WorksheetsNeuro 1&2
Total questions: 65
Worksheet time: 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
When examining sensory function, if the clinical findings indicate a presence of a pathology, what does this mean?
a)
it can be a pathology of CNS or PNS
b)
it is a pathology of only PNS
c)
it is a pathology of only CNS
2.
Which of the following is not an age related sensory change?
a)
neurons are replaced at an increasing rate
b)
degeneration of neurons
c)
decreased number of enzymes
d)
lower sensory nerve conduction velocity
3.
An older patient experiences all of the following changes in sensory function with age except:
a)
decrease in body sway anterior-posterior
b)
decline in vision
c)
increase in medications
d)
decline in hearing
4.
Which of the following is true regarding sensory pathological changes associated with aging?
a)
decrease in Pacinian corpuscles that detect vibration
b)
enlargement in Meissner's corpuscles that detect touch
c)
increased growth in myelin sheath of neurons
d)
gradual increase in conduction velocity of sensory nerves
5.
Patient is lethargic, how do they present?
a)
drowsy, interaction gets diverted
b)
difficult to arouse, frequently confused, repeated stimulation required to maintain consciousness
c)
only noxious stimuli can get response, patient unable to interact
d)
cannot be aroused by any type of stimulation
6.
Patient is obtunded, how do they present?
a)
difficult to arouse, frequently confused, repeated stimulation required to maintain consciousness
b)
only noxious stimuli can get response, patient unable to interact
c)
cannot be aroused by any type of stimulation
d)
drowsy, interaction gets diverted
7.
Patient is in a stupor, how do they present?
a)
drowsy, interaction gets diverted
b)
difficult to arouse, frequently confused, repeated stimulation required to maintain consciousness
c)
cannot be aroused by any type of stimulation
d)
only noxious stimuli can get response, patient unable to interact
8.
Patient is in a coma, how do they present?
a)
cannot be aroused by any type of stimulation
b)
only noxious stimuli can get response, patient unable to interact
c)
drowsy, interaction gets diverted
d)
difficult to arouse, frequently confused, repeated stimulation required to maintain consciousness
9.
Attention as a sensory function is referred to as:
a)
awareness of the environment or responsiveness to a stimulus without being distracted
b)
the process of knowing and making judgment
c)
sum total of an individual's learning and experience in life
d)
ability to interpret use of words outside their usual context or meaning
10.
What is proverb interpretation?
a)
ability to interpret use of words outside their usual context or meaning
b)
awareness of the environment or responsiveness to a stimulus without being distracted
c)
sum total of an individual's learning and experience in life
d)
foundational math abilities
11.
Which impairment impacts sensory testing the most?
a)
short term memory loss
b)
long term memory loss
c)
acalculia
d)
dyscalculia
12.
What sensory receptor detects superficial sensation from the external environment such as pain, temperature, light touch and pressure?
a)
exteroreceptors
b)
proprioceptors
c)
combined cortical sensations
13.
What sensory receptor detects deep sensation receiving stimuli from muscles, tendons, ligaments, joints and fascia for position sense, awareness of joints at rest, movement awareness and vibration?
a)
proprioreceptors
b)
exteroreceptors
c)
combined cortical sensations
14.
What sensory receptors detect stereognosis, two-point discrimination, barognosis, graphesthesia, and recognize textures?
a)
combined cortical sensations
b)
proprioceptors
c)
exteroreceptors
15.
What sensory receptors specifically respond to noxious stimuli resulting in the perception of pain?
a)
nociceptors
b)
thermoreceptors
c)
mechanoreceptors
d)
chemoreceptors
16.
What sensory receptors detect chemicals for taste, smell, O2 levels, and CO2 concentration in the blood?
a)
chemoreceptors
b)
nociceptors
c)
mechanoreceptors
d)
thermoreceptors
17.
These cutaneous receptors are stimulated by rapid movement of tissue and involve the perception of deep touch and vibration:
a)
Pacinian corpuscles
b)
Meissner's corpuscles
c)
Ruffini endings
d)
Krause's end bulbs
18.
Which of the following is the sensory tract that originates with touch, signaling the spinal cord, traveling up to the thalamus and to the somatosensory cortex?
a)
anterolateral spinothalamic pathway
b)
dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway
19.
Why is lack of sensation contraindicated for testing stereognosis?
a)
patient can not feel they object to detect
b)
patient feels noxious stimuli when tested
20.
What dermatome is associated with facial expression?
a)
facial CN VII
b)
glossopharyngeal CN IX
21.
What dermatome is associated with visual field deficits?
a)
optic CN II
b)
trochlear CN IV
22.
What dermatone/dorsal root is patella Deep tendon reflex associated with?
a)
L4
b)
S2
c)
S1
23.
What coordinated movements involve skillful use of the fingers for fine motor tasks?
a)
dexterity
b)
agility
24.
What coordinated movements involve rapidly and smoothly initiating, stoping, and modifying movements while maintaining postural control?
a)
agility
b)
dexterity
25.
Which tract is the longest and largest that originates at the motor cortex, descends down the spinal cord, and transmits skilled fine movements?
a)
corticiospinal tract
b)
corticobulbar tract
c)
tectospinal tract
d)
reticulospinal tract
26.
Which tract has important influence on muscle tone, reflex activity, posture, gait, and extension of the LEs?
a)
reticulospinal tract
b)
corticospinal tract
c)
tectospinal tract
d)
vestibulospinal tract
27.
regulation of movement, postural control, and muscle tone are the function of the:
a)
cerebellum
b)
brainstem
c)
basal ganglia
28.
