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WorksheetsRed Module Final Review
Total questions: 142
Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A prescription for Accupril has been selected. Which generic medication do you select?
a)
Ramipril
b)
Quinapril
c)
Lisinopril
d)
Enalapril
2.
If circulation of oxygen to the brain is stopped, how long will it take for the brain to use up its supply of oxygen?
a)
5 seconds
b)
10 seconds
c)
15 seconds
d)
20 seconds
3.
A prescription for Trandate has been selected. Which generic medication do you select?
a)
Propranolol
b)
Sotalol
c)
Labetalol
d)
Nebivolol
4.
Which of the following drugs used for MIs and stroke prevention blocks ADP receptors, reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation?
a)
Pentoxifylline (Trental)
b)
Aspirin
c)
Dipyridamole (Persantine)
d)
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
5.
Which of the following drugs used for MIs and stroke prevention blocks ADP receptors, reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation?
a)
Pentoxifylline (Trental)
b)
Aspirin
c)
Dipyridamole (Persantine)
d)
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
6.
Which of the following drugs used for MIs and stroke prevention blocks ADP receptors, reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation?
a)
Pentoxifylline (Trental)
b)
Aspirin
c)
Dipyridamole (Persantine)
d)
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
7.
A prescription for Dilantin is received at the pharmacy. What generic medication would you select?
a)
Phenytoin
b)
Mexiletine
c)
Disopyramide
d)
Flecainide
8.
What pacemaker cells of the heart generate a normal cardiac rhythm?
a)
Atrioventricular (AV) node
b)
Sinoatrial (SA) node
9.
Which disease is a risk factor for heart problems?
a)
Epilepsy
b)
Epilepsy
c)
Diabetes
10.
What drug below is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for IV therapy of congestive heart failure and calcium channel blocker intoxication?
a)
Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
b)
Milrinone (Primacor)
c)
Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
11.
Which heart problem is the leading cause of death in industrialized nations?
a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Angina
c)
Congestive heart failure
12.
Congestive heart failure is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the body tissues, or _____.
a)
edema
b)
enema
c)
eclampsia
13.
Why do many patients with congestive heart failure resist taking ACE inhibitors?
a)
ACE inhibitors must be dosed three times daily.
b)
ACE inhibitors produce a persistent and annoying cough.
c)
ACE inhibitors are among the most costly drugs for treating cardiovascular disease.
14.
Which laboratory test indicates the proportion of the blood sample that is red blood cells?
a)
Hematocrit
b)
Partial thromboplastin time
c)
Prothrombin time
15.
Beta blockers may be used in combination with what other drug to reduce the risk of death or recurrence following a myocardial infarction?
a)
Atenolol (Tenormin)
b)
Cigoxin (Lanoxin)
c)
Bismuth subsalicylate
d)
Aspirin
16.
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an antiotension II receptor antagonist?
a)
Propranolol (Inderal)
b)
Valsartan (Diovan)
c)
Benazepril (Lotensin)
17.
What term describes a thickening of the heart muscle in an enlarged heart?
a)
Cardiomegaly
b)
Myocardial infarction (MI)
c)
Cardioversion
d)
Myocardial hypertrophy
18.
What is the drug of choice for acute attacks of angina?
a)
Digoxin (Lanoxicaps, Lanoxin)
b)
Propranolol (Inderal)
c)
Nitroglycerin (Minitran, Nitrolingual, Nitrostat)
19.
Pharmaceutical treatment for arrhythmias attempts to restore _____.
a)
syncope rhythm
b)
sinus rhythm
c)
synovial rhythm
20.
A prescription for Betapace has been selected. Which generic medication do you select?
a)
Sotalol
b)
Nebivolol
c)
Propranolol
21.
Which of the following anticoagulant drugs is available in tablet form?
a)
Warfarin (Coumadin)
b)
Heparin
c)
Dalteparin (Fragmin)
22.
A prescription for Tambocor is received at the pharmacy. What generic medication would you select?
a)
Mexiletine
b)
Disopyramide
c)
Flecainide
23.
