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BIOL 107 Exam 1 Study Guide Review Questions

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What determines whether two individuals belong to the same species in terms of reproductive success?

a)

Having identical chromosome number

b)

Sharing the same habitat type

c)

Similarity in physical appearance

d)

Ability to produce fertile offspring

2.

What are the necessary conditions for natural selection to occur in a population?

a)

No mutation, equal survival, genetic drift

b)

Complete isolation, identical genotypes, stasis

c)

Large population, random mating, migration

d)

Variation, heritability, differential fitness

3.

What is microevolution, and how does it differ from macroevolution?

a)

Sudden leaps caused by catastrophic events

b)

Formation of new kingdoms across lineages

c)

Changes only observable in fossils record

d)

Small changes within populations over time

4.

How does genetic drift affect small populations?

a)

Random allele frequency changes significant

b)

Strong stabilizing selection predominates

c)

Gene flow always increases variation

d)

Mutations occur at constant predictable rates

5.

What role does gene flow play in preventing speciation?

a)

It reduces mutation rates drastically

b)

It creates reproductive barriers rapidly

c)

It eliminates selection pressures entirely

d)

It homogenizes populations genetically

6.

How does directional selection influence phenotypic traits in a population?

a)

It increases variance without changing mean

b)

It favors both extremes simultaneously

c)

It shifts trait distribution toward one extreme

d)

It maintains intermediate phenotypes only

7.

What structural characteristic differentiates Gram-negative bacteria from Gram-positive bacteria?

a)

Presence of multiple nuclei per cell

b)

Thin peptidoglycan with outer membrane

c)

Thick peptidoglycan without outer layer

d)

Absence of peptidoglycan entirely

8.

How does transduction differ from transformation and conjugation in bacterial genetic exchange?

a)

Involves uptake of naked DNA

b)

Requires plasmid-encoded F factor

c)

Relies on direct pilus connection

d)

Uses bacteriophages to transfer DNA

9.

What is the function of the F plasmid in bacterial conjugation?

a)

It degrades host cell walls

b)

It produces toxins for defense

c)

It stores nutrients for survival

d)

It encodes pilus formation and transfer

10.

How do bacteria use fimbriae, and what advantage do they provide?

a)

Photosynthesis increases energy production

b)

DNA uptake improves genetic diversity

c)

Swimming motility increases dispersal distance

d)

Attachment to surfaces enhances colonization

11.

How does an anaerobic chemoheterotroph obtain its energy?

a)

Oxidizes organic molecules without oxygen

b)

Uses light to fix carbon dioxide

c)

Oxidizes inorganic molecules for ATP

d)

Ferments CO2 into carbohydrates directly

12.

What is the F factor (F+ and F-)? Why is it important?

a)

A plasmid enabling DNA transfer

b)

A chromosomal lethal mutation

c)

A viral genome causing lysis

d)

An enzyme initiating replication

13.

What structures make up the filamentous mats in fungi, and what is their function?

a)

Setae forming tissues for support

b)

Hyphae forming mycelium for absorption

c)

Flagella forming colonies for motion

d)

Cilia forming networks for signaling

14.

What is mycorrhizal fungi, and how does it benefit plants?

a)

Symbiosis enhancing nutrient uptake

b)

Parasitism reducing root growth

c)

Predation deterring herbivores

d)

Commensalism providing shade

15.

What is plasmogamy, and why is it important in fungal reproduction?

a)

Fusion of cytoplasm preceding karyogamy

b)

Formation of spores after meiosis

c)

Growth of hyphae from germinated spores

d)

Production of fruiting bodies for dispersal

16.

What is the key characteristic of chytrids that suggests they diverged early in fungal evolution?

a)

Obligate multicellular organization

b)

Flagellated zoospores in life cycle

c)

Lack of cell walls entirely

d)

Complex septate hyphae structures

17.

How do ascomycetes reproduce sexually?

a)

Release conidia by mitosis alone

b)

Produce basidia with basidiospores

c)

Generate zygospores via fusion

d)

Form asci containing haploid spores

18.

How does yeast reproduce asexually?

a)

By generating endospores

b)

By forming motile gametes

c)

By binary fission equally splitting

d)

By budding to form new cells

19.

