Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

final course EXAM part1

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

WHICH of these life insurance policies is referred to as an "unbundled" contract?

a)

Interest sensitive life

b)

Term life

c)

Universal life

d)

Whole life

2.

David purchased an indexed annuity with a participation rate of 80 percent. The index grew by $10,000. How much will David's account increase?

a)

10000

b)

2000

c)

8000

d)

9000

3.

What are the parties to an annuity contract?

a)

The annuitant, the beneficiary, the annuity owner, and the issuer

b)

The annuitant, the insured, and the estate of the annuitant

c)

The insurance company, the insured, and the annuitant

d)

There are only two parties to an annuity: the annuitant and the insurance company

4.

An insured owns an Option Two, or Option B Universal Life policy, with a face amount of 500,000andacashvalueaccumulationof500,000 and a cash value accumulation of 200,000. WHAT is the death benefit of this policy?

a)

200000

b)

300000

c)

500000

d)

700000

5.

WHAT kind of term insurance policy starts out with a higher amount of coverage and then will lessen over time and end up at zero coverage?

a)

Level term insurance

b)

Increasing term insurance

c)

A decreasing term policy

d)

A Universal Life insurance Option A policy

6.

Candice buys a policy that insured her and her husband, but will not pay the death benefit until they both die. WHAT policy did Candice buy?

a)

A Survivorship, or Joint and Survivor policy

b)

A Joint Life policy

c)

A family term insurance policy

d)

Corridor insurance

7.

What are the potential problems associated with a variable annuity?

a)

The guaranteed rate paid on the cash value could decrease

b)

There are no problems related to variable annuities, as they are guaranteed to grow in value

c)

The buyer is not familiar with investment markets and makes poor investment choices

d)

The annuity could lose its cash value if the separate account decreases in value

8.

Life insurance policies that cover more than one person and pay the death benefit when the first insured dies are:

a)

Dual insured policies

b)

Universal life insurance

c)

Joint and Survivor life insurance

d)

Joint life policies

9.

All of the following are premium payment methods for whole life insurance EXCEPT:

a)

Monthly electronic funds transfer from a bank account

b)

Life paid up at 125

c)

Single premium

d)

Limited payment and continuous payment premiums

10.

WHAT is considered adjustable in a Universal Life insurance policy?

a)

The death benefit

b)

The premium

c)

The interest rate payable to the cash value

d)

The endowment age

11.

If a person has a convertible term policy, WHICH of these statements would be correct?

a)

Universal life may be converted to term insurance

b)

Only permanent insurance policies allow conversion

c)

Conversion requires health proof and can be converted to any other kind of life insurance policy

d)

Conversion is without proof of health, and the policy changes to a permanent policy

12.

WHICH receipt provides coverage either on the date of application or at completion of any required medical exam if the insured is subsequently insurable?

a)

The approval receipt

b)

The insurability receipt, which is a conditional receipt

c)

A proof of purchase receipt

d)

An unconditional receipt

13.

An insurance policy is a contract between:

a)

The insured and the carrier

b)

The insurance company and the policyowner

c)

The insurance company and the claims department

d)

The insurance company, the insured, and all financial institutions who hold loans with the insured

14.

A contract in which only one party makes any promises is known as a:

a)

Bilateral contract

b)

Unilateral contract

c)

Aleatory contract

d)

Adhesive contract

15.

WHAT rule states that any ambiguities in a contract of adhesion are ruled against the party that had the contract drawn up?

a)

Rule of insurable interest

b)

Rule of seven

c)

Rule of valued contracts

d)

Rule of strict construction

16.

WHAT source of information is used by insurers to check medical issues and to prevent fraud?

a)

Personal interviews with persons who know the insured

b)

HIPAA

c)

The Medical Information Bureau

d)

Credit reports

17.

If a person wants to know the scope and nature of a credit inquiry, the information must be provided within HOW many days of the request?

a)

Three days

b)

14 days

c)

Five days

d)

30 days

18.

When an insurer delegates the authority to deliver a policy to another person, say the agent, and the insurer has relinquished that authority, that is known as:

a)

Policy acceptance authority

b)

Actual policy delivery

c)

Transfer of Authority

d)

Constructive delivery of the policy

19.