Gait ataxia with irregular stepping patterns, poor upright stability, and uncoordinated movements is associate with which pathology?
a)
cerebellar
b)
basal ganglia
29.
the impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movement such as pronation/supination is what, and related to what pathology?
a)
dysdiadochokinesia, cerebellar
b)
dysdiadochokinesia, basal ganglia
c)
dysmetria, cerebellar
d)
dyssenergia, basal ganglia
30.
The disorder where they can't judge distance is what, and which pathology?
a)
dysmetria, cerebellar
b)
dysmetria, basal ganglia
c)
dysdiadochokinesia, cerebellar
d)
athetosis, basal ganglia
31.
the impairment of inaccurate movement that is taking things by sequence but can be out of order is what, and what pathology?
a)
dyssnergia, cerebellar
b)
dyssnergia, basal ganglia
c)
athetosis, basal ganglia
d)
chorea, basal ganglia
32.
The impairment of decreased muscle tone and flaccidity is what, and what pathology?
a)
hypotonia, cerebellar
b)
bradykinesia, basal ganglia
c)
chorea, basal ganglia
33.
Twisting, writhing, worm-like hyperextension of the wrists, fingers, and UEs is what, and what pathology?
a)
athetosis, basal ganglia
b)
dysdiadochokinesia, cerebellar
c)
chorea, basal ganglia
34.
Which of the following is not an age related change in coordination and movement?
a)
increase in strength
b)
slowed reaction time
c)
decreased ROM
d)
impaired balance/postural control
35.
Which of the following is an example of a non-equilibrium test
a)
finger-to-nose
b)
Romberg
c)
multifunctional reaching
d)
stepping on a line
36.
If a patient has ataxia, which of the following is true?
a)
all are true
b)
increased sway
c)
uncoordinated movement
d)
limited postural control
37.
When a person uses the ankle strategy for a backward sway which muscles are used?
a)
anterior tibialis, quads, abdominals
b)
gastric, hamstrings, paraspinals
38.
This is response-produced information received during or after the movement:
a)
feedback
b)
feedforward
39.
This is the sending of signals in advance of movement to ready the sensorimotor systems allowing for postural adjustments:
a)
feedforward
b)
feedback
40.
Most skilled movements are which type of system?
a)
open and closed loop
b)
open loop
c)
closed loop
41.
When given a short list of numbers that require to be repeated back, this tests:
a)
selective attention
b)
sustained attention
c)
divided attention
42.
this is how long the patient is able to maintain attention on a particular task:
a)
sustained attention
b)
alternation attention
c)
divided attention
d)
selective attention
43.
This is when a patient can perform two tasks concurrently:
a)
divided attention
b)
selective attention
c)
sustained attention
d)
alternating attention
44.
This is an acute confusional state that affects immediate memory and short term memory along with confusion, hallucinations, or agitation:
a)
delirium
b)
dementia
45.
This is resistance of muscle to passive elongation or stretch:
a)
tone
b)
strength
46.
What is normal muscle tone?
a)
limb moves easily and the therapist is able to alter direction and speed without resistance
b)
stiff and resistance to movement
c)
heavy and unresponsive to movement
47.
Decorticate rigidity results in what movements of LEs?
a)
extension, IR, PF, adduction
b)
flexion, ER, DF
48.
The modified ash worth scale measure what?
a)
increase in tone: 0 none, 1 slight, 1+ catch, 2 increased tone, 3 passive mvmt difficult, 4 rigid
b)
increase in strength
49.
SCI, MS, CVA, and head injuries are what type of motor neuron injury?
a)
UMN
b)
LMN
50.
MD, Poliomyelitis, MG, and peripheral nerve injuries are what type of motor neuron injury?
a)
LMN
b)
UMN
51.
What is the ability to move from one position to another independently and safely?
a)
transitional mobility
b)
stability
c)
dynamic control
d)
skill
52.
What is the ability to maintain posture and orientation with the COM over the BOS when the body is at rest?
a)
stability
b)
dynamic postural control
c)
transitional mobility
d)
skill
53.
What is the ability to consistently perform coordinated movement sequences for the purpose of attaining an action goal?
a)
skill
b)
dynamic stability
c)
transitional mobility
54.
This is caused by non-progressive defect or lesion in the immature brain and is permanent:
a)
cerebral palsy
b)
down syndrome
c)
spina bifida
55.
which of the following is not a risk factor for cerebral palsy?
a)
high birth weight
b)
perinatal stroke
c)
maternal infection
d)
multiple births
56.
What type of CP patient is fearful of everything and lacks initiative or aggression?
a)
spastic
b)
athetoid
c)
flaccid
57.
which type of CP do the patients move in extreme ranges of unpredictable patterns?
a)
athetoid
b)
spastic
c)
flaccid
58.
which type of CP is highly intelligent and usually happy?
a)
athetoid
b)
spastic
c)
flaccid
59.
Which type of CP are known as "good children" because they are always happy, seldomly cry, but are usually anemic with no motivation?
a)
flaccid
b)
athetoid
c)
spastic
60.
Signs of CP:
a)
strong extensor thrust
b)
ATNR not transient
c)
can't bring fingers to mouth or arms to chest
d)
all of the above
61.
What is an early warning sign of CVA?
a)
numbness/weakness of face, arms, legs on one side of the body
b)
sudden confusion, trouble speaking or understanding
c)
sudden trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance
d)
All of the above
62.
when can tPA be administered?
a)
3-4 hours after ischemic stroke
b)
within 24 hours hemmorhagic stroke
63.
location of stroke affects frontal and parietal lobes with greater LE involvement than UE:
a)
ACA
b)
MCA
c)
PCA
64.
This location of stroke results in homonymous hemianopsia and aphasia in left hemisphere:
a)
MCA
b)
ACA
c)
PCA
65.
This location of stroke infarcts the occipital lobe and thalamic branches:
a)
PCA
b)
MCA
c)
ACA
100 %
