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COMBINE QUES – INFECTION CONTROL

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following are agendas of the Hospital Infection Control and Antibiotic Committee (HIACC) meeting EXCEPT:

a)

Monitoring hand hygiene compliance

b)

Reporting incidence and prevalence of MDRO cases

c)

Evaluation of antibiotic usage and resistance pattern

d)

Assist in overall development of hospital financial management

2.

Clostridium difficile is able to survive longer in the environment compared to most bacteria because it produces:

a)

Enzymes

b)

Spores

c)

Gram-negative rods

d)

Gram-positive cocci

3.

Antimicrobial streamlining is one of the antimicrobial stewardship activities. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

Review antibiotics after one week of initiation

b)

Encourage dual antimicrobial therapy for all infections

c)

Discontinue empirical therapy if culture shows no evidence of infection

d)

De-escalation from narrow to broad spectrum antibiotics once culture results are ready

4.

The process that removes contamination by soil, organic matter, and some microorganisms is known as:

a)

Cleaning

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sterilization

d)

Autoclaving

5.

Which of the following is the best disinfectant used as an antiseptic?

a)

Isopropanol 60%

b)

Peracetic acid 1%

c)

Sodium hypochlorite 1:1000

d)

Formaldehyde

6.

Which parameter is used to calculate the infection rate?

a)

Total cases / total admissions

b)

Total isolates / total admissions

c)

Total cases + isolates / total admissions

d)

Total isolates – total cases / total admissions

7.

Surveillance is a component of infection control and is best defined as:

a)

Systematic, active ongoing data collection, analysis, interpretation, dissemination, and action

b)

Systematic, active ongoing data collection, interpretation, dissemination, analysis, and action

c)

Systematic data collection, ongoing dissemination, analysis, interpretation, and action

d)

Systematic data collection, dissemination, interpretation, analysis, and action

8.

Which of the following statements helps to improve quality in infection control practices?

a)

Review of the surveillance report is not compulsory

b)

Policies and guidelines must be reviewed from time to time

c)

Organize teaching programs only upon request

d)

Point prevalence surveillance should be done according to ICN convenience

9.

Which of the following antibiotics has the widest spectrum of activity?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Cefuroxime

d)

Aminoglycosides

10.

Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) producing organisms are resistant to cephalosporins and:

a)

Penicillin

b)

Monobactams

c)

Carbapenems

d)

Fluoroquinolones

11.

Adherence to strict regulations during transportation of potentially infectious particle materials will:

a)

Avoid legal prosecution

b)

Expedite the package delivery

c)

Limit total of specimen that can be sent in one time

d)

Reduce the exposures resulting in possible diseases

12.

Which method is the most widely used for assessing the drug sensitivity?

a)

Disc Diffusion

b)

Broth Dilution

c)

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

d)

Minimum Bacterial Concentration (MBC)

13.

What is Hul zone of inhibition? An area:

a)

Of the body where an antibiotic can kill bacteria

b)

On an agar plate where antibiotics are inhibited

c)

Of the body where bacteria are present in high numbers

d)

On an agar plate where bacteria don't grow because of an antibiotic

14.

Patient is diagnosed with a multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) in his surgical wound. What is the best statement below describing MDRO?

a)

There is more than one organism in the wound that is causing the infection

b)

The patient will need more than one type of antibiotic to kill the organism

c)

There are no longer any antibiotic options available to treat the patient's infection

d)

The organism has developed a resistance to two or more broad-spectrum antibiotic

15.

The best way to prevent the Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamase (ESBL) producing organism in Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) patients is to

a)

Review catheter necessity daily

b)

Optimize empiric antibiotic treatments

c)

Insert catheter under aseptic technique

d)

Avoid unnecessary catheterization among patients

16.

All the statements described on enterococci except

a)

Arranged in short chain

b)

Arranged in grape-like clusters

c)

Forms part of the normal flora in gut

d)

Usually causing colonization rather than infection

17.

