccine.

a)

John Enders

b)

Maurice Hilleman

c)

Andrew Wakefield

d)

Edward Livingston Trudeau

4.

Created the MMR vaccine using three attenuated viruses, using his own daughter's infection.

a)

Maurice Hilleman

b)

John Enders

c)

Robert Koch

d)

Jim Carrey

5.

Published a fraudulent study that linked the MMR vaccine to autism and sought to patent a single measles vaccine.

a)

Andrew Wakefield

b)

Jenny McCarthy

c)

Akiko Iwasaki

d)

Emily Bissell

6.

Actress with an autistic son who promoted a link between vaccines and autism and advocated for “safe vaccines.”

a)

Jenny McCarthy

b)

Rachel Carson

c)

Tu Youyou

d)

Emily Bissell

7.

Actor who criticized California's mandatory vaccination law in 2015 and spoke out against vaccines along with Jenny McCarthy.

a)

Jim Carrey

b)

Francis Collins

c)

Robert Koch

d)

Stephan Schwander

8.

Announced discovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis as the bacterium causing TB on March 24, 1882 (World TB Day).

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Edward Livingston Trudeau

c)

Maurice Hilleman

d)

John Enders

9.

In 1890, introduced a tuberculin-based “cure” for TB that was not effective, caused people to get sick, and almost ended his career.

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Edward Livingston Trudeau

c)

Francis Collins

d)

Andrew Wakefield

10.

Started the first sanitarium in the United States in 1884 at Saranac Lake, New York (Adirondack Cottage Sanitarium; “little red cottage”).

a)

Edward Livingston Trudeau

b)

Emily Bissell

c)

Robert Koch

d)

Jenny McCarthy

11.

Started the Christmas Seal Campaign to raise money for a sanitarium facing closure and spread awareness about healthy practices like hand washing.

a)

Emily Bissell

b)

Rachel Carson

c)

Akiko Iwasaki

d)

Tu Youyou

12.

Professor who studies why air pollution affects people's immunity for Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

a)

Stephan Schwander

b)

Francis Collins

c)

Andrew Wakefield

d)

Jim Carrey

13.

Discovered artemisinin as a treatment for malaria and how to effectively extract it in 1972; later became the first Chinese female Nobel Prize recipient.

a)

Tu Youyou

b)

Rachel Carson

c)

Akiko Iwasaki

d)

Maurice Hilleman

14.

Worked for the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, published Silent Spring in 1962 exposing pesticides such as DDT, and helped spark the environmental movement.

a)

Rachel Carson

b)

Emily Bissell

c)

Jenny McCarthy

d)

Akiko Iwasaki

15.

Diagnostic system of the World Health Organization that provides global-standard health data codes used for morbidity/mortality statistics, billing/reimbursement, and research/resource allocation.

a)

International Classification of Diseases (ICD)

b)

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System

c)

Physician’s Desk Reference

d)

Human Genome Project database

16.

Endorsed by the 72nd World Health Assembly in 2019 and effective globally in 2022, this revision allows for more detail and flexibility in coding, potentially making the clinical modification unnecessary.

a)

ICD-11

b)

ICD-10

c)

IICD (1893)

d)

DALYs

17.

Used in the United States to code diseases and medical conditions (morbidity data).

a)

ICD Clinical Modification

b)

ICD-11

c)

Global Burden of Disease Study

d)

International List of Causes of Death

18.

The International List of Causes of Death, established in 1893, eventually became which system in 1948?

a)

International Classification of Diseases (ICD)

b)

Global Burden of Disease Study

c)

ICD Clinical Modification

d)

DALYs

19.

Classification that groups diseases by body systems such as muscular, digestive, nervous, urinary, reproductive, cardiovascular, endocrine, lymphatic, respiratory, and skeletal.

a)

Disease classification by body systems

b)

Disease classification by etiology

c)

Geographic classification of disease

d)

Age-based classification

20.

Classification that groups diseases by their cause (infectious, genetic, environmental).

a)

Disease classification by etiology

b)

Disease classification by body systems

c)

Severity-based classification

d)

Treatment-based classification

21.