How do protists contribute to aquatic ecosystems as primary producers?

a)

Consume bacteria via phagocytosis

b)

Recycle phosphorus from sediments

c)

Fix carbon through photosynthesis

d)

Decompose detritus into nitrates

20.

What structures allow excavates to ingest food?

a)

Cilia bands generating currents

b)

Silica frustules capturing prey

c)

Contractile vacuoles expelling water

d)

Feeding grooves guiding particles

21.

Which point best captures the significance of the fossil record in evolutionary history?

a)

It proves all species evolved at constant rates

b)

It confirms fossils form exclusively in igneous rocks

c)

It shows only gradual changes without transitional forms

d)

It documents stratified extinction and radiation patterns

e)

It reveals identical morphologies across geologic eras

22.

Which pair correctly distinguishes microevolution from macroevolution?

a)

Speciation events versus single gene mutations

b)

Allele frequency shifts versus broad lineage diversification

c)

Chromosomal nondisjunction versus developmental plasticity

d)

Behavioral adaptation versus physiological homeostasis

e)

Population bottlenecks versus cell cycle regulation

23.

How does the Hardy–Weinberg principle help determine if a population is evolving?

a)

By assessing individual fitness with controlled mating trials

b)

By tracking fossil deposition across sedimentary layers

c)

By measuring mutation rates in isolated laboratory cultures

d)

By sequencing mitochondrial genomes for shared haplotypes

e)

By comparing observed genotype frequencies to expected equilibrium

24.

Which scenario best illustrates allopatric speciation?

a)

Individuals converge on identical courtship behavior

b)

A shared habitat promotes frequent gene flow and panmixia

c)

Seasonal mating shifts cause unified breeding synchrony

d)

A population stabilizes at a single peak phenotype

e)

A river divides a population, leading to reproductive isolation

25.

Which natural selection pattern favors both extremes of a trait?

a)

Directional selection toward a single optimum

b)

Stabilizing selection around the intermediate mean

c)

Balancing selection maintaining heterozygote advantage

d)

Purifying selection removing deleterious variants

e)

Disruptive selection with bimodal phenotypic distribution

26.

Which statement best reflects endosymbiosis in eukaryotic evolution?

a)

Peroxisomes descended from obligate intracellular parasites

b)

Centrioles evolved from symbiotic cyanobacteria only

c)

Ribosomes arose from viral integration into genomes

d)

Nuclei formed by fusion of archaeal membranes alone

e)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from engulfed bacteria

27.

Which description aligns with the biological species concept?

a)

Populations with matching karyotype numbers

b)

Taxa separated solely by geographic barriers

c)

Lineages with unique ecological niches only

d)

Individuals sharing identical morphological traits

e)

Groups that interbreed to produce fertile offspring

28.

Which primary difference separates Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

a)

Multiple flagella versus single fimbrial appendage

b)

Linear chromosomes versus circular plasmid-only genomes

c)

Presence of membrane sterols versus cholesterols exclusively

d)

Thick peptidoglycan versus outer membrane with lipopolysaccharide

e)

Mitochondrial respiration versus chloroplast photosynthesis

29.

Why could loss of fimbriae reduce bacterial survival?

a)

Metabolic ATP synthesis would immediately cease

b)

Spore formation efficiency would consistently rise

c)

Photosynthetic pigment arrays would expand greatly

d)

Attachment to host tissues and surfaces would decrease

e)

DNA replication fidelity would dramatically improve

30.

How does horizontal gene transfer influence bacterial evolution and resistance?

a)

It spreads adaptive traits like antibiotic resistance across strains

b)

It prevents recombination and limits genetic diversity

c)

It forces strict clonal inheritance without plasmids

d)

It confines beneficial mutations to single lineages

e)

It eliminates mobile genetic elements from populations

31.

Which feature most distinguishes archaea from bacteria in cell wall composition?

a)

Archaeal cellulose microfibrils versus bacterial chitin

b)

Archaeal collagen layers versus bacterial elastin

c)

Archaeal pseudopeptidoglycan versus bacterial peptidoglycan

d)

Archaeal pectin polymers versus bacterial keratin

e)

Archaeal silica frustules versus bacterial lignin

32.