Aspergillus species (spp) is

a)

Filamentous mould

b)

Prokaryotic mould

c)

Single-celled yeast

d)

Multicellular bacteria

18.

Which is the numerator data for Healthcare-Associated Infections (HCAI)?

a)

Total number of deaths

b)

Total number of discharges

c)

Total number patient on ventilator days

d)

Total number of patients with a symptom of diseases

19.

The rationale for prop-up to 30–45 degrees for patients with ventilators is to

a)

Impair patients' ventilation

b)

Increase the risk of pulmonary embolism

c)

Aid in ventilatory efforts and minimize atelectasis

d)

Increase incidence of stress ulceration in critical illness

20.

The best intervention at the infected insertion site of the central line is to

a)

Flush the catheter with saline

b)

Remove the catheter as soon as possible

c)

Apply the topical antibiotic to the infected site

d)

Use a chlorhexidine-impregnated sponge dressing

21.

Nosocomial bloodstream infections are preventable and highly lethal. The best improvement intervention is to

a)

Change the insertion line weekly

b)

Prescribe the broad-spectrum antibiotics

c)

Assess daily whether line could be removed

d)

Assign the dedicated staff to nurse the patients

22.

The best personal protective equipment (PPE) to apply during sample collection in COVID-19 are

a)

Medical gloves, N95 masks, face shield or goggles

b)

Medical gloves, surgical masks, face shield or goggles

c)

Medical gloves, surgical masks, face shield or goggles, and gown or coverall

d)

Medical gloves, N95 masks, face shield or goggles, and gown or coverall

23.

Which one of the following statements is one of the purposes of studying epidemiology

a)

Study to improve establishing policies making in health care system to seek treatment and prevention

b)

Study to in‑hance organization potential in produce new product among debilitated patient to seek treatment and prevention

c)

Study of the factors determining the occurrence of diseases in human populations, modes of acquisition and spread to seek treatment, prevention

24.

What is required in the working environment upon handling the risk group 4 microorganism?

a)

Open bench

b)

Full isolation suits

c)

Class 3 biosafety cabinet

d)

Biosafety cabinet / laminar flow hood

25.

Ebola virus, Marburg virus, and Lassa virus are risk group 4 organisms. Samples for this type of virus need extra care in packaging. What is the packaging for specimen samples of risk group 4 microorganisms?

a)

The triple packaging system continues to apply

b)

Single packaging and keep at room temperature

c)

Double packaging and keep in a polystyrene box

d)

The triple packaging system is not compulsory

26.

The following statement is true regarding the disk diffusion test function we should test routinely for antibiotic sensitivity testing, except

a)

No more than 2 potential pathogens from a culture

b)

Pathogens with unpredictable susceptibility patterns

c)

Some special organism/body site considerations

d)

Pathogens with predictable susceptibility patterns

27.

The purpose of monitoring multidrug resistance organism (MDRO) trends is to detect

a)

The emerging of new organism

b)

The clustering of infections in new area

c)

Noncompliance to infection control policies

d)

The change in the resistant pattern of organism

28.

What are the criteria taken into consideration when isolating patients with MDRO?

a)

Patient can be isolated in standard isolation or a negative pressure room

b)

Patient isolated in a single isolation positive-pressure or contact isolation room

c)

Patient can be isolated or cohorted with other infected patients with different microorganisms

d)

Patient can be isolated in a contact isolation room or cohorted with other infected patients with the same microorganism

29.

Wounds infected with MRSA will affect the process of healing. What is the crucial management of wounds with MRSA infection?

a)

Clean wound with normal saline and apply mupirocin 2%

b)

Apply mupirocin 2% on patient’s nasal area and daily bathing with soap

c)

Clean wound with normal saline and daily bathing with chlorhexidine 4%

d)

Clean wound with sterile water and daily bathing with chlorhexidine 4%

30.

Hepatitis B is one of the common infections that easily transmits among HCW. Which of the following is an intervention to prevent infection of Hepatitis B?

a)

Administration of immunoglobulin to all HCW

b)

Administration of antiviral prophylaxis

c)

Prevent incidents of needle-stick injury

d)

Use double gloves at all times

31.