Deficiency most commonly associated with goiter.

a)

Iodine

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Iron

d)

Vitamin D

22.

Vitamin deficiency that causes scurvy and is associated with loss of teeth, sunken eyes, and pale skin.

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin B12

23.

Diseases characterized by having multiple contributing factors such as infectious, genetic, and environmental influences (examples include cancer, asthma, heart disease, and diabetes).

a)

Multifactorial diseases

b)

Monogenic diseases

c)

Communicable diseases

d)

Autoimmune diseases

24.

Term referring to the impact of a health problem on a population.

a)

Disease burden

b)

Incidence rate

c)

Case fatality

d)

Comorbidity

25.

Represents the loss of one year of full health.

a)

One DALY

b)

One QALY

c)

One YLL

d)

One YLD

26.

Calculation defined as DALYs equal years of life lost due to premature mortality plus years lived with disability.

a)

DALYs = YLL + YLD

b)

DALYs = Incidence × Prevalence

c)

DALYs = YLL − YLD

d)

DALYs = QALYs × YLL

27.

On the disability weight scale, which value corresponds to full health?

a)

0

b)

0.5

c)

1

d)

0.25

28.

According to the Global Burden of Disease Study, which type of disease more heavily impacts low-income countries?

a)

Communicable diseases

b)

Noncommunicable diseases

c)

Genetic disorders

d)

Occupational injuries

29.

According to the Global Burden of Disease Study, which type of disease more heavily impacts higher-income countries?

a)

Noncommunicable diseases

b)

Communicable diseases

c)

Parasitic infections

d)

Zoonotic diseases

30.

Year noted for the Global Burden of Disease Study in this worksheet.

a)

2021

b)

2015

c)

1893

d)

1962

31.

Term for a condition noticed or reported by the patient (subjective).

a)

Symptom

b)

Sign

c)

Etiology

d)

Burden

32.

Term for a condition noticed or measured by others (objective).

a)

Sign

b)

Symptom

c)

Etiology

d)

Burden

33.

View that emphasizes the undesirability of diseases and the harms and limitations they bring to patients and society, treats diseases as social constructs, and is value-laden.

a)

Normativist

b)

Naturalist

c)

Determinist

d)

Reductionist

34.

View that requires only the presence of biological dysfunction, treats disease as an objective scientific matter, and holds that normal function contributes to survival and reproduction.

a)

Naturalist

b)

Normativist

c)

Relativist

d)

Constructivist

35.

Language of origin for the English word disease, from the early 14th-century term meaning discomfort from “lack of ease.”

a)

Old French

b)

Latin

c)

Old English

d)

Greek

36.

According to the study sheet table, what is the current vaccination rate in the United States for measles, noted as insufficient for herd immunity.

a)

92.5%

b)

80%

c)

99%

d)

70%

37.

The table describes the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on measles worldwide. Which statement matches the data presented.

a)

128,000 measles deaths occurred in 2021, and 130,000 in 2022.

b)

Measles deaths fell below 10,000 in both 2021 and 2022.

c)

Measles deaths were not reported during the pandemic.

d)

Measles deaths exceeded one million in 2022.

38.

In the study sheet, Mycobacterium is characterized as.

a)

A large family of bacteria found in soil and water that includes pathogens causing tuberculosis and leprosy.

b)

A virus family primarily causing influenza.

c)

A protozoan group mainly found in freshwater.

d)

A fungal genus that causes ringworm.

39.

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis is defined in the table as tuberculosis affecting organs outside the lungs. Which example is listed.

a)

Pott's disease (spine)

b)

Otitis media (ear)

c)

Dermatophytosis (skin)

d)

Appendicitis

40.

What mode of spread is described for lymphohematogenous spread of tuberculosis.

a)

Through lymphatic and blood systems

b)

Via contaminated food only

c)

Direct contact with intact skin

d)

Through insect vectors exclusively

41.

According to the table, what are alveoli.

a)

Air sacs of the lungs where oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occurs

b)

Blood vessels that transport nutrients

c)

Nerve endings that detect pain

d)

Muscle fibers responsible for contraction

42.

