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Health Assessment - Final Exam Part II

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All of the following are characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome EXCEPT

a)

Microcephaly

b)

Smooth philtrum (area under nose)

c)

Flat midface

d)

Small Eye Opening

e)

Low set small folding ears

2.

What is a facies?

a)

a distinctive facial expression that is characteristic of a medical condition.

b)

a small patch of skin that is altered in colour, but is not elevated.

c)

a large area of color change, with a smooth surface

d)

an elevated, solid, palpable lesion that is ≤ 1 cm in diameter. They may be solitary or multiple

3.

What is a macule?

a)

a distinctive facial expression that is characteristic of a medical condition.

b)

a small patch of skin that is altered in colour, but is not elevated.

c)

a large area of color change, with a smooth surface

d)

an elevated, solid, palpable lesion that is ≤ 1 cm in diameter. They may be solitary or multiple

4.

What is a papule?

a)

a distinctive facial expression that is characteristic of a medical condition.

b)

a small patch of skin that is altered in colour, but is not elevated.

c)

a large area of color change, with a smooth surface

d)

an elevated, solid, palpable lesion that is ≤ 1 cm in diameter. They may be solitary or multiple

5.

What is a patch

a)

a distinctive facial expression that is characteristic of a medical condition.

b)

a small patch of skin that is altered in colour, but is not elevated.

c)

a large area of color change, with a smooth surface

d)

an elevated, solid, palpable lesion that is ≤ 1 cm in diameter. They may be solitary or multiple

6.

Which of the following are skin signs of respiratory disease?

a)

Pallor

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Clubbing

d)

Decreased capillary refill

e)

Edema

7.

What is diaphoresis?

a)

a distinctive facial expression that is characteristic of a medical condition.

b)

fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces of dependent areas (feet, ankles, sacrum)

c)

a large area of color change, with a smooth surface

d)

Excessive sweating

8.

A grade of 1+ Mild pitting on the edema scale means which of the following?

a)

Slight indentation

No perceptible swelling of the leg

b)

Indentation subsides rapidly

c)

Indentation remains for a short time

Leg looks swollen

d)

Indentation lasts a long time

Leg is very swollen

9.

A grade of 2+ Moderate pitting on the edema scale means which of the following?

a)

Slight indentation

No perceptible swelling of the leg

b)

Indentation subsides rapidly

c)

Indentation remains for a short time

Leg looks swollen

d)

Indentation lasts a long time

Leg is very swollen

10.

A grade of 3+ Deep pitting on the edema scale means which of the following?

a)

Slight indentation

No perceptible swelling of the leg

b)

Indentation subsides rapidly

c)

Indentation remains for a short time

Leg looks swollen

d)

Indentation lasts a long time

Leg is very swollen

11.

A grade of 4+ Very deep pitting on the edema scale means which of the following?

a)

Slight indentation

No perceptible swelling of the leg

b)

Indentation subsides rapidly

c)

Indentation remains for a short time

Leg looks swollen

d)

Indentation lasts a long time

Leg is very swollen

12.

Which of the following are signs of cardiac distress in a patient?

a)

Diaphoresis (excessive sweating)

b)

Edema

c)

Cool Skin Temperature

d)

Signs of Respiratory distress (Cyanosis, Clubbing, Pallor, Decr Capillary Refill))

e)

Secondary Lesions

13.

All of the following are associated with clubbing EXCEPT:

a)

+ Schmaroth's sign (No diamond between fingers)

b)

Bulging distal fingers/toes & nail beds

c)

Spongy Feeling nail bed

d)

Nail angle of 160 degrees or less

14.

Capillary refill should occur within

a)

< 3 seconds

b)

> 3 seconds

c)

within 1 minute

d)

30 seconds

15.

Which of the following are signs of dehydration?

a)

Dry mucous membranes

b)

Clubbing

c)

Poor skin turgor

d)

Edema

16.

When assessing for skin turgor in infants where should you look?

a)

Under the clavicle

b)

Abdomen

c)

At nail beds

d)

Back of arms and legs.

17.

What is a Wood's light, ultraviolet light filtered through special glass, used for?

a)

To detect abnormalities in the eye

b)

To look in the ears

c)

To detect fluorescing lesions

d)

To detect the presence of exudate

18.

What is an ephelides?

a)

A freckle

b)

A mole

c)

A lesion

d)

A type of cancer

19.

What is a nevus?

a)

A freckle

b)

A mole

c)

A lesion

d)

A type of cancer

20.