Which fibrinolytic agent below binds to fibrin, converts plasminogen to plasmin, and is incompatible with dextrose?
a)
Tenecteplase (TNKase)
b)
Alteplase (Activase)
c)
Urokinase (Abbokinase)
24.
A prescription is received for Albuterol 2mg/ml syrup with the sig "give 3/4 teaspoonful twice daily for 25 days." The syrup is available in a 100ml bottle. How many mls are needed to fill this prescription?
a)
188mL
b)
200mL
c)
96mL
d)
163mL
25.
A prescription is received for Reglan 10mg/5ml syrup with the sig "give 1/2 tablespoonful three times daily for 5 days." The syrup is available in a 100ml bottle. How many mls are needed to fill this prescription?
a)
25mL
b)
113mL
c)
70mL
26.
Which of the following plans covers active and inactive members of the military?
a)
Blue Cross
b)
Tricare
c)
Medicare
d)
Medicaid
27.
If a patient were to get a 30 day supply of three generic medications for congestive heart failure, one brand name medication for high cholesterol, and two generic medications for diabetes, how many co-pays would she or he have?
a)
6
b)
12
c)
30
d)
26
28.
Under Medicare Part D, patients are responsible for _____ of their medication costs from $3000 to $5500.
a)
50%
b)
80%
c)
100%
d)
20%
29.
If Medicare patients do not add the drug insurance option at the time of eligibility, _____.
a)
they will not be eligible for future drug benefits
b)
the monthly cost may be higher in the future
c)
they will not be eligible for any Medicare benefits
30.
Which of the following is true regarding the tiered co-pay system?
a)
The amount of the co-pay decreases as the number of prescriptions filled increases.
b)
There is an escalating cost for generic drugs, preferred brands, and non-preferred brands.
c)
The amount of the co-pay decreases as the number of family members covered increases.
d)
There is a higher percentage paid for brand name drugs than for generic drugs.
31.
What is a tiered co-pay system?
a)
An insurance benefit in which the amount of the co-pay decreases as the number of family members covered increases.
b)
A system where a customer pays a higher percentage for brand name drugs than for generic drugs.
c)
An insurance benefit in which the amount of the co-pay decreases as the number of prescriptions filled increases.
d)
A system where there is an escalating cost for generic drugs, preferred brands, and non-preferred brands.
32.
The _____ is the flat amount the patient has to pay for each prescription.
a)
co-payment
b)
deductible
c)
minimum payment
33.
The administration of prescription drugs is outsourced to a _____ by many insurance companies.
a)
prescription benefits manager
b)
health management organization
c)
preferred provider organization
d)
Community Pharmacy
34.
Under Medicare Part D, _____.
a)
there are several national plans
b)
there are several regional insurance plans
c)
the preferred drug list is consistent from plan to plan
35.
Under Medicare Part D, Medicare _____.
a)
covers prescription drugs through mail-order pharmacies only
b)
automatically provides prescription benefits to its beneficiaries
c)
beneficiaries can purchase drug insurance for an additional charge
36.
Which of the following health plans is administered through individual states?
a)
Medicare
b)
Medicaid
37.
Which of the following populations are covered under Medicaid, provided other eligibility requirements are met?
a)
Active and inactive members of the military
b)
Persons who are indigent
c)
Persons who are disabled
d)
Both B and C
38.
The amount that must be paid by the insured before the insurance company will consider paying its portion of the medical cost is the _____.
a)
co-payment
b)
deductible
c)
minimum payment
39.
When a physician decides that a patient must have a medication that is not on the insurance company's formulary, _____ may be necessary.
a)
prior authorization
b)
switching physicians
c)
tiered co-pay
40.
Define the term health insurance.
a)
Coverage of incurred medical costs such as physician visits, laboratory costs, and hospitalization
b)
An amount that must be paid by the insured before an insurance company considers paying its portion of a medical or drug cost
c)
An escalating cost or co-pay for a generic drug, a preferred brand name drug, and a nonpreferred brand name drug
41.