What is a systemic manifestation of catheter-related CRBSI?

a)

Symptoms and signs of bacteremia such as developing chills or fever and positive blood culture and growth of the same organism from the catheter

b)

Symptoms and signs of bacteremia such as developing chills or fever, pain, and positive blood culture and growth of the same organism from the catheter

c)

Symptoms and signs of bacteremia such as developing chills or fever, tenderness, and positive blood culture and growth of the same organism from the catheter

d)

Symptoms and signs of bacteremia such as developing chills or fever, redness, and positive blood culture and growth of the same organism from the catheter

32.

The most common mode of transmission for SARS and avian influenza is

a)

Droplet

b)

Airborne

c)

Direct contact

d)

Contaminated water

33.

Which one of the following is the correct process of triaging and practice in primary care facilities?

a)

At the triage counter, identify a patient with symptoms of influenza-like illness and isolate the patient; no need to wear a 3‑ply mask

b)

At the triage counter, identify a patient with symptoms of influenza-like illness and seat with other patients but maintain separation of 3 meters

c)

At the triage counter, identify a patient with symptoms of influenza-like illness and put on a 3‑ply mask so that he/she can sit with others

d)

At the triage counter, identify a patient with symptoms of influenza-like illness, put on a 3‑ply mask, and isolate the patient with seating arranged one meter from each other

34.

What action should be taken when an outbreak of MDRO occurs in a critical care unit?

a)

Strictly no visitors are allowed

b)

Encourage use of PPE at all times

c)

Encourage strict adherence to contact precautions

d)

Use high-level disinfectant for environmental cleaning

35.

Which statement is correct regarding vaccination against respiratory pathogens?

a)

Recommended for all patients

b)

Need booster dose after five years

c)

Produces bronchodilation and improves oxygenation

d)

Helps to prevent severe respiratory diseases and complications in susceptible patients

36.

A diabetes patient is undergoing below-knee amputation. What preoperative intervention is needed to prevent the risk of surgical site infection (SSI)?

a)

Optimize blood glucose level

b)

Shorten the duration of the operation

c)

Apply sterile technique in wound dressing

d)

Administer antibiotic prophylaxis 5 minutes before incision

37.

The following are true regarding the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), except

a)

Implementation of ventilator care bundle

b)

Monitoring preoperatively of patients in the ward for 2 weeks prior to surgery

c)

Do not routinely change the ventilator breathing circuit on the basis of duration of use

d)

Change gloves between contact with the contaminated body site and the respiratory tract of the same patient

38.

Intermittent bladder drainage is performed as an intervention for a mother in labour. Noncompliance with the aseptic technique can cause the mother to present with UTI later. This condition describes

a)

A co-infection

b)

A chronic infection

c)

Opportunistic infection

d)

Healthcare-associated infection

39.

Primary bloodstream infections (BSI) are defined as

a)

Demonstrated by negative blood culture results

b)

Elicited only by one inflammatory response characterized clinically

c)

Positive organism cultured from blood is related to an infection at another site

d)

Organism cultured from blood that is not related to an infection at another body site

40.

In monitoring surgical asepsis, nurses are required to

a)

Clean the wound from the outer edge to the center of the wound

b)

Consider the outer 1 inch of the sterile fields as contaminated

c)

Remove soiled dressing with sterile gloves, then continue dressing

d)

Cover the nose and mouth with gloved hands if a sneeze is imminent

41.

Which of the following statements is the correct practice for blood and body fluid isolation?

a)

Isolation gowns are not needed

b)

A single isolation room is always indicated

c)

A mask should be worn when in contact with the patient

d)

Gloves should be worn for contact with non-intact skin

42.

PPE is one of the elements of standard precautions. Implementation of PPE includes all of the following except

a)

Use sterile gowns if clothing is likely to be soiled.

b)

protective eyewear during procedures of suctioning.

c)

wear mask within 3 feet of patient on droplet precaution.

d)

use of gloves when possible contact with blood or body fluid.