What is acrocyanosis?

a)

Blueness of the extremities (the hands and feet)

b)

Blueness of the fingers, toes

c)

condition where the skin has a pinkish blue mottled or marbled appearance when subjected to cold temperatures

d)

Condition where infant lacks any blueness

21.

What is cutis marmorata?

a)

Blueness of the extremities (the hands and feet)

b)

Blueness of the fingers, toes

c)

condition where the skin has a pinkish blue mottled or marbled appearance when subjected to cold temperatures

d)

Condition where infant lacks any blueness

22.

All of the following are normal skin conditions in newborns/infants EXCEPT

a)

Mongolian Spot

b)

Cafe au lait spot

c)

Harlequin color change

d)

Erythema Toxicum

e)

Sebaceous hyperplasia

23.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Annular or Circular

b)

Confluent

c)

Discrete

d)

Gyrate

e)

Groupe

24.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Annular or Circular

b)

Confluent

c)

Discrete

d)

Gyrate

e)

Groupe

25.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Annular or Circular

b)

Confluent

c)

Discrete

d)

Gyrate

e)

Groupe

26.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Annular or Circular

b)

Confluent

c)

Discrete

d)

Gyrate

e)

Groupe

27.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Annular or Circular

b)

Confluent

c)

Discrete

d)

Gyrate

e)

Grouped

28.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Linear

b)

Zosteriform

c)

Target or iris

d)

Polycyclic

e)

Groupe

29.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Linear

b)

Zosteriform

c)

Target or iris

d)

Polycyclic

e)

Groupe

30.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Linear

b)

Zosteriform

c)

Target or iris

d)

Polycyclic

e)

Groupe

31.

What type of lesion is pictured?

a)

Linear

b)

Zosteriform

c)

Target or iris

d)

Polycyclic

e)

Groupe

32.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Macule

b)

Patch

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

33.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Macule

b)

Patch

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

34.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Macule

b)

Patch

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

35.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Macule

b)

Plaque

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

36.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Macule

b)

Plaque

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

37.

A tumor, a primary skin lesion, is a type of ?

a)

Macule

b)

Plaque

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

38.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Macule

b)

Plaque

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

39.

Urticaria, a type of wheal, is shown in which picture?

a)
b)
c)
d)
40.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Vesicle or Bulla

b)

Plaque

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

41.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Vesicle or Bulla

b)

Cyst

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Wheal

42.

What type of primary skin lesion is pictured?

a)

Vesicle or Bulla

b)

Cyst

c)

Papule

d)

Nodule

e)

Pustule

43.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Crust

b)

Fissure

c)

Erosion

d)

Scales

e)

Keloids

44.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Crust

b)

Fissure

c)

Erosion

d)

Scales

e)

Keloids

45.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Crust

b)

Fissure

c)

Erosion

d)

Scales

e)

Keloids

46.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Crust

b)

Fissure

c)

Erosion

d)

Scales

e)

Keloids

47.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Ulcer

b)

Fissure

c)

Erosion

d)

Scales

e)

Keloids

48.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Ulcer

b)

Fissure

c)

Erosion

d)

Excoriation

e)

Keloids

49.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Ulcer

b)

Scar

c)

Erosion

d)

Excoriation

e)

Keloids

50.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Atrophic Scar

b)

Scar

c)

Erosion

d)

Excoriation

e)

Keloids

51.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Atrophic Scar

b)

Scar

c)

Erosion

d)

Excoriation

e)

Lichenification

52.

Identify the secondary skin lesion pictured.

a)

Atrophic Scar

b)

Scar

c)

Keloid

d)

Excoriation

e)

Lichenification

53.

Which of the following are skin conditions associated with the aging adult?

a)

Dry skin (xerosis)

b)

Overgrowth of skin or skin tags (acrocordans)

c)

Senile lentigines (age spots)

d)

Seborrheic keratosis or Actinic keratosis

e)

Erythema toxicum

54.

Which of the contusions pictured are shown from most recent to almost healed

a)

1,2, 3, 4, 5,

b)

5, 4, 3, 2, 1,

c)

1,5. 3, 2, 4

d)

2, 4, 3, 1, 5

55.

Which of the following are hemangiomas?

a)

port wine stain (nevus flammeus)

b)

Strawberry mark (immature hemangioma)

c)

Cavernus hemangioma (mature)

d)

Spider or star angioma

e)

Telangiectases

56.

Which fo the following are purpuric lesions (red or purple discolored spots on the skin that do not blanch on applying pressure)

a)

Petechiae

b)

Purpura

c)

Ecchymosis

d)

Pattern injury

e)

Hematoma

57.