Define the term deductible.
a)
he amount that a patient is to pay for each prescription
b)
Coverage of incurred medical costs such as physician visits, laboratory costs, and hospitalization
c)
An amount that must be paid by the insured before an insurance company considers paying its portion of a medical or drug cost
42.
A prescription is received for amoxicillin 400 mg/5 ml with the sig “take 3.75 ml bid for 10 days.” It is available in 50, 75, and 100 ml bottles. What is the total volume needed, and which size bottle should be used?
a)
75 ml; 100 ml bottle
b)
75 ml; 75 ml bottle
c)
37.5 ml; 50 ml bottle
43.
A prescription is received for Keflex 500 mg with the sig “take one tablet tid for 10 days.” What is the medication amount and the days supply?
a)
30 tablets; 10 days
b)
10 days; 50 tablets
c)
20 tablets; 10 days
44.
If 1200 mL is to be infused at a rate of 100 mL/hour, how long will the bag last?
a)
11 hours
b)
12 hours
c)
9 hours
d)
10 hours
45.
A volume of 75 mL is to be infused in 90 minutes using a mini-drip set. What is the flow rate in milliliters per hour?
a)
50 mL/hour
b)
75mL/hour
c)
59mL/hour
46.
How many grams of NaCl are in 500 mL of normal saline (0.9% NaCl solution)?
a)
3.0 g
b)
4.5g
c)
0.9g
d)
0.45g
47.
How many grams of dextrose are in 350 mL of D5W?
a)
175g
b)
0.175g
c)
17.5 g
d)
10 g
48.
How many milligrams of drug are in 45 mL of a 1.5% w/v solution?
a)
675 mg
b)
68 mg
c)
3 mg
d)
0.478 mg
49.
How many milligrams of drug are in 30 g of a 15% w/v cream?
a)
4500 mg
b)
200 mg
c)
50 mg
d)
4.5 mg
50.
A 2 L IV bag is infused at a rate of 175 mL/hour. How often will a new bag be needed?
a)
Q11 H
b)
Q8 H
c)
Q10 H
51.
A 1 L bag is running at 130 mL/hour. How many 1 L bags are needed for a 24 hour time period?
a)
3 bags
b)
8 bags
c)
7 bags
d)
4 bags
52.
A patient is receiving 1 g of cefazolin in a 100 mL bag of D5W at a rate of 50 mL/hour. How many milligrams per hour will be administered?
a)
1000 mg/hour
b)
500 mg/hour
c)
100 mg/hour
53.
An IV that contains 2 mg in 150 mL is being infused at a rate of 25 mL/hour. How many micrograms will be administered per hour?
a)
333 mcg/hr
b)
500 mcg/hour
c)
100 mg/hour
54.
A volume of 500 mL of whole blood is being infused into an anemic patient over 4 hours. The nurse is using a 10 drop set. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
a)
21 gtt/min
b)
50 gtt/min
55.
What drug is used to treat Hodgkin disease?
a)
Imatinib (Gleevec)
b)
Gefitnib (Iressa)
c)
Pemetrexad (Alimta)
d)
Procarbazine (Matulane)
56.
Which immunoglobulin is the main Ig in salivary and bronchial secretions?
a)
IgA
b)
IgM
c)
IgE
57.
Clinical trials are conducted on _____, whereas toxicological trials are conducted on _____.
a)
animals; humans
b)
humans; animals
58.
Wrongs committed against _____ are called torts.
a)
the federal government
b)
the state
c)
another citizen
59.
Adulterated drugs are those _____.
a)
prepared with unsafe color additives
b)
in containers made from poisonous substances
c)
packed under unsanitary conditions
d)
All of the above.
60.
When advertising a drug to the public, the manufacturer must disclose _____.
a)
side effects
b)
cost
c)
dosage
61.
Contributory negligence occurs when _____.
a)
the patient fails to pay the required co-pay
b)
two or more causes are a factor in the negligence and personal injury
c)
all the above
62.
Standard of care is defined as the _____.
a)
level of care expected from healthcare providers
b)
minimum score required to pass the boards
c)
wrongs one citizen commits against another
63.