43.

Hand hygiene is one of the best methods to prevent Healthcare-Associated Infections (HAIs). It is to remove

a)

visible soil only.

b)

resident flora on the skin.

c)

transient flora on the skin.

d)

all microorganisms on the skin.

44.

Patients should be placed in the negative pressure room. The healthcare worker (HCW) must wear N95 mask. The above statement refer to

a)

droplet precautions.

b)

contact precautions.

c)

airborne precautions.

d)

standard precautions.

45.

The purpose of applying disinfectant before intravenous cannulation is to

a)

destroy all microorganism on the skin.

b)

eradicate certain microorganism on the skin

c)

reduce the number of microorganisms on the skin.

d)

remove the organic matter and microorganism on the skin.

46.

Device that enters sterile tissue refer to

a)

critical instrument.

b)

standard instrument.

c)

non-critical instrument.

d)

semi-critical instrument.

47.

The purpose does not open the chamber door of autoclave machine until the temperature below 60°C is to

a)

Avoid being contaminated by microorganisms from outside.

b)

ensure all glass wares perfectly dry before remove it from the oven.

c)

ensure all equipment is perfectly sterile and free from microorganisms.

d)

Avoid the glassware from cracking due to sudden admission of cold air.

48.

Reprocessing of endoscopes need to

a)

perform pre cleaning by flushing all channels by 70% isopropyl alcohol.

b)

store semi critical endoscope by coiling it and placed in individual cases.

c)

monitor the efficacy of disinfectant before each use using bacterial culture technique.

d)

flush and brush all channels and lumens while it is submerged in the water to minimize aerosols.

49.

Segregation of clinical waste is considered safe if

a)

sharp items dispose into the yellow container.

b)

clinical items dispose into the general waste bin.

c)

broken glassware disposes into a puncture proof container.

d)

pathological waste autoclaved before discard into the yellow bag.

50.

Which of the following is used to classify micro-organisms based on their cell wall composition?

a)

Gram stain

b)

Albert’s stain

c)

Haematoxylin

d)

Indian ink stain

51.

The ______ glove is most appropriate when performing oral care for a patient suspected of having an infectious respiratory disease.

a)

Sterile surgical glove

b)

Heavy-duty utility glove

c)

Vinyl sterile glove

d)

Non-sterile examination glove

52.

Which statement is correct regarding usage of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a)

Isolation gown is optional for contact precautions

b)

N95 masks are preferred for reuse

c)

Disposable plastic aprons must be changed between patients

d)

Sterile gloves are preferred for all procedures

53.

A healthcare worker has failed the N95 fit test but must perform aerosol-generating procedures. The appropriate PPE is:

a)

KN95 mask

b)

Double surgical mask

c)

Surgical mask with face shield

d)

Powered Air-Purifying Respirator (PAPR)

54.

The main purpose of conducting an Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA) before renovation is to:

a)

Estimate construction cost

b)

Schedule staff shifts

c)

Minimize biological threats through hazard control

d)

Plan interior design

55.

Environmental sampling reveals persistent contamination from ventilator circuits. What is the FIRST action?

a)

Deep clean patient rooms

b)

Environmental air sampling

c)

Re-audit ventilator reprocessing protocol

d)

Conduct water sampling

56.

Which ventilation parameters must be verified before air sampling in an operation theatre?

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and IV (air particle & pressure diff between rooms)

d)

III and IV

57.

Rising MDRO Acinetobacter baumannii cases in ICU despite good hygiene suggest sampling of:

a)

High-touch surfaces

b)

Air for fungal spores

c)

Staff hands

d)

Ventilator circuit

58.

Colour-coded cleaning equipment is used primarily to:

a)

Indicate cleaning frequency

b)

Facilitate housekeeping work

c)

Match hospital departments

d)

Minimize cross-contamination

59.

Food kept at room temperature for over three hours mainly increases risk of:

a)

Policy violation

b)

Reduced palatability

c)

Allergic reactions

d)

Bacterial growth

60.