Which mechanism best explains bacterial development of antibiotic resistance?

a)

Resistance arises only from vertical descent without change

b)

Host fever denatures bacterial chromosomes permanently

c)

Antibiotics strengthen peptidoglycan causing lysis

d)

Daily nutrient supplementation eliminates drug activity

e)

Selection on mutations and gene transfer of resistance loci

33.

Which pairing correctly compares coenocytic and septate fungi?

a)

Single-celled yeasts only versus multicellular molds only

b)

Multinucleate hyphae without septa versus hyphae with cross walls

c)

Cellulose-dominant walls versus chitin-dominant walls

d)

Hyphae forming spores versus hyphae lacking reproduction

e)

Photosynthetic filaments versus heterotrophic filaments

34.

Which ecological role do diatoms often play in aquatic systems?

a)

Obligate parasites of vertebrate intestinal tracts

b)

Primary producers forming substantial phytoplankton biomass

c)

Top predators in benthic trophic cascades

d)

Anaerobic decomposers of keratin and collagen

e)

Exclusive nitrogen fixers in oligotrophic lakes

35.

In basidiomycetes, which structure produces spores during reproduction?

a)

Sporangia inside specialized sporangiospores

b)

Ascus within closed cleistothecia only

c)

Basidia on gills or pores of fruiting bodies

d)

Conidiophores bearing asexual conidia

e)

Archegonia along filamentous gametangia

36.

Which contrast of reproductive strategies is accurate for ascomycetes and basidiomycetes?

a)

Dominant haploid phase versus dominant diploid phase

b)

Obligate asexual cycles versus exclusive sexual cycles

c)

Asci with ascospores versus basidia with basidiospores

d)

Flagellated gametes versus nonflagellated gametes

e)

Endosymbiotic chloroplasts versus cyanobacterial plastids

37.

Which trait defines pseudopodia in amoeboid movement?

a)

Contractile vacuole jets propelling forward

b)

Rotary flagellar motors embedded in membranes

c)

Gliding via secreted mucilage along surfaces

d)

Rigid microtubule cilia beating for swimming

e)

Actin-driven cytoplasmic extensions for locomotion

38.

How do heterotrophic protists typically obtain nutrients and affect ecosystems?

a)

Photosynthesis and stomatal regulation of transpiration

b)

Phagocytosis and parasitism or predation altering communities

c)

Nitrogen fixation through specialized root nodules

d)

Autotrophy with CAM metabolism in deserts

e)

Chemolithotrophy and sulfur oxidation in vents only

39.

Why are protists considered important primary producers in large ecosystems?

a)

They contribute significant carbon fixation in marine food webs

b)

They control ozone synthesis with halogen release

c)

They drive plate tectonics by mineral precipitation

d)

They regulate mammalian gut microbiota through antibiotics

e)

They maintain permafrost stability via heat absorption

40.

Why do antibiotics destroy bacterial cells but have no effect on viruses?

a)

Viruses are made up of organic molecules that are too small to be targeted by antibiotics.

b)

Viruses are not alive and do not carry out the life functions that are stopped by antibiotics

c)

Viruses do not possess the protein coat that is targeted by all antibiotics

41.
How is this organism best classified?
a)
unicellular & eukaryotic
b)
multicellular & eukaryotic
c)
unicellular & prokaryotic
d)
multicellular & prokaryotic
42.
All protists are __________________________.
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Unicellular
d)
Multicellular
43.
"Algae" is a general term used to describe _____________ - like protists.
a)
Plant
b)
Fungi
c)
Animal
d)
Bacteria
44.
Amoeba is an example of which type of protist?
a)
Animal-like protists
b)
Plant-like protists
c)
Fungi-like protists
d)
Bacteria-like protists
45.
A paramecium is an example of which type of protist?
a)
Animal-like protist
b)
Plant-like protist
c)
Fungi-like protist
d)
Bacteria-like protist
46.
How is the amoeba (seen in the image) able to move?
a)
Pseudopods
b)
Cilia
c)
Flagella
d)
Pili
47.
The amoeba seen in the image engulfs large food particles through which process?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Osmosis
d)
Diffusion
48.
Which protist organelle, seen in the image of a paramecium, removes excess water from the organism/cell?
a)
Contractile Vacuole
b)
Macronucleus
c)
Cilia
d)
Food Vacuole
49.
What major characteristics is the same between animals and animal like protists?
a)
They are heterotrophic
b)
They are autotrophic
c)
They are saprotrophic
d)
They are prokaryotic
50.