Information that would have altered an issuance decision if the insurer had received the correct information is referred to as WHAT?

a)

An immaterial misrepresentation

b)

A material misrepresentation

c)

An error and omission

d)

This is, without question, fraud

20.

WHICH of the following statements would best define insurable interest?

a)

Insurable interest is required in order to have a claim investigated if it has been denied

b)

It is the interest a person has regarding taking an insurance policy out on another person

c)

It is a relationship between the parties to the contract based on a financial or emotional connection with the insured

d)

Insurable interest is the interest the insurance company has regarding issuing the policy

21.

WHEN must an insurable interest exist in a health insurance policy?

a)

Insurable interest is only required at the time of death, and only for policies that provide a death benefit

b)

At the time of purchase

c)

Health insurance does not have insurable interest requirements

d)

At the time of the loss

22.

A statement that is made to the best of one’s knowledge is called a:

a)

Warranty

b)

Sworn statement

c)

Representation

d)

Misrepresentation

23.

Insurers who are selling health insurance are not allowed to deliver or renew a policy until the insurer has filed a copy of WHICH of the following, when applicable, with the OIR?

a)

All of these

b)

Rating schedule

c)

Change in rating manual

d)

Rating manual

24.

If the licensee fails to respond on time to a written request from the DFS concerning a consumer complaint, WHAT is the maximum fine per violation?

a)

1000

b)

250

c)

500

d)

2500

25.

Regarding market conduct examinations, the OIR is required to examine each domestic insurer at least every...

a)

One year (annually)

b)

Two years

c)

Five years

d)

Four years

26.

An insurance company that is formed outside of the United States is known as WHICH of the following?

a)

An alien company

b)

A domestic company

c)

None of these

d)

A foreign company

27.

WHAT does an appointment do?

a)

Gives the licensed agent the authority to transact insurance on behalf of an insurer

b)

Gives the insurer the authority to transact health insurance in Florida

c)

Gives unaffiliated agents authority to transact insurance on behalf of an insurer

d)

Gives the insurer authority to operate in Florida

28.

It is required to file a policy with the OIR for policy approval HOW many days before the use of the policy?

a)

25 days

b)

60 days

c)

20 days

d)

30 days

29.

WHICH of the following is NOT a general duty of the DFS?

a)

Employ actuaries as at-will employees

b)

Use existing resources to develop and implement an outreach program to encourage entry of additional insurers into the Florida market

c)

Use existing resources to expend funds for the purpose of its employees’ professional development

d)

Enforce the provisions of the Insurance Code

30.

WHICH of the following is NOT an agency action of the OIR?

a)

Licensing and organizing companies

b)

Continuing the regulation of insurance company activities

c)

Issue injunctions in regard to violations of the financial institutions codes

d)

Keeping watch to guard against unauthorized insurance activities

31.

WHICH of the following license types cannot be issued after October 1, 2014?

a)

All of these

b)

Service representative

c)

Limited customer representative

d)

Customer representative

32.

An incorporated supreme lodge would fall under the definition of WHICH of the following terms?

a)

Alien company

b)

Foreign company

c)

Fraternal benefit society

d)

Mutual company

33.

WHAT is the difference between an authorized insurer and an unauthorized insurer?

a)

An authorized insurer has received a Letter of Authorization from the DFS

b)

An authorized insurer is one with a certificate of authority and six appointed agents

c)

An authorized insurer is one that has been issued a certificate of authority by the OIR

d)

An authorized insurer is one with a certificate of authority and four appointed agents

34.

WHAT does it mean for a licensee to receive trust funds in a fiduciary capacity?

a)

It means the licensee is the "trustee" or "custodian" of the funds, and not the owner - and that they are in a special position of trust and confidence

b)

It means the licensee is acting as both "owner" and "custodian" of the funds - and that they are in a special position of trust and confidence

c)

A licensee will never receive funds in a "fiduciary capacity"

d)

It means the licensee may keep the funds and use as they see fit

35.

ABC Lending required that Barry buy his credit insurance through XYZ insurer. Is this allowed?

a)

Yes, but only if the lender owns or controls the insurance company

b)

No, a lender cannot require that the insurance be purchased from any particular insurer

c)

Yes, as long as the lender has no financial interest in the insurer

d)

No, lenders cannot require that insurance be purchased in order to approve any credit transaction

36.