What role do alveolar macrophages play in tuberculosis as described.

a)

They ingest Mycobacterium tuberculosis and attempt to destroy it.

b)

They produce oxygen to aid gas exchange.

c)

They secrete surfactant to reduce surface tension.

d)

They form hemoglobin to carry oxygen.

43.

Which statement about phagocytosis is provided.

a)

It is an immune response where macrophages engulf and attempt to kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

b)

It is the replication of bacteria within macrophages.

c)

It is the exchange of gases in the alveoli.

d)

It is the transmission of TB through aerosols.

44.

What property of mycolic acids in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is highlighted.

a)

They form a waxy cell wall that protects the bacteria from being degraded or killed by macrophages.

b)

They are enzymes that digest macrophages.

c)

They are toxins that paralyze cilia.

d)

They are pigments that aid photosynthesis.

45.

What is a granuloma (tubercle) in tuberculosis according to the table.

a)

A collection of macrophages attempting to wall off infected alveolar macrophages, associated with latent TB

b)

A cavity formed by tumor necrosis in lung cancer

c)

A cluster of viral particles in airway mucus

d)

A blood clot blocking an artery

46.

Which description matches latent Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in the study sheet.

a)

Bacteria are present but inactive without symptoms; person is non-contagious.

b)

Bacteria actively replicate causing severe cough; person is highly contagious.

c)

Virus remains dormant until activated by fever.

d)

Fungal spores colonize the skin causing rash.

47.

What proportion of people with latent tuberculosis infection are noted to develop active TB.

a)

5–10%

b)

25–30%

c)

40–50%

d)

0%

48.

Which feature of the tuberculin skin test is specified.

a)

Intradermal injection into the forearm with extract of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

b)

Intramuscular injection into the thigh with live bacilli.

c)

Oral administration of rifampin.

d)

Venipuncture for interferon-gamma assay.

49.

For interpreting a positive tuberculin skin test, what local finding is emphasized.

a)

Area of induration (firm swelling), not redness

b)

A bruise at the site

c)

Pus drainage

d)

Fever at the time of injection

50.

Which group is noted to have potential false positive tuberculin skin test results.

a)

Individuals vaccinated with BCG

b)

People with seasonal allergies

c)

Individuals with diabetes

d)

Smokers only

51.

Which group is noted to have potential false negative tuberculin skin test results.

a)

Immunocompromised individuals

b)

Individuals with recent sunburn

c)

Children under five only

d)

People with high BMI

52.

Which testing method is described as preferred for people who received BCG vaccine or have difficulty returning for a second appointment to read the TST.

a)

TB blood test (interferon-gamma release assay)

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

Urine culture

d)

Sputum Gram stain

53.

According to the sheet, what is the role of a chest x-ray when a TB test is positive.

a)

Shows whether active pulmonary TB is present by identifying areas of opacity or cavitation.

b)

Proves the person has latent TB only.

c)

Detects viral pneumonia exclusively.

d)

Replaces all laboratory testing.

54.

What is cavitation in tuberculosis as described.

a)

Breakdown of lung tissue creating a cavity that enhances bacterial transmission and drug resistance risk

b)

Formation of fluid-filled blisters on the skin

c)

Development of bone lesions in the spine

d)

Accumulation of pleural fluid without tissue loss

55.

What is CAD in the context of TB imaging.

a)

Computer-Aided Detection software recommended by WHO in 2021 for interpreting chest x-rays for TB screening and triaging

b)

Cardiac arrhythmia detection during EKG

c)

Calcium deposition measurement in bones

d)

Community-acquired disease surveillance only

56.

Which statement about Ziehl–Neelson acid-fast staining of sputum smear is listed.

a)

It identifies acid-fast bacteria such as Mycobacteria and is fast and inexpensive.

b)

It is a culture method requiring 2–6 weeks.

c)

It detects viral RNA within 24 hours.

d)

It is specific only for M. tuberculosis with zero false negatives.

57.