A pharmacy technician would know that a drug is a monoclonal antibody if _____.
a)
the name of the drug ends in "mus"
b)
the name of the drug ends in "cin"
c)
the name of the drug ends in "mab"
64.
What drug combination is known as "Magic Swizzle"?
a)
Phenol-sodium borate-sodium bicarbonate-glycerin
b)
Lidocaine-diphenhydramine-Maalox
c)
Phenol-sodium borate-sodium bicarbonate-glycerin
65.
What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?
a)
To maintain the balance of water, electrolytes, and acids and bases in the extra-cellular fluid
b)
To filter body fluids by nodes, vessels, and lymphocytes before the fluids return to general circulation
c)
To produce secretions that are responsible for specific regulatory effects on organs and other tissues of the body
66.
What is a serious oral complication that can result from chemotherapy?
a)
Micloglia
b)
Mucositis
c)
Mitosis
67.
Which drug is a secretion-thinning enzyme used in managing cystic fibrosis?
a)
Antihemophilic factor (Alphanate)
b)
Sargramostim (Leukine)
c)
Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)
68.
Which of the following drugs is used to treat symptoms of organ rejection, although the first dose may cause severe pulmonary edema?
a)
Azathioprine (Imuran)
b)
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
c)
Mycophenolate (CellCept)
69.
What is another name for antihemophilic factor?
a)
Factor VIII
b)
Factor V
c)
Factor VII
70.
Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with the type of cancer it is used to treat?
a)
Flutamide (Eulexin) - breast
b)
Megestrol - breast
c)
Triptorelin (Trelstar) - prostate
71.
Which type of immune cells are memory cells?
a)
T cells
b)
B cells
c)
Small lymphocytes
72.
Which drug listed below is indicated for ovarian cancer, should not be used in pregnant patients, and almost always causes hair loss?
a)
Paclitaxel (Taxol)
b)
Fludarabine (Fludara)
c)
Chlorambucil (Leukeran)
73.
What are immunoglobulins?
a)
Substances that mediate an inflammatory reaction
b)
Proteins with antibody activity
c)
Substances that are foreign to the body
74.
A prescription is received for Percocet-7.5 with the sig "take 1 tablet q 4-6h prn for 30 days." What is the medication amount and the days supply?
a)
120 tablets; 30 days
b)
30 days; 180 tablets
c)
500 mg; 120 days
75.
Schedule V drugs sold without a prescription are stored where?
a)
Behind the counter (not in Texas)
b)
In a locked container (not in Texas)
c)
With CII drugs (not in Texas)
76.
What are some of the costs associated with keeping excess inventory in stock?
a)
Hinders cash flow
b)
Potential for theft or contamination
c)
Potential waste if inventory expires
d)
All the Above
77.
_____ is defined as the total value of the drugs and merchandise in stock on a given day.
a)
Inventory value
b)
Physical inventory
c)
Average inventory
78.
Online adjudication refers to the process of _____.
a)
updating the patient profile information
b)
processing prescription claims online
c)
All the Above
79.
In what circumstance can medications be returned by patients for credit?
a)
Unopened vial
b)
Adverse reaction
c)
Drug recall
80.
What should be done first if a damaged shipment is received?
a)
Sell damaged items at a reduced rate.
b)
Salvage as much of the shipment as possible.
c)
Notify the wholesaler immediately.
81.
Advantages of wholesaler purchasing include _____.
a)
lower inventory and inventory-associated costs
b)
occasional back orders
82.
Which of the following should occur as part of the receiving process?
a)
Order products for use or sale by the pharmacy.
b)
Verify the number of totes delivered from the wholesaler.
c)
Request the delivery personnel to unpack the totes.
83.
Potential solutions for temporary unavailability of a medication from a supplier include _____.
a)
transferring the prescription to a competing pharmacy
b)
identifying an alternate source
c)
borrowing the product from another pharmacy
d)
All the Above
84.
Medications with _____ expiration date should be stocked so that they will be used first.
a)
the longest
b)
the shortest
85.
