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WorksheetsVCE Biology - Unit 4 AOS 1
Total questions: 152
Worksheet time: 4hrs 49mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the process that bacteria go through to reproduce?
a)
Binary fission
b)
Asexual reproduction
c)
Splitting
d)
All of the above
2.
How many parents are needed for asexual reproduction?
a)
3
b)
None
c)
1
d)
2
3.
How are asexual and sexual reproduction different?
a)
The amount of parents
b)
The number of offspring
c)
The way each organism can adapt to different climates
d)
All of the above
4.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Donuts Always
b)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
c)
Deoxyribonucleus Acid
d)
Danny Ate
5.
Where is DNA located?
a)
Brain
b)
Cell's blood
c)
Cell's cytoplasm
d)
Cell's nucleus
6.
What are the cellular structures in the nucleus that carry hereditary information?
a)
genes
b)
nucleus
c)
fertilization
d)
chromosomes
7.
What are segments of DNA that code for a specific trait?
a)
chromosomes
b)
genes
c)
fertilization
d)
nucleus
8.
What is the process of producing gametes (sex cells)?
a)
fertilization
b)
meiosis
c)
budding
d)
mitosis
9.
In what type of asexual reproduction does the offspring grow out of the parent cell?
a)
genes
b)
mitosis
c)
budding
d)
sexual reproduction
10.
In what type of asexual reproduction does the cell copy itself and divide in half?
a)
genes
b)
mitosis
c)
sexual reproduction
d)
budding
11.
What is the shape of DNA?
a)
Helix
b)
Twisted Ladder
c)
Double Helix
d)
Triple Helix
12.
What phase of mitosis is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
13.
What phase of mitosis is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
14.
What phase of mitosis is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
15.
What phase of mitosis is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
16.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
17.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
18.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
19.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46
b)
21
c)
10
20.
The time between cell divisions in the life cycle of the cell is called
a)
anaphase
b)
interphase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
21.
Structure C is pointing to one ____.
a)
sister chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
d)
gene
22.
DNA is replicated during the ______ phase of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
Synthesis
c)
G2
d)
G0
23.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
mitochondria
c)
Chromatid
d)
yellow things
24.
In which cell below would a student likely observe a cell plate during mitosis?
a)
rat muscle cell
b)
alligator stomach cell
c)
pea leaf cell
d)
human lung cell
25.
In which stage of the cell cycle do the nucleus and its contents divide?
a)
synthesis
b)
growth/gap 1
c)
mitosis
d)
growth/gap 2
26.
Which is not part of the function of the normal cell cycle?
a)
cell growth
b)
DNA replication
c)
cell division
d)
cell death
27.
What occurs during interphase?
a)
cell growth and development
b)
chromosome separation
c)
division of the nucleus
d)
division of the cytoplasm
28.
What structure holds two sister chromatids together?
a)
spindle fibers
b)
centromere
c)
nucleus
d)
cytoplasm
29.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
the transfer of cytoplasm from one cell to another
b)
the development of the cytoplasm in a cell
c)
the growth of the cytoplasm in a cell
d)
the division of the cytoplasm from one cell into two cells
30.
Which process increases the variability of genetic information?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
31.
_____________________ is a process that produces cells with half the chromosomes.
a)
Budding
b)
Fragementation
c)
Regeneration
d)
Meiosis
32.
You inherited...
a)
most of your chromosomes from your mother
b)
most of your chromosomes from your father
c)
a random number of chromosomes from each parent
d)
half your chromosomes from your mother and half from your father.
33.
A haploid cell has
a)
one-half of a set of chromosomes
b)
one set of chromosomes
c)
two sets of chromosomes
d)
four sets of chromosomes
34.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
35.
During meiosis I, what happens?
a)
Sister chromatids are split
b)
Homologous chromosomes are split
c)
Four cells are created
d)
None of the other choices are correct
36.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
37.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
38.
What is it called when the gametes meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
39.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over during which segments of DNA are exchanged
40.
Crossing over is important because....
a)
It prevents mutations from entering the gametes.
b)
It allows for even distribution of chromosomes in the gametes.
c)
It allows for more genetic diversity of gametes.
d)
It allows for genetic uniformity of gametes.
41.
Crossing over occurs in...
a)
Prophase 1
b)
Prophase 2
c)
Metaphase 1
d)
Metaphase 2
42.
Crossing over occurs in...
a)
Prophase 1
b)
Prophase 2
c)
Metaphase 1
d)
Metaphase 2
43.
How many cells are created during Telophase I?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
44.
Which is NOT a part of a DNA nucleotide?
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Ribose
c)
Phosphate Group
d)
Nitrogenous Base
45.