In the study sheet, what main limitation of culture for TB diagnosis is highlighted.

a)

Slow growth taking 2–6 weeks

b)

Immediate results within minutes

c)

Specific only for M. tuberculosis

d)

No chance of false negatives

58.

Rapid molecular/nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) of sputum are described as.

a)

Highly accurate, fast diagnostics that detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex and rifampin resistance within 24 hours

b)

Primarily serologic tests that measure antibodies over several weeks

c)

Cultures that require 2–6 weeks to grow organisms

d)

Imaging tests using x-rays to visualize cavities

59.

Which antibiotic introduced in 1966 is noted to have revolutionized TB treatment.

a)

Rifampin

b)

Penicillin

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Vancomycin

60.

What total treatment durations are listed for TB in the study sheet.

a)

Approximately 4 months and 6–9 months

b)

Less than 2 weeks only

c)

Exactly 12 months for all cases

d)

One day inpatient therapy

61.

Which concern is associated with the TB treatment "pill burden" as described.

a)

Non-adherence can lead to treatment failure, relapse, and increased drug resistance risk due to many pills and side effects.

b)

It guarantees perfect adherence and cure.

c)

It reduces the need for monitoring.

d)

It eliminates transmission risk immediately.

62.

Which statement about BCG vaccine is included.

a)

It is based on live, attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and has variable efficacy against pulmonary TB.

b)

It is an mRNA vaccine universal in the United States.

c)

It was first used after 2000.

d)

It prevents all forms of TB with 100% efficacy.

63.

Which short-course regimen for treatment of latent TB is listed.

a)

3 months of once-weekly isoniazid plus rifapentine (3HP)

b)

12 months of daily amoxicillin

c)

2 weeks of azithromycin

d)

Daily interferon injections for 1 month

64.

How is multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) defined in the table.

a)

Resistance to isoniazid and rifampin

b)

Resistance to penicillin only

c)

Resistance to ethambutol only

d)

Resistance exclusively to fluoroquinolones

65.

Which definition of extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB) is listed.

a)

Resistance to isoniazid, rifampin, at least one fluoroquinolone, and at least one additional Group A drug (such as bedaquiline or linezolid)

b)

Resistance to isoniazid only

c)

Resistance to rifampin only

d)

Resistance to penicillin and amoxicillin

66.

Which target for 2035 is part of the SDGs/WHO End TB strategy stated.

a)

95% reduction in TB deaths compared with 2015

b)

Increase in TB incidence by 50%

c)

Universal BCG vaccination in all countries

d)

Elimination of chest x-rays from TB care

67.

What change in global TB incidence between 2020 and 2023 is reported.

a)

Increase of 4.6% in the incidence rate

b)

Decrease of 20% in the incidence rate

c)

No change in incidence

d)

Increase of 50% in the incidence rate

68.

What consequence is noted for U.S. withdrawal from WHO/ending of USAID related to TB reduction efforts and funding.

a)

Disruptions to TB services and loss of a major funder that had supported responses to HIV, malaria, and TB in low- and middle-income countries

b)

Immediate increase in domestic TB funding only

c)

No impact on global TB efforts

d)

Automatic elimination of TB worldwide

69.

Which diseases are listed as the "Big Three" infectious diseases.

a)

Tuberculosis, Malaria, and HIV/AIDS

b)

Influenza, COVID-19, and measles

c)

Cholera, typhoid, and dengue

d)

Syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia

70.

What interaction between HIV/AIDS and TB is emphasized.

a)

People living with HIV are 18 times more likely to develop active TB, and TB is the leading killer of people with HIV.

b)

HIV infection prevents TB disease.

c)

TB cures HIV by boosting immunity.

d)

There is no relationship between HIV and TB.

71.

What is the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria described as.

a)

A worldwide financing mechanism investing up to $5 billion per year to defeat HIV, TB, and malaria

b)

A local clinic in New York

c)

An imaging technique for lungs

d)

A single-country grant limited to the U.S.

72.

What did the re-examination of "Dr. Granville's mummy" reveal according to the sheet.

a)

She died of tuberculosis rather than a tumor.

b)

She died of influenza.

c)

She died due to poisoning.

d)

She died from a bone fracture.