Which stage of pressure ulcer is described below:

skin does not blanch, skin intact

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

58.

Which stage of pressure ulcer is described below:

partial thickness break in skin

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

59.

Which stage of pressure ulcer is described below:

Full thickness, into subcutaneous tissue

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

60.

Which stage of pressure ulcer is described below:

Full-thickness, all skin layers, exposed muscle, tendon, or bone

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

61.

Which pressure ulcer stage is pictured?

a)

Stage I, Non-Blanchable Erythema

b)

Stage II - Partial-thickness skin loss

c)

Stage III - Full-thickness skin loss

d)

Stage IV - Full-Thickness Skin/Tissue loss

62.

Which pressure ulcer stage is pictured?

a)

Stage I, Non-Blanchable Erythema

b)

Stage II - Partial-thickness skin loss

c)

Stage III - Full-thickness skin loss

d)

Stage IV - Full-Thickness Skin/Tissue loss

63.

Which pressure ulcer stage is pictured?

a)

Stage I, Non-Blanchable Erythema

b)

Stage II - Partial-thickness skin loss

c)

Stage III - Full-thickness skin loss

d)

Stage IV - Full-Thickness Skin/Tissue loss

64.

Which pressure ulcer stage is pictured?

a)

Stage I, Non-Blanchable Erythema

b)

Stage II - Partial-thickness skin loss

c)

Stage III - Full-thickness skin loss

d)

Stage IV - Full-Thickness Skin/Tissue loss

65.

The picture & description below represents which of the lung sounds:

insp & exp same duration


Insp & exp same loudness


Gap between the two

?

a)

Bronchial sounds

b)

Vesicular sounds

c)

Bronchovesicular sounds

d)

Crackles

e)

Wheezes

66.

The picture & description below represents which of the lung sounds:

insp longer than exp


Insp louder than exp


No gap


?

a)

Bronchial sounds

b)

Vesicular sounds

c)

Bronchovesicular sounds

d)

Crackles

e)

Wheezes

67.

Which of the following descriptions describe vesicular sounds?

a)

soft and low pitched with a rustling quality during inspiration and are even softer during expiration.

b)

Hollow, tubular sounds that are higher pitched.

c)

normal sounds in the mid-chest area or in the posterior

chest between the scapula. They reflect a mixture of the pitch

of the bronchial breath sounds heard near the trachea and the

alveoli with the vesicular sound.

d)

brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. (wood burning/cellophane crackling)

e)

Discontinuous, brief, popping lung sounds. (bubbling)

68.

Which of the following descriptions describe Bronchial sounds?

a)

soft and low pitched with a rustling quality during inspiration and are even softer during expiration.

b)

Hollow, tubular sounds that are higher pitched.

c)

normal sounds in the mid-chest area or in the posterior

chest between the scapula. They reflect a mixture of the pitch

of the bronchial breath sounds heard near the trachea and the

alveoli with the vesicular sound.

d)

brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. (wood burning/cellophane crackling)

e)

Discontinuous, brief, popping lung sounds. (bubbling)

69.

Which of the following descriptions describe Bronchovesicular sounds?

a)

soft and low pitched with a rustling quality during inspiration and are even softer during expiration.

b)

Hollow, tubular sounds that are higher pitched.

c)

normal sounds in the mid-chest area or in the posterior

chest between the scapula. They reflect a mixture of the pitch

of the bronchial breath sounds heard near the trachea and the

alveoli with the vesicular sound.

d)

brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. (wood burning/cellophane crackling)

e)

Discontinuous, brief, popping lung sounds. (bubbling)

70.

Which of the following descriptions describe Fine Crackles (Rales)?

a)

soft and low pitched with a rustling quality during inspiration and are even softer during expiration.

b)

Hollow, tubular sounds that are higher pitched.

c)

normal sounds in the mid-chest area or in the posterior

chest between the scapula. They reflect a mixture of the pitch

of the bronchial breath sounds heard near the trachea and the

alveoli with the vesicular sound.

d)

brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. (wood burning/cellophane crackling)

e)

Discontinuous, brief, popping lung sounds. (bubbling)

71.

Which of the following descriptions describe Coarse Crackles (Rales)?

a)

soft and low pitched with a rustling quality during inspiration and are even softer during expiration.

b)

Hollow, tubular sounds that are higher pitched.

c)

normal sounds in the mid-chest area or in the posterior

chest between the scapula. They reflect a mixture of the pitch

of the bronchial breath sounds heard near the trachea and the

alveoli with the vesicular sound.

d)

brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. (wood burning/cellophane crackling)

e)

Discontinuous, brief, popping lung sounds. (bubbling)

72.