All statements listed below are true about Chlamydomonas sp. except

a)

It has green pigment called chlorophyll

b)

Its mode of nutrition is autotrophic

c)

Its grouped under phylum Euglenophyta

d)

Its store carbohydrate in the form of starch

51.

Tail like movement in protista's come from

a)

cilia

b)

pseudopods

c)

flagella

d)

diatoms

52.

Which of the following statements about protozoa are TRUE?

I. Amoeba uses pseudopodium for locomotion

II. Paramecium is a heterotroph

III. Euglena has flagella for movement

IV. Euglena has contractile vacuole

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

II, III and IV

d)

I, II, III and IV

53.

Which of the following is a nutritional mode of Protists?

a)

All of the Following are nutritional modes

b)

Photoautotrophs

c)

Heterotrophs

d)

Mixotrophs

54.

In this supergroup, many species lack plastids, have reduced mitochondria because they live in anaerobic environments, and have unique flagella.

a)

SAR

b)

Excavata

c)

Archaeplastida

d)

Unikonta

55.

Stramenopiles are unique because this is the first lineage of Protists where a multicellular species exists. What is that species?

a)

Diatoms

b)

Golden Algae

c)

Green Algae

d)

Brown Algae

56.

Yay or Nay: Alveolates are classified by their membrane-enclosed sacs called alveoli

(a)  

57.

Many species of Rhizarians are

a)

Pseudopodia

b)

Diatoms

c)

Amoebas

d)

Alveolates

58.

The supergroup Archaeplastida has TWO lineages of interest to us that we have expanded on in current chapters. What are they?

a)

Green Algae

b)

Red Algae

c)

Plants

d)

Fungi

59.
Which is NOT an example of a plant-like protist?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Algae
c)
Euglena
d)
Diatom
60.
What is Cilia?
a)
A tail like structure that help protist move
b)
Hair like fibers that help protist move
c)
A place where spores are kept
d)
A fake foot that help protist move
61.
Which protist is this?
a)
Amoeba
b)
Euglena
c)
Water mold
d)
Paramecium
62.
Which protist is this?
a)
Amoeba
b)
Paramecium
c)
Plasmodium
63.
 Is water mold plant-like, fungus-like, or animal-like?
a)
Plant-like
b)
Fungus-like
c)
Animal-like
64.

Possess two flagella

a)

Diatoms

b)

Entamoebas

c)

Dinoflagellates

d)

Radiolarians

65.

What Protist is shaped like complete circle

a)

Volvox

b)

Euglena

c)

Paramecium

d)

Amoeba

66.

Which of these groups has a hard outer shell?

a)

Kinetoplastids

b)

Diatoms

c)

Apicomplexans

d)

Ciliates

67.
Protists obtain food by being
a)
autotrophs.
b)
heterotrophs.
c)
autotrophs & heterotrophs.
d)
chemotrophs.
68.

A protista that uses conjugation to reproduce is a

a)

paramecium

b)

arcella

c)

ameoba

d)

algae

69.

A protista that reproduces using spores is a

a)

euglena

b)

slime molds

c)

arcella

70.

Primary endosymbiosis lead to the development of _______ in eukaryotic cells.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Plastids

d)

Mitochondria

71.

Stramenopiles are unique because this is the first lineage of Protists where a multicellular species exists. What is that species?

a)

Diatoms

b)

Golden Algae

c)

Green Algae

d)

Brown Algae

72.

Yay or Nay: Prokaryotes can have more than on flagella

(a)  

73.

What are the three primary shapes of Prokaryotes?

(a)  

74.

Prokaryotes can be divided into two Domains, what are they?

(a)  

75.

What substance is responsible for trapping the crystal violet solution when staining bacteria?

a)

Plasma Membrane

b)

Lipopolysaccharides

c)

Peptidoglycan

d)

Membrane-Bound Proteins

76.