The backbone of DNA is made up of alternating...
a)
deoxyribose and nitrogenous bases.
b)
ribose and phosphates.
c)
deoxyribose and phosphates.
d)
phosphates and nitrogenous bases.
46.
Nitrogenous base pairs are held together by...
a)
hydrogen bonds.
b)
peptide bonds.
c)
nitrogen bonds.
d)
rubber bonds.
47.
In DNA, adenine pairs with...
a)
guanine.
b)
cytosine.
c)
thymine.
d)
uracil.
48.
During replication, new DNA nucleotides are added by the enzyme...
a)
DNA polymerase.
b)
RNA polymerase.
c)
helicase.
d)
mayonnaise.
49.
A gene is instructions for making a...
a)
protein.
b)
lipid.
c)
carbohydrate.
d)
nucleic acid.
50.
tRNA is located in the...
a)
cytoplasm
b)
nucleus
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
51.
The process in which mRNA is made is called...
a)
replication.
b)
transcription.
c)
translation.
d)
mutation.
52.
Translation does NOT involve...
a)
DNA.
b)
mRNA.
c)
rRNA.
d)
tRNA.
53.
_____ are the building blocks carried by tRNA to the ribosome.
a)
Amino acids
b)
Nucleotides
c)
Monosaccharides
d)
Fatty acids
54.
The codon that begins translation is...
a)
U-G-A
b)
U-A-G
c)
A-U-G
d)
U-A-A
55.
There are _____ amino acids.
a)
3
b)
20
c)
46
d)
64
56.
A-G-G is translated into...
a)
ARG
b)
SER
c)
TRP
d)
THR
57.
A protein's function is dictated by its...
a)
size.
b)
color.
c)
shape.
d)
amino acid sequence.
58.
Unregulated (or uncontrolled) cell cycles can result in...
a)
cancer.
b)
aries.
c)
sagitarius.
d)
pisces.
59.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
60.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAG?
a)
Aspartic Acid
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
61.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift
62.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
63.
A mutation that does NOT show up through protein function is called
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
64.
Different forms of a gene
a)
Choloroplast
b)
Allele
c)
Chromosome Pairs
65.
Which process is used to copy DNA in the nucleus?
a)
replication
b)
transcription
c)
translation
66.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
67.
In DNA replication, A pairs with ____.
a)
T (thymine)
b)
C (cytosine)
c)
G (guanine)
d)
U (uracil)
68.
In DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for unwinding & unzipping the parent strand of DNA?
a)
helicase
b)
polymerase
c)
ligase
d)
primase
69.
In DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for adding an RNA primer, telling DNA polymerase where to go?
a)
helicase
b)
primase
c)
ligase
d)
polymerase
70.
In DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for building the new DNA strand?
a)
helicase
b)
polymerase
c)
ligase
d)
primase
71.
In DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for gluing the fragments of DNA on the lagging strand back together?
a)
helicase
b)
ligase
c)
polymerase
d)
primase
72.
Which represents the leading strand?
a)
A
b)
B
73.
Which represents the lagging strand?
a)
A
b)
B
74.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
75.
What are the fragments of DNA on the lagging strand called?
a)
Okazaki fragments
b)
Okinawa fragments
c)
Hibachi fragments
d)
Kamikaze fragments
76.
Where does replication take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
77.
In comparison to a DNA strand, a
a)
mRNA strand is shorter and single stranded
b)
mRNA strand is longer and single stranded
c)
mRNA strand is shorter and double stranded
d)
mRNA strand is longer and double stranded
78.
The job of tRNA is to
a)
carry amino acids to the ribisomes
b)
carry ribisomes to the ER
c)
carry glucose to mitochondria
d)
carry mRNA out of the nucleus
79.
Amino acids are joined together in order to form
a)
DNA
b)
ribosomes
c)
proteins
d)
RNA
80.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
81.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
82.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
83.
All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the DNA
b)
enzymes add a methyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
84.
This diagram represents which of the following?
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Gene therapy
c)
Cloning
d)
Genetic engineering
85.
Which best describes stem cells?
a)
stem cells can only come from embryos
b)
stem cells can only come from adult bone marrow
c)
stem cells do not ever change
d)
stem cells can develop into different specialized cells
86.
This diagram shows the DNA fingerprints of a common ancestor of Deer Species. Which deer species is most related to the common ancestor
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
87.
A new variety of rice called golden rice has been genetically modified to have vitamin A. People in starving countries can eat this rice and receive the vitamin A. Without this rice people go blind from vitamin A deficiency. What word(s) below best describes this rice?
a)
electrophoresis
b)
DNA fingerprinting
c)
G.M.O
d)
clone
88.