73.

Which historical name for tuberculosis is associated with ancient Greece, as noted.

a)

Phthisis (to decay; waste away)

b)

Koch's disease

c)

White plague

d)

Pott's disease

74.

Which condition associated with the industrial revolution and urbanization (1750–1900) is listed as contributing to rampant TB.

a)

Severe overcrowding with poor housing and unhygienic conditions

b)

Universal clean air regulations

c)

Widespread vaccination programs

d)

High-quality nutrition for all

75.

Which historical misconception about the etiology of TB is noted.

a)

Thought to be hereditary and even caused by vampires in 19th-century New England

b)

Correctly identified as bacterial by Hippocrates

c)

Attributed to excessive exercise only

d)

Linked to mosquito bites exclusively

76.

When is World TB Day observed, as stated.

a)

March 24, commemorating Robert Koch's discovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis as the bacterium causing TB

b)

January 1, marking the start of the year

c)

July 4, commemorating independence

d)

December 25, holiday observance

77.

Which treatment elements were typical of sanatoriums for TB listed in the sheet.

a)

Fresh air, rest and exercise, healthy diet, and isolation

b)

Chemotherapy and radiation

c)

Surgery alone

d)

No medical care

78.

Which statement about the first U.S. sanatorium for TB matches the sheet.

a)

Opened by Edward Livingston Trudeau at Saranac Lake, NY in 1884

b)

Opened by Robert Koch in Berlin in 1921

c)

Located in San Francisco in 1900

d)

Founded by Louis Pasteur in Paris in 1888

79.

Which trend in U.S. TB mortality and public health education is noted.

a)

Deaths fell from 194 per 100,000 in 1900 to 46 per 100,000 in 1940, with reduction occurring prior to antibiotics and dropping due to increased public health education about TB.

b)

Deaths rose sharply after antibiotics.

c)

Mortality remained unchanged from 1900 to 1940.

d)

Public health education had no influence on TB trends.

80.

Which statement accurately describes the National Tuberculosis Association’s evolution and campaign history, as summarized at the top of the study sheet?

a)

Founded as NASPT in 1904, renamed to National Tuberculosis Association in 1918, later to American Lung Association in 1973, oldest American voluntary health organization, led by Dr. Edward Livingston Trudeau, launched a massive education campaign against tuberculosis

b)

Founded as CDC in 1918, renamed to NASPT in 1973, focused on malaria only, first president Jonas Salk, promoted vaccination campaigns against measles

c)

Created in 1904 as a federal agency under NIH, renamed to National Cancer Association in 1918, later to American Heart Association in 1973, led by Dr. Albert Sabin, organized polio eradication

d)

Begun in 1973 as a private foundation for influenza, renamed to National Tuberculosis Association in 1904, later to American Lung Association in 1918, first president Florence Nightingale, focused on nursing reform

81.

Which description best matches Christmas Seals, as presented in the study sheet table?

a)

Labels placed on mail during the Christmas season to raise funds and awareness, started by Emily Bissell to raise money for a sanatorium

b)

Postage stamps issued by the U.S. Postal Service to commemorate tuberculosis vaccines

c)

Holiday cards sent by CDC to advertise flu shots

d)

A charity concert series founded by Jonas Salk to support polio research

82.

According to the worksheet, public spitting was campaigned against during the tuberculosis era primarily because:

a)

It was common and women’s dresses would drag in spit on the ground

b)

Spitting improved ventilation in crowded areas

c)

It was recommended for clearing airways during influenza

d)

It was required by law in many cities

83.

Which statement defines a vector-borne disease as used in the worksheet?

a)

An infectious disease acquired from organisms that transmit a pathogen from one host to another

b)

A disease spread only by contaminated water

c)

An illness caused exclusively by airborne viruses

d)

A non-communicable condition transmitted genetically

84.

Which feature of Anopheles mosquitoes is highlighted in the worksheet?

a)

Only the females are vectors for malaria

b)

Both males and females transmit malaria equally

c)

Only males feed on blood and transmit malaria

d)

Neither males nor females transmit malaria; ticks are the true vector

85.