Correct clinical waste disposal practice is to:

a)

Sort waste later

b)

Transport with general waste

c)

Dispose via city council

d)

Segregate at point of care

61.

Best method to dispose a used needle after blood taking is to:

a)

Recap needle

b)

Break needle

c)

Dispose in biohazard bag

d)

Discard into puncture-resistant container

62.

Infection consistently occurring in a population is termed as:

a)

Sporadic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Pandemic

d)

Endemic

63.

Standard precautions include:

a)

Mask and recapping needles

b)

Spraying disinfectant

c)

Alcohol rub on visibly soiled hands

d)

PPE when contact with body fluids

64.

Air sampling in renovated OT shows 60 CFU/m^3. Action required is to:

a)

Allow OT use

b)

Change HEPA filter

c)

Repeat immediately

d)

Repeat after thorough cleaning

65.

Test giving immediate result for HEPA filter efficiency is:

a)

Air sampling

b)

Agar settle plate

c)

Table swab

d)

Air particle count

66.

Correct sequence for reprocessing flexible endoscope is:

a)

Manual cleaning → pre-cleaning → leak test

b)

Pre-cleaning → leak test → manual cleaning

c)

Leak test → disinfection → cleaning

d)

Disinfection → storage

67.

Most appropriate method to process heat-sensitive items is:

a)

Steam sterilization

b)

Ultrasonic sterilization

c)

Gamma irradiation

d)

High-level disinfection

68.

Which is NOT a step in ICRA risk assessment?

a)

Identify patient risk groups

b)

Identify construction activity

c)

Match activity with risk group

d)

List activities without matrix

69.

PAPR is best described as:

a)

Tight-fitting respirator

b)

Disposable barrier

c)

Positive pressure respiratory protection

d)

Splash-resistant mask

70.

Hand rub is NOT required when:

a)

After body fluid exposure

b)

Before touching patient

c)

Handling sealed specimen bottle

d)

After patient contact

71.

Non-discrimination of patients based on race reflects which ethical principle?

a)

Non-maleficence

b)

Justice

c)

Autonomy

d)

Beneficence

72.

Poor hand hygiene compliance by a nurse breaches which ethical principle?

a)

Justice

b)

Autonomy

c)

Non-maleficence

d)

Fidelity

73.

A patient deciding whether to undergo cleft palate surgery demonstrates:

a)

Beneficence

b)

Justice

c)

Autonomy

d)

Non-maleficence

74.

Which situation best demonstrates the ethical principle of justice in nursing?

a)

Respecting refusal of blood transfusion

b)

Maintaining confidentiality

c)

Explaining procedure before consent

d)

Providing equal wound care regardless of social status

75.

Which activity best represents a Quality Improvement initiative in IPC?

a)

Giving antibiotics to all postoperative patients

b)

Isolating all admitted patients

c)

Auditing hand hygiene compliance and providing feedback

d)

Recording vital signs every shift

76.

Arrange the correct sequence of the five stages of clinical audit in IPC.

a)

Select → Measure → Plan → Improve → Sustain

b)

Measure → Plan → Select → Improve → Sustain

c)

Plan → Measure → Select → Improve → Sustain

d)

Plan → Select → Measure → Improve → Sustain

77.

Which statement refers to an IPC quality assurance programme?

a)

Monitoring based on auditor convenience

b)

Procedures must be standardized

c)

Budget preparation for awareness programmes

d)

Disease information dissemination

78.

Which is the best statement about quality assurance in IPC?

a)

Follow obsolete guidelines

b)

Submit reports only to state director

c)

All procedures must follow policies and guidelines

d)

Awareness once yearly only

79.

What is the correct action during transport of a patient on droplet precautions?

a)

Apply N95 mask to patient

b)

Full PPE to patient

c)

Inform receiving department and place surgical mask on patient

d)

Notify physician only

80.

