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Phlebotomy Knowledge Quiz

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How can a phlebotomist display professional behavior in a facility?

a)

Talking loudly in the patient's room.

b)

Following dress code and HIPAA privacy regulations.

c)

Sharing patient test results with friends outside of work.

d)

Avoiding hand hygiene when pressed for time.

2.

Which statement is correct regarding procedures in reverse isolation areas?

a)

Only patients must wear masks.

b)

Reverse isolation only applies to surgical patients.

c)

No PPE is needed because these patients are not contagious.

d)

Phlebotomists must wear protective equipment to prevent bringing infections into the patient's environment.

3.

A phlebotomist performs an arterial draw without training, resulting in a nerve injury. What has been committed?

a)

Assault

b)

Defamation

c)

Fraud

d)

Negligence

4.

When obtaining consent for HIV screening, which of the following must be done?

a)

Obtain informed consent and explain the test and its confidentiality.

b)

Test without the patient knowing for public safety.

c)

Charge the patient a fee first.

d)

Make sure the provider's family agrees.

5.

Which of the following is NOT true of PPE in a medical setting as specified by OSHA?

a)

Gloves must be changed between patients.

b)

Gloves must be fluid-resistant.

c)

Eye protection is optional regardless of exposure risk.

d)

Masks must cover the mouth and nose.

6.

Alcohol-based disinfectant is NOT recommended for contact with which organism?

a)

Hepatitis B virus

b)

HIV

c)

C. diff

d)

Influenza

7.

Bloodborne pathogens may be transmitted through which exposure mode?

a)

Contact with mucous membranes, non-intact skin, or percutaneous injury.

b)

Sharing food and drinks.

c)

Casual touching or hugging.

d)

Being in the same room.

8.

What is the first action a phlebotomist should take immediately after a needlestick injury?

a)

Finish the blood draw before reporting.

b)

Wash the area with soap and water and then report it to a supervisor.

c)

Apply a bandage and continue working.

d)

Ignore it if there is no visible blood.

9.

What should a phlebotomist do before discarding a used needle?

a)

Recap the needle.

b)

Replace it in a puncture-proof sharps container immediately without recapping.

c)

Dispose of it in a regular trash bin.

d)

Cut it with needle scissors.

10.

Which artery is a common site for arterial blood extraction in the inguinal canal?

a)

Brachial artery

b)

Femoral artery

c)

Radial artery

d)

Popliteal artery

11.

Body systems are made up of organs performing interrelated functions. An example is:

a)

Digestive system

b)

Red blood cell system

c)

Neuron system

d)

Platelet system

12.

Which vessels carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the tissues?

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Lymph vessels

d)

Capillaries only

13.

What is the function of the pulmonary vein?

a)

Carry oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.

b)

Carry deoxygenated blood from the body to lungs.

c)

Carry blood to the liver.

d)

Carry blood to the brain.

14.

Where is the basilic vein located?

a)

On the thumb side.

b)

Near the center of the arm.

c)

In the wrist.

d)

On the pinky side.

15.

What does the term 'bifurcation' mean?

a)

A type of collection needle.

b)

The splitting of a vessel into two branches.

c)

A blood clot.

d)

A vein used for venipuncture.

16.

The prefix 'phlebo' refers to:

a)

Artery

b)

Nerve

c)

Vein

d)

Blood cell

17.

What is the primary function of plasma in the blood?

a)

Transport nutrients, hormones, and waste products.

b)

Help form blood clots.

c)

Carry oxygen to tissues.

d)

Fight infections.

18.

What is the anticubital fossa?

a)

The inner bend of the elbow.

b)

A muscle near the wrist.

c)

The outer bend of the elbow.

d)

A bone in the forearm.

19.

How should you determine an irregular pulse rate?

a)

Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4.

b)

Use an automated machine.

c)

Count for 10 seconds and multiply by 6.

d)

Count for a full 60 seconds.

20.

Which information is NOT typically found on a requisition form?

a)

Patient’s name and DOB.

b)

The test to be performed.

c)

Patient's address and Social Security number.

d)

The ordering physician’s information.

21.

How long can a tourniquet be allowed to compress a vein?

a)

2 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

3 minutes

d)

30 seconds

22.

How can a vein be properly palpated?

a)

Tap the vein with force.

b)

Feel for its pulse with your middle finger.

c)

Stroke the area vigorously after cleaning.

d)

Feel for its bounce and resilience with your index finger.

23.

If both arms have no accessible median cubital veins, the second choice is:

a)

Femoral vein

b)

Basilic vein

c)

Brachial artery

d)

Dorsal veins of the hand

24.

What is the correct needle angle for venipuncture?

a)

45 to 60 degrees

b)

90 degrees

c)

15 to 30 degrees

d)

60 to 90 degrees

25.

When should you invert evacuated tubes with additives?

a)

Immediately after filling.

b)

After centrifuge.

c)

Before labeling.

d)

Once they arrive in the lab.

26.