In the Plasmodium life cycle described, which event occurs in the mosquito midgut?

a)

Gametocytes reproduce sexually forming sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands

b)

Merozoites re-enter the human bloodstream and infect red blood cells

c)

Parasites rapidly infect liver cells within 30 minutes of transmission

d)

Hemolysis releases new parasites from red blood cells

86.

According to the life cycle summary, within 30 minutes after an infected mosquito bite, what happens in the human host?

a)

Parasites reach and infect liver cells, multiply for 5–16 days, often without symptoms

b)

Parasites immediately cause high fever and rash

c)

Parasites attach to the skin and remain dormant

d)

Parasites directly infect the brain causing seizures

87.

Which statement describes the periodicity of a “malaria attack” listed in the worksheet?

a)

Symptoms come in waves with cold stage, hot stage, and sweating stage followed by return to normal temperature and tiredness

b)

Continuous low-grade fever without chills for several weeks

c)

Single episode of diarrhea and vomiting with no fever

d)

Gradual onset of cough and congestion lasting months

88.

What does hemolysis refer to in the worksheet?

a)

Rupture or destruction of red blood cells

b)

Formation of spores in the mosquito midgut

c)

Production of antibodies by white blood cells

d)

Clotting of blood in capillaries

89.

Which effect is attributed to “sticky” infected red blood cells in malaria, per the worksheet?

a)

Stick to the lining of blood vessels and are not filtered out by the spleen

b)

Generate inflammation

c)

Cause other non-infected RBCs to stick to them, clogging vessels

d)

Release insulin to regulate glucose

90.

Which severe malaria complications are listed in the worksheet? Select all that apply.

a)

Cerebral malaria with seizures and coma

b)

Severe anemia due to hemolysis

c)

Acute kidney injury

d)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

91.

What is examined with the blood smear technique described on the worksheet?

a)

Thin and thick blood smears under a microscope to detect, identify, and quantify Plasmodium parasites

b)

Urine sediment for bacterial cells

c)

Sputum samples for tuberculosis bacilli only

d)

Skin scrapings for fungal hyphae

92.

Which statement about the Giemsa stain aligns with the worksheet description?

a)

It is the gold standard for identifying Plasmodium parasites in blood films by staining cytoplasm blue and chromatin red

b)

It is used only for Gram-positive bacteria in sputum

c)

It stains liver tissue green to detect hepatitis

d)

It is specific for viral particles in saliva

93.

According to the worksheet, the Rapid Diagnostic Test for malaria is characterized by which feature?

a)

Rapid antigen test that detects parasite antigens in a fingerstick blood sample

b)

PCR test requiring a laboratory for DNA amplification

c)

Culture-based test that grows Plasmodium in vitro

d)

Imaging test using ultrasound to locate parasites in the spleen

94.

Which organization preceded the CDC and was established in 1942, as described in the worksheet?

a)

Office of Malaria Control in War Areas

b)

National Institutes of Health

c)

World Health Organization

d)

American Lung Association

95.

Which vector control technique targets mosquitoes at the larval stage, per the worksheet list?

a)

Larvicides

b)

Diesel oil on water

c)

Insecticide-treated bed nets

d)

Indoor residual spraying

96.

Which property of DDT is noted in the worksheet?

a)

Very persistent in the environment and probably carcinogenic to humans (Group 2A); banned in the U.S. in 1972

b)

Rapidly degrades within hours and is considered non-toxic to humans

c)

Approved as safe for indoor spraying in the U.S. since 2004

d)

Used exclusively as a larvicide with no environmental impact

97.

Which event helped birth the environmental movement, according to the worksheet?

a)

Publication of Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring

b)

Establishment of WHO in 1948

c)

Invention of PCR in the 1980s

d)

Development of chloroquine in World War II

98.

Where is indoor residual spraying applied in malaria-endemic regions per the worksheet?

a)

Interior walls and ceilings of houses, with about 10% reduction reported in the noted context

b)

Only on bed nets

c)

Only outdoors on vegetation

d)

Exclusively on livestock shelters

99.