Which of the following waveforms match Vesicular Sounds

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
73.

Which of the following waveforms match Bronchial Sounds

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
74.

Which of the following waveforms match Bronchiovesicular Sounds

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
75.

Which of the following waveforms match Crackles Fine (Rales)

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
76.

Which of the following waveforms match Crackles Corse (Rales)

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
77.

When

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

When auscultating the lungs you should do all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope

b)

Know which lung is being auscultated

c)

Auscultate side to side

d)

Auscultate one side, then do the next side.

79.

Which of the following mechanisms would cause pallor in an individual?

a)

Loss of oxygenated hemoglobin

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Loss of deoxygenated hemoglobin

80.

All of the following areas should be checked for pallor EXCEPT:

a)

Conjunctiva

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Palms of Hands/Nailbeds

d)

Skin of Stomach

81.

Which of the following colors would indicate pallor in a brown or dark skinned person?

a)

Yellowish-brown

b)

Ashen or gray

c)

Reddish

d)

Pale pink

82.

What are some potential causes of clubbing?

a)

Lung cancer

b)

Pulmonary diseases

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Congenital cyanotic lung disease

e)

Schmaroth's disorder

83.

Bilateral edema is associated wtih _________, but peripheral edema is association with

a)

whole heart failure, left sided heart failure

b)

Left-sided heart failure, right sided heart failure

c)

Right sided heart failure, left sided heart failure

d)

left sided heart failure, whole heart failure heart failure

84.

Poor skin turgor may be sign of which of the all the following EXCEPT

a)

Poor nutrition/weight loss

b)

Dehydration

c)

Age (elderly lose collagen)

d)

Endocarditis

85.

What is aniscoria?

a)

Unequal (asymmetric) pupil sizes

b)

Medical term for pink eye

c)

medical term for color of the sclera

d)

Absence of white sclera of eye

86.

If a person is bedridden, where might edema occur?

a)

Feet

b)

ankles

c)

Sacral area

d)

All of the above

87.

True or False: Clubbing is a permanent change.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Light or clay colored stools are an indication of

a)

Kidney failure

b)

Heart disease

c)

Jaundice

d)

Pulmonary edema

89.

When performing an assessment of the abdomen, which of the following shows the correct order of techniques

a)

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate

b)

Auscultate, percuss, palpate, inspect

c)

inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate

d)

Palpate, auscultate, percuss, inspect

90.

When performing a physical assessment, in what order should your perform the four basic techniques.

a)

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate

b)

Auscultate, percuss, palpate, inspect

c)

inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate

d)

Palpate, auscultate, percuss, inspect

91.

What are the normal variations that you can sometimes see when inspecting the eyes of African Americans?

a)

Gray-blue

b)

"Muddy"

c)

Small Brown macules

d)

Reddish Brown

92.

What is the term for a yellowing of the sclera that indicates jaundice?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Sclera icterus

d)

Confrontation

93.

The resting size of most adult's pupils is

a)

3 to 5 mm

b)

1 to 6 mm

c)

2 to 4 mm

d)

2 to 5 mm

94.

Which of the following best defines anasarca?

a)

“skin tags,” which are overgrowths of normal skin that form a stalk and are polyp-like

b)

Bluish color around the lips, hands, and fingernails, and feet and toenails; may last for a few hours and disappear with warming

c)

Bilateral edema or edema that is generalized over the whole body; consider a central problem such as heart failure or kidney failure

d)

Significant hair loss

95.

What is the meaning of circumscribed?

a)

Confined to a limited area

b)

Shape of lesions in which all the lesions run together.or are joined together. Ex: hives

c)

Discoloration of the skin typically caused by bruising

d)

Profuse perspiration, accompanies an increased metabolic rate such as occurs in heavy activity or fever

96.

Which of the following definitions best describe

Cherry (senile) angiomas?

a)

Small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults older than 30 years

b)

An abnormal rounded shape of the nail bed associated with some disorders i.e. cystic fibrosis, low blood oxygen, etc.

c)

Discoloration of the skin typically caused by bruising

d)

benign proliferation of blood vessels in the dermis

97.

Which of the following definitions best describe

excoriation?

a)

Small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults older than 30 years

b)

An abnormal rounded shape of the nail bed associated with some disorders i.e. cystic fibrosis, low blood oxygen, etc.

c)

Self-inflicted abrasion; superficial; sometimes crusted; scratches from intense itching.

d)

benign proliferation of blood vessels in the dermis

98.