A ____ is a small ring of DNA found in a bacterial cell.
a)
virus
b)
plasmid
c)
gene bullet
d)
PCR
89.
The process of producing millions of copies of a specific DNA.
a)
PCR
b)
PPA
c)
RNA
d)
PTB
90.
Genes for medically important proteins can be cloned and inserted into bacteria, as shown in the diagram below.
Why can bacteria recognize a human gene and then produce a human protein?
Why can bacteria recognize a human gene and then produce a human protein?
a)
DNA replication in bacteria and humans is the same
b)
Bacterial cells contain the same organelles as human cells.
c)
The basic components of DNA are the same in humans and bacteria.
d)
Bacterial cells and human cells contain the same kind of chromosomes.
91.
The purpose of PCR is to:
a)
Cut DNA
b)
Move DNA into a cell
c)
Analyze the length of DNA
d)
Copy short segments of DNA
92.
Which of the following best describes the role of primers?
a)
Frame the beginning and end of the target sequence
b)
Copy the DNA
c)
Cause DNA strands to separate
d)
Heat the sample
93.
Which of the following best describes the role of Taq DNA Polymerase?
a)
Frames the beginning and end of DNA to be copied
b)
Copies the DNA
c)
Causes the DNA strands to separate
d)
Provides the heat
94.
Why is Taq DNA polymerase special?
a)
It can separate DNA strands quickly
b)
It can heat up samples quickly
c)
It can withstand hot temperatures needed for PCR
d)
It isn't special - all type of cells make Taq DNA polymerase
95.
Denaturing of DNA happens at:
a)
940C
b)
50-650C
c)
720C
d)
1 billion 0C
96.
The first step in PCR is called "denaturing" which means:
a)
DNA strands are separated
b)
DNA is copied
c)
Primers bind
d)
The PCR is finished
97.
Annealing is the second step in PCR. This is when:
a)
DNA is copied
b)
DNA strands separate
c)
Primers bind to DNA
d)
The PCR is finished
98.
During annealing, primers are able to bind to DNA based on:
a)
Just knowing where to go
b)
Binding to complementary DNA seqeuences
c)
Binding to exactly the same DNA sequences
d)
Primers do not bind to DNA
99.
Extension is the third step of PCR. "Extension" means that:
a)
DNA is copied
b)
Primers are binding
c)
DNA strands are separating
d)
PCR is finished
100.
What type of charge does DNA have?
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
d)
It depends on the source of the DNA.
101.
Gel Electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA based on all except. . . ?
a)
Length
b)
Charge
c)
Sequence
102.
In gel electrophoresis, DNA will move to the ____________ charge.
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
d)
both positive and negative
103.
In gel electrophoresis, smaller molecules move . . .
a)
really slow
b)
really fast
c)
to the negative side
d)
to the positive side
104.
What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?
a)
To add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA.
b)
To join nucleotides during replication.
c)
To join nucleotides during transcription.
d)
To cleave nucleic acids at specific sites.
105.
The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
106.
A ____________ is required to transfer genes from one organism to another.
a)
vector
b)
reverse transcriptase
c)
transport molecule
d)
genetic probe
107.
What is a cloning vector?
a)
The DNA probe used to locate a particular gene in the genome.
b)
An agent such as plasmid, used to transfer DNA from an in vitro solution into a living cell.
c)
The laboratory apparatus used to clone genes.
d)
An enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
108.
What are the typical characteristics of a cloning vector?
a)
Bacterial cells cannot survive without it when grown under certain conditions.
b)
It contains restriction sites that allow the insertion of foreign DNA segments.
c)
It can replicate in bacterial cells.
d)
All of the above.
109.
In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must
a)
code for the same gene product.
b)
be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
c)
originate from the same type of cell.
d)
have identical sequences.
110.
What enzyme forms covalent bonds between restriction fragments?
a)
DNA primase
b)
DNA helicase
c)
DNA ligase
d)
DNA polymerase
111.
What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into bacterium?
I) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
II) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV) Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.
V) Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA
I) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
II) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV) Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.
V) Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA
a)
I, II, IV, III, V
b)
III, II, IV, V, I
c)
II, III, V, IV, I
d)
III, IV, V, I, II
112.
Which of the following statement about plasmid is correct?
I ) It can replicate by itself
II ) Hybrid plasmid is introduced into bacteria by transformation
III ) Other than bacteria, plasmid can also be found in bacteriophage
I ) It can replicate by itself
II ) Hybrid plasmid is introduced into bacteria by transformation
III ) Other than bacteria, plasmid can also be found in bacteriophage
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
I,II and III
113.