Which of the following occurs in a computerized inventory control system?
a)
When medications are purchased, the information is entered into a computer database.
b)
Medications are automatically purchased each time they are dispensed.
86.
The rationale for inventory management is _____.
a)
to save as much money as possible on materials
b)
to receive pharmaceuticals in a timely manner
87.
Select the true statement regarding workers' compensation claims.
a)
The pharmacy must have a contract with the specific third-party prescription benefits manager (PBM).
b)
All classes of medications are covered for each patient.
c)
The workers' compensation replaces the patient's primary insurance.
88.
If a patient's birth date is incorrect in the PBM database, what steps are involved in working around and correcting it?
a)
The technician must call the PBM and verify the birth date.
b)
The patient asks the PBM to correct the date and notifies the pharmacy of the change.
c)
The technician processes the current claim using the incorrect birth date.
d)
All of the above.
89.
In _____ purchasing, a number of pharmacies work together to negotiate a discount for high-volume purchases.
a)
independent
b)
direct
c)
group
90.
A database management system allows one to _____.
a)
enter information into the computer
b)
query records on the computer
c)
retrieve information from the computer
d)
All the above
91.
Which of the following is a central nervous system agent used to treat hypertension?
a)
Guanfacine (Tenex)
b)
Minoxidil (Loniten)
c)
Losartan (Cozaar)
92.
What are two lifestyle factors that may contribute to the development of heart disease?
a)
Hereditary and cigarette smoking
b)
Gender and increasing age
c)
Obesity and diabetes
93.
What is not characteristic of cholesterol?
a)
It is a waxlike, powdery substance.
b)
It is in foods of animal origin.
c)
It is in foods of plant origin.
94.
Which of the following drugs reduces cholesterol levels by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, the enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol?
a)
Simvastatin (Zocor)
b)
Niacin (Simcor)
c)
Ezetimibe (Zetia)
95.
Insulin syringes are marked in _____.
a)
units
b)
cubic centimeters
c)
ounces
96.
Which organ of the body is responsible for making new cholesterol when needed?
a)
Pancreas
b)
Kidneys
c)
Liver
97.
In order to purchase Sudafed 24 hr tablets (pseudoephedrine 240 mg), one must provide a _____.
a)
birth certificate
b)
health insurance card
c)
driver's license
98.
Which responsibility for over-the-counter medications may a pharmacy technician assume?
a)
Selecting an OTC drug for an adult
b)
Calculating the dose for a pediatric patient
c)
Ordering or rearranging inventory
99.
Which of the following drugs requires the use of a DEA 222 form?
a)
Legend
b)
Controlled
c)
Schedule II
100.
Prescriptions for schedule _____ drugs must be kept separate from other prescriptions.
a)
II
b)
III
c)
IV
101.
Many states have laws restricting the access and sales of products containing _____.
a)
diphenhydramine
b)
pseudoephedrine
102.
Records of Schedule V sales must include _____.
a)
address of purchaser
b)
insurance information of purchaser
c)
technician handling the sale
103.
An example of a diet supplement includes _____.
a)
garlic capsules
b)
psyllium (Metamucil)
c)
cranberry juice
104.
Under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), _____.
a)
health insurance can be moved between employers without restrictions
b)
an employer can refuse to cover a new employee's pre-existing condition
c)
an employer will pay for a former employee's health insurance for 18 months
105.
Which of the following may prescribe controlled substances?
a)
Chiropractors
b)
Dentists
c)
Physical therapists
106.
Select the true statement regarding the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board.
a)
It develops and administers pharmacy technician certification programs.
b)
It determines disciplinary action for pharmacy technicians.
c)
It is the national union for pharmacy technicians.
107.
Accreditation by the Joint Commission _____.
a)
is voluntary under the law
b)
is required by many insurance carriers
c)
involves a rigorous inspection process
d)
All of the above.
108.
In the preparation of a compounded prescription, which of the following activities must be performed by a pharmacist?
a)
Selecting equipment
b)
Calculating weights
109.