What did the 2001 Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (enforced 2004) include, as stated on the worksheet?

a)

A limited exemption for the use of DDT to control mosquitoes that transmit malaria

b)

A complete global ban on all pesticides including pyrethroids

c)

Authorization for unlimited agricultural use of DDT

d)

A directive to discontinue all insecticide-treated bed nets

100.

Which statement best summarizes insecticide-treated bed nets per the worksheet?

a)

Most feeding occurs at night; long-lasting insecticide-treated nets (LLINs) last about 3 years and their uptake contributed to a 70% reduction in malaria cases in Africa between 2000 and 2015

b)

Mosquitoes feed only during the day; nets are ineffective beyond one month

c)

LLINs are primarily toxic to humans and therefore discouraged

d)

Nets increase malaria transmission by providing resting sites for mosquitoes

101.

Which statement about quinine and related antimalarials matches the worksheet?

a)

Quinine is no longer recommended as first-line for malaria; chloroquine is a synthetic derivative; hydroxychloroquine is less toxic; artemisinin-based combination therapies are used to prevent resistance

b)

Quinine remains the only recommended therapy; chloroquine is a natural herb; hydroxychloroquine is more toxic; artemisinin should be used alone

c)

Quinine and chloroquine are vaccines; hydroxychloroquine is an antiviral; ACTs are obsolete

d)

Quinine is banned; artemisinin is ineffective and never combined

102.

Which malaria vaccine detail is provided in the worksheet?

a)

RTS,S (Mosquirix) recommended by WHO in October 2021 for children in regions with moderate to high P. falciparum transmission; ~50% protective

b)

BCG is the malaria vaccine endorsed since 1970; 95% protective

c)

RTS,S is an adult-only vaccine with 90% efficacy

d)

No malaria vaccine has been endorsed

103.

Which statement about the R21/Matrix-M malaria vaccine aligns with the worksheet?

a)

Endorsed by WHO in October 2023 with about 75% effectiveness

b)

Withdrawn by WHO due to safety concerns

c)

Provides lifelong sterilizing immunity

d)

Recommended only for adults over age 65

104.

According to the worksheet, which description accurately reflects COVID-19?

a)

Disease caused by SARS-CoV-2 with symptoms such as fever or chills, cough, sore throat, congestion or runny nose; some cases are completely asymptomatic

b)

Bacterial illness spread only by mosquitoes

c)

Fungal lung disease always symptomatic

d)

Genetic disorder affecting chloride channels

105.

Which genetic change causes cystic fibrosis as listed on the worksheet?

a)

Mutation in the CFTR gene leading to thick, dehydrated mucus that clogs lungs and other organs

b)

Chromosomal trisomy causing immune deficiency

c)

Deletion in hemoglobin gene causing anemia

d)

Mitochondrial mutation causing neurodegeneration

106.

Which statements about myalgic encephalomyelitis/chronic fatigue syndrome (ME/CFS) match the worksheet? Select all that apply.

a)

Extreme fatigue worsens with physical or mental activity

b)

Cause unknown with no available diagnostic test

c)

Often follows an acute viral-like illness

d)

Diagnosis of exclusion because fatigue is common to other diseases

107.

Which description of Long COVID matches the worksheet?

a)

Persistent symptoms following initial COVID-19 infection that are not explained by tests and can be easy or hard to manage, similar to CFS symptoms

b)

Immediate recovery with no lingering effects

c)

Condition caused by bacterial superinfection only

d)

State of permanent immunity after infection

108.

Which statement about tetanus in the worksheet is accurate?

a)

Wound infections by a neurotoxin-producing anaerobic soil bacterium (Clostridium tetani); cannot get out of puncture wounds; cannot spread person-to-person

b)

Viral disease spread by sneezing and highly contagious

c)

Fungal infection of the skin that spreads through contact

d)

Autoimmune condition triggered by vaccines

109.

What environmental context is associated with Legionnaire’s disease in the worksheet?

a)

Inhalation of aerosol containing Legionella bacteria from warm water environments such as fountains, hot tubs, or air-conditioning systems; noncommunicable

b)

Transmission primarily via person-to-person coughing

c)

Spread through soil ingestion only

d)

Foodborne transmission from undercooked poultry

110.