Which of the following definitions best describe

ecchymosis?

a)

Small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults older than 30 years

b)

An abnormal rounded shape of the nail bed associated with some disorders i.e. cystic fibrosis, low blood oxygen, etc.

c)

Self-inflicted abrasion; superficial; sometimes crusted; scratches from intense itching.

d)

Discoloration of the skin typically caused by bruising

99.

Which of the following definitions best describe

hemangioma?

a)

Small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults older than 30 years

b)

An abnormal rounded shape of the nail bed associated with some disorders i.e. cystic fibrosis, low blood oxygen, etc.

c)

Discoloration of the skin typically caused by bruising

d)

benign proliferation of blood vessels in the dermis

100.

Which of the following definitions best describe

Xerostomia

a)

Small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults older than 30 years

b)

An abnormal rounded shape of the nail bed associated with some disorders i.e. cystic fibrosis, low blood oxygen, etc.

c)

Self-inflicted abrasion; superficial; sometimes crusted; scratches from intense itching.

d)

“Dry mouth” -side effect of many drugs such as antidepressants, anticholinergics, antispasmodics, antihypertensives, antipsychotics, and bronchodilators.

101.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term hypospadias?

a)

A congenital disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus opens on the ventral (under) side of the glans or shaft.

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

102.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term epispadias?

a)

A congenital disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus opens on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans or shaft above a broad. spade-like penis.

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

103.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term phimosis?

a)

A congenital disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus opens on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans or shaft above a broad. spade-like penis.

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

104.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term paraphimosis?

a)

A congenital disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus opens on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans or shaft above a broad. spade-like penis.

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that once retracted behind glans can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

105.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term priapism?

a)

A congenital disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus opens on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans or shaft above a broad. spade-like penis.

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that once retracted behind glans can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

106.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term Orchitis?

a)

A congenital disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus opens on the dorsal (upper) side of the glans or shaft above a broad. spade-like penis.

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that once retracted behind glans can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

107.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term Scrotal edema?

a)

Edema of the scrotal sac due to marked edema in the lower half of body. Occurs with local inflammation/epididymitis, torsion of spermatic cord

b)

Prolonged painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation

c)

Non-retractable foreskin

d)

A retracted and fixed foreskin that once retracted behind glans can't be returned to its original position

e)

Acute inflammation of the testis due most commonly to mumps but can be caused by any infection disease.

108.

Which of the following best describes the function of Montgomery glands?

a)

Sebaceous glands that secrete protective lipids during lactation

b)

Glandular tissues that produces milk

c)

Extra nipples that form along milk lines

d)

Central point of drainage of lymph from the breasts

109.

Which of the following statements about breasts is FALSE?

a)

Breasts are composed of adipose, glandular, and fibrous tissues.

b)

Breasts are one of the major female reproductive organs.

c)

Breasts contain a nipple, areola, and Montgomery glands.

d)

Breast tissue extends into the axillary area called the Tail of Spence.

110.

T or F - 75% of lymph drains on the ipsilateral (same) side of the body

a)

True

b)

False

111.

If a patient has had breast cancer or lymph node removal

a)

The nurse should notate it in the patient's chart.

b)

The nurse should avoid putting an IV and taking blood pressure in that arm

c)

The nurse should know the arm is subject to lymphedema

d)

The nurse should know the majority of lymph will drain in the opposite breast.

112.

Which of the following is the best description of a supernumerary nipple?

a)

Sebaceous glands that secrete protective lipids during lactation

b)

Glandular tissues that produces milk

c)

Extra nipples that form along ventral epidermal ridges (milk lines)

d)

Central point of drainage of lymph from the breasts

113.

Gynecomastia or breast enlargement in males, would be normal for which of the following

a)

A 12 year old boy going through puberty

b)

A 22 year male college student

c)

A 45 year old father who just had a vasectomy

d)

A 70 year old senior citizen

114.

Which of the Tanner stages of breast development is pictured below?

a)

Stage 1 - Preadolescent (flat chested)

b)

Stage 2 - Breast bud stage

c)

Stage 3 - .Breast and areola enlarge, nipple is flush with breast surface

d)

Stage 4 - Areola and nipple form a secondary mound over the breast

e)

Stage 5 - Mature breast

115.