Licensees are required to notify the DFS when they change WHICH of the following?

a)

All of these

b)

The address of their residence

c)

Their email address

d)

Their name

37.

A terminally ill person who sells their life insurance policy for a specific amount has entered into WHAT kind of agreement?

a)

A viatical, or structured settlement agreement

b)

An early payout agreement

c)

An irrevocable beneficiary designation

d)

A prearranged death benefit

38.

Every licensee must preserve these books, accounts, and records pertaining to premium payments for at least HOW many years after payment?

a)

Five

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

Four

39.

WHICH of the following names would most likely NOT be acceptable as an insurance agency name?

a)

Sunshine Insurance Agency

b)

Insurance Group of Florida

c)

United States Insurance of Florida

d)

Fellowship Insurance Services

40.

WHICH of the following is the term for knowingly making any misleading representations or incomplete or fraudulent comparisons for the purpose of inducing any person to lapse their insurance policy in favor of a new one?

a)

Rebating

b)

Churning

c)

Twisting

d)

Sliding

41.

WHICH of the following is NOT a prerequisite for being issued a health insurance agent's license?

a)

Must take and pass the required examination

b)

Must be a natural person of at least 18 years of age

c)

Must be a US citizen or legal alien and resident of Florida

d)

Must have received a letter of recommendation from the DFS

42.

Agencies must maintain policy records other than premium payment records for HOW LONG?

a)

Three years in all cases

b)

For as long as the agency remains in business

c)

There is no requirement to keep policy records once they have been submitted to the insurance company

d)

For five years after the policy has expired

43.

HOW MUCH in value can a licensee legally gift to a client during a given year?

a)

No more than 100 dollars per person

b)

Gifting is not allowed under any circumstances

c)

A maximum of 500 dollars per year per insured

d)

Up to 50 dollars per year

44.

Are agents allowed to share commissions?

a)

Never, sharing commissions is a felony offense in Florida

b)

Not unless both agents agree to continue to share commissions for at least the length of the appointment by the insurer

c)

Yes, as long as the person the commission is shared with holds the same kind of insurance license

d)

It is allowed, but only with the express written permission of the Office of Insurance Regulation

45.

WHAT is the specified purpose of the Buyer’s Guide?

a)

To aid the life insurance agent in understanding the differences between policies

b)

To provide a list of rules and requirements the insurance agent must follow when working with potential purchasers

c)

To serve as a foundation for conversations the insurance agent can have with a potential purchaser

d)

To aid the buyer in their search for the most appropriate insurance plan for their specific needs

46.

Under Florida rules for replacement, each agent must submit to the insurer with, or as part of the application for life insurance, WHICH of the following?

a)

A signed statement that discloses that the agent does not know whether or not replacement will be involved in the transactions

b)

A statement signed by the insurance company that states that they take responsibility for an agent’s recommendation for replacement

c)

A signed statement as to whether or not the agent knows replacement is or may be involved in the transactions

d)

A statement signed by the applicant that states they acknowledge replacement may or may not be involved in the transactions

47.

WHICH of the following is NOT included in the definition for "life insurance," in the context of policy replacement?

a)

Life insurance policies that qualify under the definition for tax sheltered annuities

b)

Annuities

c)

All of these

d)

Tax sheltered annuities

48.

WHICH of the following is the term for the practice whereby policy values in an existing life insurance policy are directly or indirectly used to purchase another insurance policy with the same insurer in a deceptive fashion, for the purpose of earning additional commission?

a)

Churning

b)

Sliding

c)

Rebating

d)

Twisting

49.

An annuity contract issued to a senior consumer age 65 or older may not contain a surrender or deferred sales charge for a withdrawal of money from an annuity exceeding WHAT percent of the amount withdrawn?

a)

0.08

b)

0.05

c)

0.15

d)

0.1

50.

WHEN may a life agent place or modify individual contract life insurance coverage with a life insurer covering the life of a person who is NOT a family member?

a)

When the life agent has an insurable interest in the life of the person

b)

When the modification names the life agent as the named beneficiary

c)

Any of these

d)

When the life agent is the named beneficiary under the life insurance policy

51.