An organism in which foreign genes have been incorporated is called a:
a)
recombinant organism
b)
transgene recombinant
c)
polymorphism
d)
transgenic organism
114.
What is the name of the cloning technique used in mammals?
a)
Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer
b)
Sperm Egg Combination Transfer
c)
Ovum Nuclear Elimination
d)
Nuclear Embryonic Twinning
115.
What is a GMO?
a)
An organism with foreign DNA
b)
An organism missing genes
c)
Epigenetics
d)
A genetically identical organism
116.
What is genetic engineering?
a)
Manipulation/addition of genes
b)
Naturally breeding two animals with desired traits
c)
Cross-pollinating two crops
d)
Harvesting stem cells
117.
One of the alternative forms of a gene that governs a characteristic is a what?
a)
gene
b)
genotype
c)
allele
d)
phenotype
118.
An organism's appearance or other detectable characteristic is a what?
a)
phenotype
b)
gene
c)
allele
d)
genetic variation
119.
The entire genetic makeup of an organism or the combination of genes for one or more specific traits is....
a)
genetic variation
b)
genotype
c)
gene
d)
allele
120.
If a plant with the genotype PP is crossed with a plant with the genotype pp, what are the possible genotypes of the offspring?
a)
PP, Pp, pP, pp
b)
PP. pp. pp. PP
c)
Pp, Pp, Pp, Pp
d)
Pp, PP, pp, PP
121.
What is the Punnett square used to predict?
a)
possible genotypes for the cross
b)
which traits are dominant
c)
which traits are recessive
d)
the number of offspring
122.
When both alleles of a pair are alike, the organism is said to be
a)
Homozygous
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Homologous
d)
Heterologous
123.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the phenotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
124.
If B=brown & and b=red, what would the genotype(s) be for an individual with brown hair?
a)
bb
b)
Bb
c)
BB
d)
BB and Bb
125.
The genotype "Tt" is
a)
Homozygous dominant
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Homozygous Recessive
126.
Looking at this pedigree, how many family members have the disease?
a)
4
b)
7
c)
All
d)
None
127.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
128.
What percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
129.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive
130.
What is the genotype of the great-grandfather? (Individual 2)
a)
A_
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA
131.
If a trait is not sex-linked, it is
a)
autosomal
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
polygenic
132.
a)
This karyotype shows Trisomy 21
b)
This karyotype has no abnormality
c)
This karyotype is missing a sex chromosome
d)
This karyotype is from a gamete
133.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
134.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift
135.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
136.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
137.
A nonsense mutation produced _________.
a)
A same polypeptide chain
b)
A slightly altered polypeptide chain
c)
A shift in the reading frame
d)
The regulatory sequence being altered.
138.
A base pair substitution can result in all of the following except __________.
a)
Missense mutation
b)
Frameshift Mutation
c)
Silent Mutation
d)
Nonsense mutation
139.
Which one of the following shows continuous variation?
a)
Blood group
b)
Height
c)
Male or female
d)
Tongue rolling
140.
Which one of the following shows discontinuous variation?
a)
Eye colour
b)
Height
c)
Strength
d)
Weight
141.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
142.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
143.
A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (orange and white). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan steer mate together?
a)
4: Orange and White
b)
1: Orange : 1 White
c)
2 Orange: 2 Orange and White: 0 White
d)
1: Orange: 2 Orange and White: 1 White
144.
If a Homozygous red snapdragon and a Heterozygous pink snapdragon were crossed-what percentage of the offspring would be homozygous red?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
145.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
146.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
147.
What is the genotype for a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (R), and homozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
a)
Ry
b)
RRyy
c)
RrYy
d)
Rryy
148.
When the expression of a trait is controlled by multiple alleles this is called?
a)
Epistasis
b)
Multiple Genes
c)
Multiple Alleles
d)
Multiple DNA
149.
Which type of inheritance pattern is shown in this pedigree?
a)
Autosomal recessive
b)
Autosomal dominant
c)
Sex-linked recessive
d)
Sex-linked dominant
150.
The following pedigree shows an X-linked recessive trait. What are the genotypes of individuals A and B?
a)
XaXa, XAY
b)
XAXA, XaY
c)
XAXa, XaY
d)
XAXa, XaYa
151.
If a son has an X-linked trait, from whom must he have inherited it?
a)
Mother
b)
Father
c)
Mother or Father
d)
Depends on whether trait is recessive or dominant
152.
Consider this genetic cross which produces F1 offspring. Which of the F1 gametes shown are recombinant?
a)
pr+vg+
b)
pr+vg
c)
pr+vg+ AND pr+vg
d)
they are all parental gametes
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