Gram-Positive Bacteria are classified by having a thick layer of this substance

(a)  

77.

Gram-Negative Bacteria do contain peptidoglycan layer, but their layer is very thin compared to Gram-Positive. So, what defining feature classifies Gram-Negative Bacteria?

(a)  

78.

Why do Gram-Negative Bacteria stain red?

a)

Because their peptidoglycan layer is too thin and the violet dye rinses away

b)

Because their peptidoglycan layer is too thick and the violet dye rinses away

c)

Because their peptidoglycan layer is too thin and the violet dye is trapped

d)

Because their peptidoglycan layer is too thick and the violet die is trapped

79.

Yay or Nay: Prokaryotes reproduce sexually

(a)  

80.

Why are Transformation and Transduction important for Prokaryotes?

a)

They provide the basis for Prokaryotes to be genetically identical

b)

They provide the basis for genetic diversity

c)

They provide new DNA to Prokaryotes by the means of a Bacteriophage

d)

They provide new DNA to Prokaryotes from the environment

81.

Archaea can be classified as Extremophiles because of their ability to live in extreme environments. What is an example of an Extremophile?

a)

Halophiles

b)

Thermophiles

c)

Methanogens

d)

All the Following are Extremeophiles

82.

Which of these are OLDER?

a)

Prokaryotes

b)

Eukaryotes

83.

Where do bacteria and Archaea keep their DNA?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Nucleoid

d)

Plasma membrane

84.

Ribosomes manufacture ____.

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic acids

85.

Penicillin...

a)

Targets harmful viruses

b)

Is effective in combating Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Weakens bacterial cell walls with peptidoglycan

d)

Only attacks harmful, gram-negative bacteria

86.

What is an example of mutualism?

a)

Humans and gut bacteria

b)

Cattle egrets picking insects cattle stir up

c)

Ticks and dogs

d)

Tree frogs using plants as protection

87.

Which kind of symbiosis is nitrogen fixation involving bacteria and plants?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

88.

Which domain contains extremophiles?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Eukarya

c)

Archaea

89.

This type of organism has a chemical energy source and derives carbon from organic compounds.

a)

Chemoautotroph

b)

Chemoheterotroph

c)

Photoautotroph

d)

Photochemotroph

90.

the Gram-positive bacteria stain purple because

a)

they form endospore

b)

they have cellulose layer

c)

they have thick peptidoglycan layer

d)

they have thin peptidoglycan layer

91.

Escherichia coli is an example of Domain...

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Eukarya

d)

Prokarya

92.

Which of the following statements show characteristics of Archaebacteria?


I. The cell walls do not contain peptidoglycan.

II. There are no membrane-enclosed organelles within their cytoplasm.

III. Their DNA consist of histone proteins.

IV. Their membrane lipid has unbranched hydrocarbon chain.

a)

I, II and III

b)

II, III and IV

c)

I, II and IV

d)

I, III and IV

93.

Cyanobacteria are

a)

Photoheterotrophs

b)

Photoautotrophs

c)

Chemoautotrophs

d)

Chemoheterotrophs

94.

Bacteria and Archaebacteria are both prokaryotes. How do they differ to each other?

a)

Bacteria inhabit extreme environment while Archaebacteria inhabit diverse environment.

b)

Bacteria inhabit diverse environment while Archaebacteria inhabit extreme environment.

c)

Both inhabit diverse environment.

d)

Both inhabit extreme environment.

95.

Identify letter H.

a)

nucleoid region (DNA)

b)

nucleus

c)

nuclei

96.
Binary fission is a type of _____ reproduction  that bacteria do.
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
97.

What is the primary purpose of Gram staining in microbiology?

a)

To measure bacterial growth rate

b)

To differentiate bacterial species into two groups based on cell wall composition

c)

To identify bacterial DNA

d)

To determine bacterial motility

98.

The transfer of naked DNA from one cell to another is referred to as

a)

Transduction

b)

Lysogeny

c)

Transformation

d)

Conjugation

99.

The transfer of genes from one cell to another by a bacteriophage is known as

a)

Recombination

b)

Conjugation

c)

Transduction

d)

Transformation

100.