In a standard grace period provision for group insurance, every insurance contract must provide that the insured is entitled to a grace period of not less than HOW many days?

a)

21

b)

31

c)

14

d)

30

52.

If someone were to non-willfully engage in the act of churning, what is the maximum administrative fine they may incur?

a)

75000

b)

5000 (as of 2023 $12,500)

c)

45000

d)

25000

53.

What is the rule of thumb when considering whether or not a replacement is right for a client?

a)

Seek replacement in every case, in order to always find the best coverage for your client

b)

Only recommend replacement if your client makes it clear they are not satisfied with their current coverage

c)

Recommendations for replacement should be made annually, to ensure that the client’s coverage is up to date

d)

Avoid replacement in every case, unless it’s so clearly appropriate that you cannot in good conscience leave an existing policy in force

54.

If a person submits fraudulent signatures on an application, they may be subject to an administrative fine up to what amount for each non-willful violation?

a)

25000

b)

45000

c)

5000

d)

75000

55.

The definition for the term "suitability information" means information that is related to the consumer which is reasonably appropriate to determine the suitability of a recommendation. WHICH of the following is information that would meet this definition?

a)

All of these

b)

Financial objectives

c)

Liquidity needs

d)

Tax status

56.

Twisting is the deceptive and unfair trade practice of:

a)

Convincing a client to buy a new policy so the agent can earn a new business commission

b)

A person making public statements that a competing agency charges higher premium that what is allowed by the insurer and is breaking the law

c)

Convincing a policyholder to drop an in-force policy in favor of a replacement policy without fully disclosing the positive and negative facts regarding the replacement

d)

Twisting is the practice of altering the statements of a client on an application to make the proposed insured more attractive to underwriting

57.

Disability insurance claims must be paid:

a)

Daily

b)

Quarterly

c)

Weekly

d)

Not less frequently than monthly

58.

The act of damaging the good reputation of another person is:

a)

Property damage liability, if done via written media

b)

Comprehensive personal liability

c)

Defamation, including slander and libel

d)

Negative advertising

59.

If an insured wants to sue his insurance company for failure to pay a claim, they must wait for HOW LONG after proof of loss was submitted to the insurer?

a)

120 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

30 days

60.

Florida Health Insurance Coverage Continuation Act provides that the policyholder has a choice of deductible for a converted policy. WHAT are those choices?

a)

500, 1,000, or 2,500 dollar deductibles

b)

2,500, 5,000, or 10,000 dollar deductibles

c)

250, 500, or 1,000 dollar deductibles

d)

1,000, 2,500, or 5,000 dollar deductibles

61.

If a policy provision does not meet minimum state requirements, WHAT provision will amend the policy to meet the minimum requirements?

a)

Incontestability provision

b)

Time limit on certain defenses provision

c)

Conformity with State Statutes

d)

Entire contract and changes provision

62.

Under the Affordable Care Act, insurance plans may be WHICH of the following?

a)

ACA compliant or NON-ACA compliant plans

b)

Grandfathered or nongrandfathered plans

c)

Compliant or noncompliant plans

d)

Approved plans or unapproved plans

63.

Sliding is best defined as:

a)

Persuading an existing customer to replace an existing policy with a new policy

b)

Convincing a client to buy a new policy so the agent can earn a new business commission

c)

Switching the client to a product that does not suit their needs

d)

The illegal act or practice of telling a client that ancillary coverage or benefits must be purchased at the same time as the policy

64.

WHAT disability income insurance provision prevents over insurance and considers the insured’s current earnings at the time of the loss?

a)

The Insurance with Other Insurers provision

b)

The comparative coverage coordination provision

c)

The over insurance exclusion provision

d)

The relation of earnings to insurance provision

65.

Mammography is a test for WHICH of the following?

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Breast cancer and abnormalities of the breast tissue

c)

Colon cancer

d)

Diabetes

66.

Advertisements must be maintained in an insurer’s files for HOW long?

a)

Four years, or until the next examination by the Office, whichever is longer

b)

For as long as the policy being advertised is still able to be sold by the carrier’s agent force

c)

Four years or until approved by the state, whichever period is shorter

d)

For only as long as the advertisement is actually being used. Once it has been discontinued, the insurer is no longer required to keep files on the ads

67.

