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WorksheetsAP Biology Molecular Genetics
Total questions: 54
Worksheet time: 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1) In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?
a)
Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
b)
Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
c)
Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
d)
Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strain
2.
How do we describe transformation in bacteria?
a)
the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
b)
the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
c)
the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
d)
assimilation of external DNA into a cell
3.
After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living nonphosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait?
a)
DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
b)
Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
c)
The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright.
d)
Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent.
4.
In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?
a)
DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
b)
DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.
c)
DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
d)
DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
5.
Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
a)
8%
b)
16%
c)
31%
d)
42%
6.
In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found?
a)
A = C
b)
A = G and C = T
c)
A + C = G + T
d)
G + C = T + A
7.
Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of the following reasons?
A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
a)
Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
b)
Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.
c)
The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
d)
Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not
8.
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
a)
The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
b)
The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
c)
Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
d)
One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
9.
An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements?
a)
primase, polymerase, ligase
b)
3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5'
c)
5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'
d)
DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III
10.
Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?
a)
primase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase III
d)
topoisomerase
11.
Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA?
a)
RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template.
b)
RNA polymerase makes a single-stranded molecule.
c)
RNA polymerase does not require localized unwinding of the DNA.
d)
DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.
12.
Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?
a)
RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase
b)
RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
c)
RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript.
d)
Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome.
13.
A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate?
a)
The sequence evolves very rapidly.
b)
The sequence does not mutate.
c)
Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
d)
The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.
14.
What is the function of GTP in translation?
a)
GTP energizes the formation of the initiation complex, using initiation factors.
b)
GTP hydrolyzes to provide phosphate groups for tRNA binding.
c)
GTP hydrolyzes to provide energy for making peptide bonds.
d)
GTP supplies phosphates and energy to make ATP from ADP.
15.
The process of translation, whether in prokaryotes or eukaryotes, requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, and which of the following?
a)
polypeptide factors plus ATP
b)
polypeptide factors plus GTP
c)
polymerases plus GTP
d)
SRP plus chaperones
16.
A frameshift mutation could result from
a)
a base insertion only.
b)
a base deletion only.
c)
a base substitution only.
d)
either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
17.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
18.
Why do cells regulate gene expression?
a)
To put a gene into an organism that might not have that gene.
b)
To make more genes and DNA
c)
To express what the gene is for in a cell
d)
To find out what the DNA needed for the gene needs to be
19.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
20.
How do repressor proteins and inducers affect transcription in prokaryotes?
a)
The repressor doesn't get turned of to let the gene work if no inducer is there
b)
The repressor protein and inducer make the transcription go faster
c)
The inducer doesn't let transcription occur
d)
The repressor stops the gene from working
21.
What are 2 ways gene expression is controlled in eukaryotes?
a)
Through inducible and non-inducible factors
b)
Through introns and exons
c)
Through DNA, RNA and proteins
d)
The promoter gene and transcription factors
22.
What shape are plasmids?
a)
linear
b)
circular
c)
double helix
d)
square
23.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
24.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
25.
A small molecule that binds to the repressor and makes it inactive is
a)
corepressor
b)
inducer
c)
promoter
d)
operator
26.
A distal control region that activators bind to are bent to contact mediator proteins and form the transcription initiation complex
a)
enhancers
b)
promoters
c)
repressors
d)
transcription factors
27.
Which of these enzymes is not part of transcription?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
Helicase
c)
Topoisomerase
d)
None of these are transcription enzymes
28.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Elongation of Transcription
b)
Termination of Transcription
c)
Termination of Translation
d)
Elongation of Translation
29.
Which virus replication cycle results in the death of the host cell?
a)
Carbon Cycle
b)
Lysogenic Cycle
c)
Nitrogen Cycle
d)
Lytic Cycle
30.
Retroviruses us a special enzyme called backwards transcriptase.
a)
True
b)
False
31.
Prions are virtually indestructible.
a)
True
b)
False
32.
A __________ is an infectious protein that causes brain disease in mammals.
a)
Prion
b)
Virus
c)
Bacteria
d)
Viroid
33.
________ is the compound that makes up bacterial cell walls.
a)
Cellulose
b)
Chitin
c)
Glucose
d)
Peptidoglycan
34.
Transposable Elements are sequences of DNA that...
a)
Delete junk DNA
b)
"Jump" to different areas of the chromosome
c)
Aid in protein synthesis
d)
Cause the cell to perform apoptosis
35.
There are ___ types of transposition
a)
2
b)
4
c)
1
d)
7
36.
What is another name for transposable elements?
a)
Transposons
b)
movable DNA
c)
Fixed sequences
d)
directional DNA
37.
guardian of the genome
a)
polymerases
b)
p-53 gene
c)
transposons
d)
telemores
38.
What is genetic engineering?
a)
Manipulation/addition of genes
b)
Naturally breeding two animals with desired traits
c)
Cross-pollinating two crops
d)
Harvesting stem cells
39.
What is recombinant DNA?
a)
DNA containing genes foreign to that organism
b)
DNA which has been impacted by epigenetics
c)
DNA that has restriction enzymes
d)
DNA that has been sequenced
40.
What is the SCIENTIFIC purpose for inserting genes for gfp or rfp into an organism?
a)
They act as tracers for genes that aren't obvious
b)
They look stinking cool
c)
They provide disease resistance
d)
They make animals more marketable as pets
41.
What is a restriction digest?
a)
Using enzymes to cut DNA at specific locations
b)
Using enzymes to replication DNA
c)
Using science to make genetic clones
d)
Analysis of DNA with an electrical current
42.
WE did a restriction digest to....
a)
Remove the rfp from anemone DNA
b)
Confirm the presence of rfp in our plasmid
c)
Play with DNA
d)
Fuse the rfp into our vector
43.
The process of putting recombinant DNA into an organism is called....
a)
Transformation
b)
Ligating
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
Incubating
44.
How did we confirm the presence of our the rfp in our plasmid?
a)
Gel eletrophoresis
b)
Transformation
c)
Incubation
d)
Ligation
45.
True or False: Cloning humans is a federally accepted practice in the United States.
a)
True
b)
False
46.
True or false: Human tissues can be cloned in a Petri dish.
a)
True
b)
False
47.
What is Taq ?
a)
enzyme in human blood
b)
enzyme that is extracted from extremolphiles
c)
type of virus
d)
enzyme used in transcription
48.
What is PRC technique
a)
cell free, automated technique whre tiny pieces of DNA can be rapidly copied
b)
polymerases chain
c)
riflips
d)
reverse transcriptase
49.
No one can have the same riflips pattern.
a)
true
b)
false
50.
Reverse transcriptase is?
a)
mRNA made from tRNA
b)
DNA made from RNA primer
c)
DNA made from mRNA
d)
the cause of Huntington's disease
51.
Inserting a gene into a plasmid, inserting that into a vector that can reproduce rapidly is?
a)
gene cloning
b)
replication
c)
mitosis
d)
meiosis
52.
What is true of gel electrophoresis?
a)
Technique that seperates molecules of DNA in an agarose gel in an electric field
b)
DNA is digested with restriction enzymes
c)
DNA runs from the cathode(-) to the anode (-)
d)
all of the above
53.
Which products are not made from gene therapy?
a)
insulin
b)
bacteria to digest oil for oil spills
c)
human proteins
d)
viruses
54.
What is not a type of genetic engineering
a)
gene cloning
b)
gene therapy
c)
biological resistance
d)
GMO's
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