Which of the Tanner stages of breast development is pictured below?

a)

Stage 1 - Preadolescent (flat chested)

b)

Stage 2 - Breast bud stage

c)

Stage 3 - .Breast and areola enlarge, nipple is flush with breast surface

d)

Stage 4 - Areola and nipple form a secondary mound over the breast

e)

Stage 5 - Mature breast

116.

Which of the following picture depict Tanner stage 3 of development

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
117.

Where are the majority of breast tumors found?

a)

Upper inner quadrant

b)

upper outer quadrant

c)

Lower inner quadrant

d)

Lower outer quadrant

118.

When educating a woman about Breast Self Exam (BSE) everything is the same except premenopausal women should

a)

Perform BSE after their menstrual period

b)

On the same day every month

c)

At least once a month

d)

Perform BSE before their menstrual period

119.

All of the following are normal finding during a Breast Self Exam (BSE) EXCEPT

a)

Slight size asymmetry or cyclic pain

b)

Inframammary ridge (firm transverse ridge of compressed tissue in lower quadrant)

c)

Non-recent nipple inversion

d)

deviation in nipple pointing

e)

Bilateral blue network of veins

120.

Which of the following underlying signs of a breast tumor is pictured below?

a)

Fixation

b)

Dimpling

c)

Peau d'Orange

d)

Deviation in nipple pointing

121.

Which of the following underlying signs of a breast tumor is pictured below?

a)

Fixation

b)

Dimpling

c)

Peau d'Orange

d)

Deviation in nipple pointing

122.

Which of the following underlying signs of a breast tumor is pictured below?

a)

Fixation

b)

Dimpling

c)

Peau d'Orange

d)

Deviation in nipple pointing

123.

A reducible hernia means

a)

contents of hernia will return to abdominal cavity by lying down or gentle pressure

b)

herniated bowel cannot be returned to abdominal cavity

c)

blood supply to hernia is cut off

d)

person will have nausea, vomiting, and tenderness

124.

A strangulated hernia means

a)

contents of hernia will return to abdominal cavity by lying down or gentle pressure

b)

herniated bowel cannot be returned to abdominal cavity

c)

blood supply to hernia is cut off

d)

person will have nausea, vomiting, and tenderness

125.

An incarcerated hernia means

a)

contents of hernia will return to abdominal cavity by lying down or gentle pressure

b)

herniated bowel cannot be returned to abdominal cavity

c)

blood supply to hernia is cut off

d)

person will have nausea, vomiting, and tenderness

126.

The most common of the hernia is the

a)

Indirect inguinal

b)

Direct inguinal

c)

Femoral

d)

All hernia occur equally

127.

An indirect inguinal hernia occurs when

a)

intestine passes internal inguinal ring into the canal or scrotum

b)

intestine passes behind and through external inguinal ring

c)

intestines pass through femoral ring and canal

d)

intestines break through a weakness in the stomach wall

128.

A(n) direct inguinal hernia occurs when

a)

intestine passes internal inguinal ring into the canal or scrotum

b)

intestine passes behind and through external inguinal ring

c)

intestines pass through femoral ring and canal

d)

intestines break through a weakness in the stomach wall

129.

A(n) femoral hernia occurs when

a)

intestine passes internal inguinal ring into the canal or scrotum

b)

intestine passes behind and through external inguinal ring

c)

intestines pass through femoral ring and canal

d)

intestines break through a weakness in the stomach wall

130.

Upon inspection, testes should be

a)

oval and firm

b)

rubbery and smooth

c)

equal bilaterally

d)

freely moveable and slightly tender to pressure

e)

non-moveable and not tender to pressure

131.

How should one assess for inguinal hernia

a)

Look for bulge as person stands or strains down. Have man shift weight to left side if inspecting right and vice versa

b)

Only inspect one side

132.

T or F - Scrotal sac size varies with ambient temperature, is asymmetrical with rugae and may have sebaceous cysts (firm, nontender, yellowish 1cm nodules)

a)

True

b)

False

133.

T or F - Left testicle hangs lower than right

a)

True - left testicle has longer spematic cord

b)

False - right testicle has longer spematic cord

134.

PSA is the test for prostate problems should

a)

drawn during the exam

b)

drawn after the exam

c)

drawn before the exam

135.

Stress incontinence is

a)

bladder leakage upon coughing or sneezing due to weakened pelvic floor

b)

frequent urge to use bathroon due overactive detrusor muscle

136.

Urge incontinence is

a)

bladder leakage upon coughing or sneezing due to weakened pelvic floor

b)

frequent urge to use bathroon due overactive detrusor muscle

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