What are plasmids?

a)

Mobile sections of DNA that can move within genomes.

b)

Circular DNA sections that replicate independently of chromosomes.

c)

Enzymes that catalyze the cutting and resealing of DNA.

d)

Proteins that facilitate gene transfer.

101.

How do bacteria typically achieve conjugation?

a)

By releasing DNA into the environment.

b)

Through a process called transposition.

c)

Through the action of bacteriophages.

d)

By using a conjugation pilus for cell-cell contact.

102.

Why is horizontal gene transfer important for bacteria?

a)

It prevents them from acquiring pathogenicity or antibiotic resistance.

b)

It slows down their adaptation to new environments.

c)

It ensures that their genome size keeps increasing.

d)

It allows them to achieve genetic diversity and adapt to new environments.

103.

What is horizontal gene transfer?

a)

Genetic change passed on to daughter cell

b)

Genetic change acquired from another cell

104.

Why is horizontal gene transfer significant in bacterial populations?

a)
  • It creates diversity by introducing new genetic material.

b)
  • It allows bacteria to replicate more efficiently.

c)
  • It ensures that bacteria remain genetically identical.

d)
  • It reduces the risk of mutations within the genome.

105.

What is the primary function of fimbriae in bacteria?

a)

Attachment to surfaces

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Motility

106.

How do fimbriae contribute to bacterial infections?

a)

They help bacteria adhere to host tissues, aiding colonization

b)

They produce toxins that kill host cells

c)

They enable bacteria to move through the bloodstream

d)

They allow bacteria to resist antibiotics

107.

Which statement best defines evolution at the population level?

a)

Directional selection acting every reproductive season

b)

Increase in individual fitness over one lifetime

c)

Accumulation of mutations within single organisms

d)

Change in allele frequencies across generations

108.

Which mechanism most likely causes random changes in allele frequencies in small populations?

a)

Genetic drift through chance events

b)

Directional selection favoring extremes

c)

Gene flow from nearby populations

d)

Balancing selection maintaining heterozygotes

109.

In the Hardy–Weinberg model, a population in equilibrium has constant what?

a)

Mutation rates per generation

b)

Selection coefficients on traits

c)

Phenotypic plasticity levels

d)

Allele and genotype frequencies

110.

Which source directly generates new alleles in a gene pool?

a)

Sexual reproduction mixing alleles

b)

Mutations altering DNA sequences

c)

Natural selection filtering phenotypes

d)

Gene flow moving individuals

111.

Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation primarily by which process?

a)

Recombination and independent assortment

b)

Mutation accumulation each gametogenesis

c)

Directional selection on mating traits

d)

Gene flow through long-distance dispersal

112.

Natural selection that shifts the population mean toward one extreme is called what?

a)

Disruptive selection

b)

Stabilizing selection

c)

Directional selection

d)

Balancing selection

113.

Which scenario illustrates disruptive selection?

a)

Both extremes favored over intermediates

b)

One extreme consistently increases fitness

c)

Random drift changes allele frequencies

d)

Intermediate trait favored most strongly

114.

Stabilizing selection typically has which effect on trait variation?

a)

Randomizes phenotypes independent of fitness

b)

Shifts mean toward higher values

c)

Amplifies extremes, splits distribution

d)

Reduces extremes, maintains intermediates

115.

Gene flow most directly affects populations by doing what?

a)

Introducing alleles through migration

b)

Creating new alleles by mutation

c)

Randomly fixing alleles in small groups

d)

Eliminating heterozygotes via selection

116.

Which statement best defines the biological species concept?

a)

Populations that interbreed and are reproductive isolated

b)

Lineages with unique morphological traits

c)

Populations living in the same environment

d)

Groups sharing a recent common ancestor

117.

Which scenario exemplifies allopatric speciation?

a)

Polyploidy arising in a plant population

b)

Disruptive selection within a single habitat

c)

A river divides a population, preventing gene flow

d)

Assortative mating in a mixed population

118.

Which mechanism is most directly a prezygotic barrier?

a)

Reduced hybrid viability post-fertilization

b)

Hybrid sterility after mating occurs

c)

Temporal isolation preventing mating seasons

d)

Hybrid breakdown in later generations

119.