Which description of shingles matches the worksheet?

a)

Reactivation of the chickenpox virus in the body causing a painful rash

b)

Primary infection by bacteria causing joint pain only

c)

Allergic reaction to medications

d)

Parasite invasion of the liver

111.

Which transmission route is primarily associated with hepatitis C as noted in the worksheet?

a)

Exposure to infected blood leading to liver inflammation; sexual transmission is rare

b)

Airborne droplets causing lung inflammation

c)

Fecal–oral transmission exclusively

d)

Mosquito-borne transmission

112.

Which statement about herpes simplex virus/cold sores matches the worksheet?

a)

Lifelong infection that can reactivate due to stress, illness, or sun, causing painful crusting sores that heal in weeks; small fluid-filled blisters form on or around the mouth; antivirals can speed healing

b)

Short self-limited rash with no blisters and no recurrence

c)

Bacterial infection cured by antibiotics only

d)

Genetic inherited disorder of lip tissues

113.

According to the worksheet, how do Staph infections commonly enter the body?

a)

Through cuts, scrapes, or skin conditions

b)

By breathing airborne spores

c)

Through insect bites only

d)

By eating contaminated canned foods

114.

Which description of mpox on the worksheet is correct?

a)

Contagious disease caused by a member of the orthopoxvirus family, characterized by painful blistering rash and flu-like symptoms, spread through close contact including sexual contact or via contaminated materials

b)

Bacterial pneumonia spread only by droplets

c)

Fungal skin disease spread by pets

d)

Non-infectious autoimmune rash

115.

Which features of Ebola Virus Disease are listed in the worksheet? Select all that apply.

a)

Severe hemorrhagic fever with vomiting and diarrhea

b)

Transmission via blood, vomit, feces, urine, saliva, sweat, tears, semen, and breastmilk

c)

Noted 2014–2016 epidemic in West Africa

d)

Caused by a coronavirus

116.

Which description of mononucleosis from the worksheet is accurate?

a)

Highly contagious viral infection usually caused by Epstein–Barr virus with extreme fatigue, fever, severe sore throat, swollen lymph nodes; known as the kissing disease

b)

Bacterial illness spread by sharing towels

c)

Fungal infection causing skin peeling

d)

Genetic disorder of lymph nodes

117.

Which statements about HIV in the worksheet are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Spread through blood, breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretion

b)

Retrovirus that targets CD4 T cells

c)

Untreated infection can lead to AIDS, the advanced stage

d)

Transmitted by casual contact like hugging

118.

Which characteristics of measles are given in the worksheet? Select all that apply.

a)

Airborne and highly contagious with 9/10 susceptibility among exposed individuals

b)

R0 estimated at 12–18

c)

Infectious 4 days before to 4 days after rash

d)

Lifelong immunity following infection

119.

Which statement about autism reflects the worksheet notes?

a)

Developmental disorder marked by deficits in communication, social interaction, and understanding of others’ states of mind; a false link between vaccines and autism led to a drop in vaccination; diagnosis occurs around the age expected for MMR vaccination

b)

Primarily an infectious disease linked to measles virus

c)

Caused by malnutrition during infancy only

d)

Spread by airborne droplets among schoolchildren

120.

Which description of tuberculosis in the worksheet is accurate?

a)

Infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, airborne transmission; chronic cough with blood in sputum, fever, night sweats, pallor, weight loss; miliary TB is wide dissemination; more common in children and immunosuppressed people

b)

Viral illness causing rash and diarrhea only

c)

Noncommunicable genetic lung disorder

d)

Fungal disease restricted to skin

121.

Which concise definition of malaria is provided on the final page of the worksheet?

a)

Vector-borne disease caused by mosquitoes implanting parasites in the blood (genus Anopheles)

b)

Bacterial foodborne illness from contaminated meat

c)

Fungal infection of the skin acquired in showers

d)

Genetic blood disorder inherited from parents