Which situation indicates a need for further staff training?

a)

Using hand rub after glove removal

b)

Placing MRSA patient at corner of ward

c)

Proper disinfection of laryngoscope

d)

Wearing gloves during bed making

81.

ICLP involvement in reporting sharp injuries belongs to which role?

a)

Coordinator

b)

Surveillance

c)

Administrative

d)

Clinical duties

82.

Chairman of the District Infection & Antibiotic Control Committee is responsible to:

a)

Supervise standard precautions

b)

Participate in campaigns

c)

Ascertain clinical significance of lab results for outbreaks

d)

Provide opinions only

83.

The role of ICLP in internal audit activities is to:

a)

Ensure compliance and share results

b)

Confirm outbreaks

c)

Prepare budget reports

d)

Identify improvement opportunities and promote best practices

84.

Which statement regarding HIACC meetings is NOT true?

a)

Meetings held at least twice a year

b)

Minutes distributed to members

c)

Hospital Director must be chairman

d)

Director provides secretarial support

85.

Who should be appointed as Head of Public Health Team?

a)

Senior pharmacist

b)

Family Medicine Specialist

c)

Deputy State Health Director

d)

Occupational Safety Officer

86.

Who is the most appropriate secretariat for HIACC?

a)

Pharmacist

b)

Infection Control Unit

c)

Medical microbiologist

d)

Infection Control Coordinator

87.

Which agenda should be included in SIACC meeting?

a)

All microorganisms surveillance

b)

MDRO, HCAI, antibiotic utilization and PTB among HCWs

c)

Chicken pox surveillance only

d)

Sharp injury only

88.

Immunity is defined as the ability of the body to resist:

a)

Antibody

b)

Immune system

c)

Infection

d)

Immunization

89.

Why are guidelines important in IPC programmes?

a)

Reduce hospital bills

b)

Insurance recommendations

c)

Prevent human error and poor communication

d)

Diagnostic tools

90.

Which infection can be managed using standard precautions alone?

a)

VRE

b)

MRSA

c)

ESBL

d)

Coagulase-negative staphylococcus

91.

A hospital experiences difficulty enforcing infection control policies because committee decisions are often ignored. Which improvement would most effectively strengthen the committee’s function?

a)

Ensuring committee members have decision-making authority

b)

Scheduling more frequent committee meetings

c)

Assigning infection control duties to administrative officers

d)

Delegating all infection control matters to one clinician

92.

An Infection and Antibiotic Control Team identifies repeated non-compliance in clinical waste management. What is the most appropriate escalation pathway?

a)

Table the issue at the district-level committee meeting

b)

Report directly to the state-level committee

c)

Submit a formal complaint without discussion

d)

Resolve the issue internally without external reporting

93.

If the HIACC chairman is unable to attend a scheduled meeting, which action reflects proper governance practice?

a)

Appoint a representative authorised by the chairman to chair

b)

Cancel the meeting until the chairman is available

c)

Appoint the hospital engineer as an interim chair

d)

Allow the Infection Control Unit to chair the meeting

94.

Low hand hygiene compliance is reported across several clinics within a district. What should be the committee’s first course of action?

a)

Conduct an assessment and provide guidance before interventions

b)

Refer the matter immediately to the state committee

c)

Transfer responsibility to the nearest hospital

d)

Impose penalties on non-compliant clinics

95.

A district committee finds insufficient funding for an IPC training programme. Which action aligns best with its responsibilities?

a)

Plan the programme and apply for financial allocation

b)

Instruct each clinic to self-fund the training

c)

Request the state committee to manage funding

d)

Suspend the programme until funding is provided

96.

A suspected ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) case is detected in the ICU. Who is primarily responsible for initiating investigation and control measures?

a)

Infection Control Doctor (ICD)

b)

Infection Control Nurse (ICN)

c)

ICU Ward Manager

d)

Infection Control Link Nurse (ICLN)

97.