Medicare has been standardized in WHICH of the following ways?

a)

There is no standardization, as each insurer can make up its own policy language

b)

Each state standardizes its own policies

c)

There are 10 standardized policies with the letters A - N

d)

The policies are now required to cover all medical conditions in all states

68.

Small employers are required to provide at least HOW MANY days as an initial open enrollment period for group benefits?

a)

10 days

b)

20 days

c)

30 days

d)

60 days

69.

Dread disease policies are also called all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Minor disease policies

b)

Critical illness policies

c)

Specified disease policies

d)

Limited risk policies

70.

All health benefit plans sold to small employers must have WHICH of the following renewal provisions?

a)

Guaranteed renewable

b)

Optionally renewable

c)

Conditionally renewable

d)

Cancelable

71.

When is a Contingent Benefit Upon Lapse provision triggered in a long term care policy?

a)

If a LTC policy lapses due to non payment, the insurer will provide the insured with a fully paid up policy

b)

This is a benefit available to LTC insureds that provides for continued coverage in the event the insurer goes bankrupt

c)

This provision only exists in Medicare Supplement policies

d)

If an insurer increases the premium on a LTC policy that causes the policy to lapse within 120 days of the increase

72.

Can a person have more than one Medicare Supplement policy?

a)

Yes, there is no problem having more than one Medicare Supplement policy

b)

No, it is prohibited to sell a person a second Medigap policy

c)

Yes, as long as the proper forms have been signed by the applicant

d)

No, unless the insured has received permission in writing from all insurers

73.

If a person has a Medicare Supplement policy, and qualifies for Medicaid, what can the insured do with the Medigap contract?

a)

Keep paying the premiums to make sure the Medigap policy stays in force, or lose the Medicaid coverage

b)

Nothing, Medicaid and the Medigap issuer will coordinate benefits

c)

Have it suspended for up to two years while on Medicaid

d)

Ask the insurer to put the Medigap policy in suspension for up to one year

74.

For tax qualified LTC policies, payments under the policy are conditioned by:

a)

A determination that the insured is chronically ill or being cognitively impaired

b)

A physician certifying that the insured needs nursing home care

c)

The taxpayer’s income and tax bracket

d)

An inability to perform at least one of the Activities of Daily Living

75.

WHAT legislative act is intended to promote the availability of health insurance to small employers?

a)

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

b)

Florida Healthy Kids Corporation

c)

Employee Health Care Access Act

d)

Long-term care partnership programs

76.

Long term care insurance policies have a free look period of HOW LONG?

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

180 days

77.

For long term care insurance, WHAT are the two nonforfeiture options that are available if a policy lapses?

a)

Extended term and nursing home coverage

b)

A fully paid policy and a loss of benefit rider

c)

A three year benefit period or a return of premium

d)

Reduced paid up and a shortened benefit period

78.

If an insured misstated their age on an application for insurance, what is the result?

a)

The insurance company will retroactively charge the insured for the past due premiums based on the insured’s correct age

b)

The death benefit will only be a return of premiums paid and not the face amount of the policy

c)

The insurer will cancel the policy

d)

Any death benefit paid would be what the premium would have purchased had the insurer known the correct age

79.

WHICH nonforfeiture option provides the longest period of coverage?

a)

Reduced paid up

b)

Extended term

c)

Cash loans

d)

Cash surrender

80.

The promise to pay the benefits cited in the policy is the:

a)

Face amount of the life insurance policy

b)

Insurer's consideration

c)

Applicant's consideration

d)

State rule that requires that the death benefit be paid to the designated beneficiary

81.

WHAT is a policy rider?

a)

A separate life insurance policy that is attached to another life policy

b)

Riders are not available in life insurance policies, and are only available for health insurance.

c)

A rider is an addition to the policy that decreases the premium for the first five years of the contract

d)

A supplement to the policy that modifies coverage under the contract in some manner

82.

WHICH of these statements best describes a collateral assignment?

a)

The insurance policy cash value can be used as security for a loan or other monetary pledge

b)

The policyowner pledges their equity in their home on a policy loan

c)

The insurer places a lien on the policyowner's bank account as collateral on a loan

d)

The owner of the policy irrevocably assigned ownership of the policy to another person