Which outcome is characteristic of postzygotic barriers?

a)

Behavioral isolation prevents courtship

b)

Hybrids are sterile or inviable

c)

Mechanical isolation blocks copulation

d)

Gametes fail to fuse during mating

120.

Which situation most likely leads to sympatric speciation in animals?

a)

Geographic barriers separate subpopulations

b)

Random mating across the entire range

c)

Disruptive selection with strong assortative mating

d)

Stable gene flow maintaining one gene pool

121.

Which combination correctly pairs barrier type with example?

a)

Prezygotic—mechanical isolation

b)

Postzygotic—temporal isolation

c)

Prezygotic—hybrid sterility

d)

Postzygotic—behavioral isolation

122.

Which evidence best supports variable rates of speciation across lineages?

a)

Uniform mutation rates in all organisms

b)

Fossil transitions showing gradual and punctuated events

c)

Identical selection pressures across ecosystems

d)

Consistent generation times in populations

123.

A plant lineage undergoes chromosome doubling producing polyploids. What mode of speciation is most consistent with this event?

a)

Sympatric driven by instant reproductive isolation

b)

Allopatric driven by physical separation

c)

Peripatric driven by founder effects

d)

Parapatric driven by clinal variation

124.

Which pattern aligns with punctuated equilibrium in the fossil record?

a)

Continuous anagenesis over many strata

b)

Gradual transitions without stasis phases

c)

Long stasis interrupted by rapid divergence

d)

Slow change with constant morphological shifts

125.

Two populations develop different mating calls and timing, reducing interbreeding while coexisting. What barrier combination is primarily involved?

a)

Postzygotic viability and breakdown

b)

Mechanical isolation and hybrid sterility

c)

Behavioral and temporal isolation

d)

Gametic isolation and hybrid inviability

126.

Which hypothesis describes the earliest steps in life’s origin on Earth?

a)

Direct descent from extraterrestrial organisms

b)

Instant creation of multicellular eukaryotes

c)

Spontaneous generation produced complex animals

d)

Abiotic synthesis formed organic molecules first

127.

Hydrothermal vents are proposed to have contributed to life’s origin primarily by:

a)

Providing mineral catalysts and energy gradients

b)

Flooding continents with liquid water

c)

Generating abundant atmospheric oxygen

d)

Delivering ultraviolet radiation for polymerization

128.

Stromatolites are significant in the fossil record because they:

a)

Record early prokaryote communities in layered rocks

b)

Demonstrate multicellular plant vascular tissues

c)

Show the first tetrapod limb impressions

d)

Contain direct fossils of modern humans

129.

Endosymbiosis theory explains the origin of:

a)

Nuclei in archaeal lineages

b)

Cell walls in early prokaryotes

c)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotes

d)

Vascular tissue in land plants

130.

Which evidence best supports endosymbiosis?

a)

Organelles form de novo from vesicles

b)

Organelles have linear DNA with histones

c)

Organelles divide by mitosis like nuclei

d)

Organelles have circular DNA and 70S ribosomes

131.

Multicellularity led directly to the rise of:

a)

Viruses and prions primarily

b)

Bacteria and archaea only

c)

Plants, animals, and fungi

d)

Single-celled protists mainly

132.

Tetrapods first appeared around:

a)

Approximately 1.8 billion years ago

b)

Approximately 195,000 years ago

c)

Approximately 365 million years ago

d)

Approximately 3.5 billion years ago

133.

Modern Homo sapiens emerged roughly:

a)

1.8 billion years ago in the Proterozoic

b)

500 million years ago during early Paleozoic

c)

195,000 years ago in the late Pleistocene

d)

3.5 billion years ago in the Archean

134.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
135.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
136.
Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene.  The change is called a(n)
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
gene pool
d)
allele
137.
What is an allele?
a)
version of a gene
b)
trait determined by many genes
c)
Dna sequence that determines a trait
138.

Which scenario best illustrates allopatric speciation?

a)

Gene flow increases between distant populations

b)

Hybrid offspring have increased fertility

c)

Individuals mate randomly within a single population

d)

Populations separated by a physical barrier evolve independently