Which sequence best represents the appropriate flow of responsibility following a sharp-injury incident in a surgical ward?

a)

ICLN manages immediately → ICN monitors data → ICD reports to HIACC

b)

ICLN reports to NIACC → ICN escalates → ICD informs director

c)

ICD treats → ICN records → ICLN supervises

d)

ICN manages immediately → ICLN educates → ICD monitors

98.

During ward rounds, several staff members fail to perform hand hygiene after patient contact. Who should address and correct this issue immediately at ward level?

a)

Infection Control Link Nurse

b)

Ward Manager

c)

Infection Control Nurse

d)

Head of Department

99.

According to the Quality Assurance Programme (QAP), how is “quality” in healthcare best defined?

a)

Meeting established standards that ensure client satisfaction

b)

Delivery of services at the lowest cost

c)

Attractive design of healthcare facilities

d)

Use of advanced medical technology

100.

Which of the following is an example of a process indicator in quality assessment?

a)

Percentage of patients treated within a specified time

b)

Number of doctors employed

c)

Duration of hospital construction

d)

Annual healthcare budget

101.

The following statements are the role of Public Health Infection and Antibiotic Control Committee (PHIACC) Chairman, except:

a)

Facilitate HIACC correspondence

b)

Review and approve HIACC output

c)

Provide a platform in planning and implementation of activities

d)

Lead the hospital-level IPC and antibiotic control activities

102.

The role of HIACC chairman is:

a)

Treat all patients in the area with prophylaxis antibiotic

b)

Ensure healthcare workers wear PPE at all times

c)

Isolate patient according to site of infection

d)

Isolate patient according to the transmission base

103.

How would you as ICN control an alert organism from spreading to others?

a)

Conduct and manage an outbreak report

b)

Manage and keep infection control data

c)

Ensure all staff adhere to IPC practices

d)

Coordinate infection control activity such as audit

104.

What is the role of link personnel in primary healthcare?

a)

Monitoring knowledge and skill as scheduled

b)

Evaluating an individual outcome

c)

Correcting a system’s problem that has been identified

d)

Redesigning the organizational structures of an institution

105.

Below, which statement best describes Quality improvement in IPC?

a)

Monitoring knowledge and skill as scheduled

b)

Evaluating an individual outcome

c)

Correcting a system’s problem that has been identified

d)

Redesigning the organizational structures of an institution

106.

The main role of HIACC at hospital level is to:

a)

Perform infection control surveillance for the hospital

b)

Develop policies and procedures of infection control for the state

c)

Advise the hospital director on technical matters related to infection control

d)

Participate in informal and formal teaching programmes for all healthcare workers

107.

What is the role of hospital management in achieving the Hospital Infection and Antibiotic Control Committee (HIACC) programme?

a)

Credential all staff as infection control nurses upon completion of stated credit hours

b)

Develop policies and procedures of infection control for state usage

c)

Give full commitment and support to organize HIACC programme

d)

Give special allowance to those who initiate successful programme

108.

What is the role and responsibility of the Infection Control Link Nurse in the ward in the aspect of practice and monitoring?

a)

Doctors’ and nurses’ adherence to aseptic technique

b)

Family members doing their hand hygiene during visiting hours

c)

Healthcare workers wearing their gown while doing all procedures

d)

Immunity level of all healthcare workers in all departments

109.

What is the purpose of a healthcare-associated infection (HCAI) audit?

a)

Rate the hospital’s expenditure in controlling infectious diseases

b)

Decide a punitive way when implementation of policy is violated

c)

Assess the employees’ level of response towards commensal organisms

d)

Check on compliance of prevention and control practice

110.

What are the elements of negligence?

a)

Duty, breach of duty, beneficence and justice

b)

Duty, breach of duty, causation and damage

c)

Autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence and justice

d)

Autonomy, non-maleficence, causation and damage

111.

A nurse ignores hospital policy and does not wear gloves when handling a wound. Which element of negligence is this?

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of duty

c)

Causation

d)

Damage

112.

A patient develops sepsis and requires ICU admission after exposure to contaminated equipment. This outcome represents which element?

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of duty

c)

Causation

d)

Damage