You arrive at a sleeping patient’s room. What is the appropriate action?

a)

Ask the nurse to draw blood.

b)

Draw blood without waking her.

c)

Wait outside for an hour.

d)

Gently wake her and verify identity.

27.

Why is the median cubital vein preferred for routine venipuncture?

a)

It is closest to the artery.

b)

It is large, well-anchored, and less painful.

c)

It is the most difficult to feel.

d)

It is very deep.

28.

What should be instructed to a patient for a fasting blood glucose test?

a)

Do not eat or drink anything except water for 8 to 12 hours.

b)

Eat normally before the test.

c)

Avoid water and food for 24 hours.

d)

Drink orange juice an hour before.

29.

Which specimen requires strict chain of custody documentation?

a)

Blood culture

b)

HIV test

c)

Drug screen

d)

Glucose test

30.

An expired collection tube causes which of the following problems?

a)

Loss of vacuum and incomplete draw

b)

Increase contamination

c)

Increased RBC count

d)

Rapid clot formation

31.

Which of the following stages of hemostasis is evaluated by bleeding time?

a)

Vascular spasm

b)

Fibrinolysis

c)

Platelet plug formation

d)

Coagulation cascade

32.

Which of the following is the maximum time to centrifuge a coagulation assay specimen after receiving it?

a)

Within 1 hour

b)

Within 2 hours

c)

Within 4 hours

d)

Within 24 hours

33.

Your patient appears pale, cold, and clammy while you are about to perform venipuncture. Which adverse reaction may develop?

a)

Syncope

b)

Hypertension

c)

Fever

d)

Nausea only

34.

As a phlebotomist, how can you prevent a hematoma from forming?

a)

Insert the needle slowly at a 90° angle.

b)

Apply firm pressure to the site after needle removal.

c)

Do not release the tourniquet.

d)

Avoid holding the gauze over the puncture site.

35.

A patient has ecchymosis at the venipuncture site. What does this mean?

a)

Excessive bleeding from an artery

b)

Blood leaking into the collection tube

c)

Blood clot inside the vein

d)

Blood leaking into tissues under the skin

36.

Which technical error most commonly leads to hemolysis?

a)

Gently inverting the tube after draw

b)

Using a too small needle gauge or drawing too quickly

c)

Labeling the tube properly

d)

Cleaning the puncture site with alcohol

37.

What is the function of the pulmonary vein?

a)

Carry oxygenated blood from lungs to heart

b)

Carry deoxygenated blood from the body to lungs

c)

Carry blood to the liver

d)

Carry blood to the brain

38.

What gauge needle is commonly used for routine venipuncture?

a)

16

b)

18

c)

21

d)

27

39.

What does CLSI stand for?

a)

Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute

b)

Certified Lab Science Instructor

c)

Clinical Licensing Standards Institute

d)

Clinical Lab Safety Investigations

40.

A phlebotomist needs to draw blood from a patient who has an IV in the left arm. What should they do?

a)

Draw blood from above the IV site.

b)

Use the same arm below the IV site without notifying the nurse.

c)

Ask the nurse to turn off the IV and draw above the site.

d)

Use the right arm or another site if available.

41.

True or False: The basilic vein is typically the first choice for a venipuncture.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

To minimize contamination during blood culture collection, the phlebotomist should:

a)

Collect the specimen after the other tubes.

b)

Clean the site with alcohol only.

c)

Avoid touching the site after antisepsis.

d)

Collect from an existing IV line.

43.

What is an appropriate response if a patient asks what tests are being drawn?

a)

I don't know.

b)

Ask your nurse or doctor.

c)

Let me show you your chart.

d)

I can tell you which tests are ordered.

44.

What does hemoconcentration refer to?

a)

A decrease in red blood cells

b)

The clumping of platelets

c)

A decrease in plasma volume

d)

An infection in the bloodstream

45.

True or False: Sclerosis refers to the hardening of the vein wall.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Lumen is best described as:

a)

The outer wall of a vein.

b)

A type of antiseptic.

c)

The hollow inside of a needle or vessel.

d)

The clotting factor in plasma.

47.

Under what circumstances is it acceptable to draw blood from a foot or ankle vein?

a)

When the arm veins are difficult to locate

b)

Only with a physician's written order

c)

Anytime the patient prefers it

d)

When drawing a fasting glucose test

48.

What is the purpose of the bevel on a needle?

a)

It prevents clots.

b)

It increases pain.

c)

It aids in vein penetration.

d)

It stops bleeding.

49.

The term "patency" refers to:

a)

How thick the blood is

b)

The hardness of the vein

c)

The strength of the pulsation

d)

The openness or unobstructed state of the vein

50.

How long should pressure be applied to the venipuncture site after drawing blood?

a)

5 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

50 seconds

d)

Until the bleeding has been controlled

51.

Which condition can increase a patient's risk of prolonged bleeding after venipuncture?

a)

Liver disease and low platelet count

b)

Hypertension and asthma

c)

Arthritis and anemia

d)

Obesity and dehydration