The pharmacy technician may typically _____.
a)
prepare medication labels
b)
review a patient profile
110.
The Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) has authority over _____.
a)
pharmacy practice at the state level
b)
Medicare and Medicaid programs
c)
the manufacture and sale of drugs
111.
The purpose of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was to _____.
a)
provide safe food and drug products for human use
b)
prohibit interstate transportation of adulterated drugs
c)
define adulteration of drugs or food
112.
To combat and control drug abuse, the _____ Act was passed.
a)
Poison Prevention
b)
Controlled Substances
c)
Durham-Humphrey
113.
The amendment that required that drugs be effective as well as safe was the _____.
a)
Poison Prevention Amendment
b)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
c)
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
114.
An orphan drug is one _____.
a)
that is available as the generic form only
b)
that is intended for use in a few patients with a rare disease
c)
that is awaiting FDA approval
115.
A Schedule II drug _____.
a)
cannot be prescribed by phone except in an emergency
b)
cannot be refilled
c)
has potential for severe psychological and physical dependence
d)
All of the Above
116.
The Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 prohibits _____.
a)
advertising of prescription drugs to consumers
b)
re-importation of drugs into the U.S. by anyone except the manufacturer
c)
the distribution of samples to physicians
117.
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act requires the manufacturers to provide _____.
a)
rebates to Medicaid for the difference between wholesale and average billed prices
b)
drugs at the least expensive prices to retailers
c)
drugs at the least expensive prices to patients
118.
The creation of both generic and innovative new drugs is encouraged by the _____ Act.
a)
Orphan Drug
b)
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation
c)
Drug Price Competition and Patent-Term Restoration
119.
The _____ Act requires that pharmacists review the patient's profile and offer to counsel the patient.
a)
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation
b)
Orphan Drug
c)
Prescription Drug Marketing
120.
Select the true statement regarding generic drugs.
a)
They can be marketed by any manufacturer once the original patent expires.
b)
They are inferior to brand name drugs.
121.
Prescriptions for Schedule III, IV, and V drugs are usually refillable for up to _____.
a)
3 months from date written
b)
6 months from date written
c)
8 months from date written
d)
2 months from date written
122.
Which of the following is regulated by the FDA?
a)
Content of advertising
b)
Labeling OTC medications
c)
Approval of new drugs
d)
All the above
123.
A cytoprotective agent is also known as a(n) _____.
a)
antirejection drug
b)
cholinergic agent
c)
rescue agent
124.
Which of the following is not a drug that is used to prevent mucositis resulting from chemotherapy?
a)
Meperidine (Demerol)
b)
Hydrogen peroxide (Peroxyl)
c)
Pilocarpine (Salagen)
125.
The production of _____ can be intercepted by drugs made for the prevention of breast cancer.
a)
progesterone
b)
estrogen
c)
medroxyprogesterone
126.
The technique that uses the information processing of living organisms or parts of organisms for specific purposes is defined as _____.
a)
recombinant DNA
b)
complementary DNA (cDNA)
127.
What is responsible for protein activity?
a)
Linear chains of amino acids
b)
The folds and twists of amino acid chains into a three-dimensional shape
c)
A sequence of three amino acids
128.
Pooled sources of human plasma or tissues from which protein is extracted _____.
a)
is available in large quantities
b)
is available in small quantities
c)
comes from unlimited sources
129.
_____ may be given to suppress infection and increase the production of white blood cells in patients receiving chemotherapy.
a)
Interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif)
b)
Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)
c)
Pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)
130.
What is the first step in creating a protein, based on a specific DNA sequence?
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
131.
Which of the following drugs is produced from the use of recombinant DNA technology?
a)
Cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
b)
Aldesleukin (Proleukin)
c)
Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
132.
What is the part of DNA where protein production starts?
a)
Promoter sequence
b)
RNA polymerase
c)
Terminator sequence
133.
The final step in the natural process for making proteins is _____.
a)
transcription
b)
replication
c)
translation
134.
What is the advantage of recombinant DNA technology?
a)
It can produce pure human protein in large quantities.
b)
It can produce pure human protein far less expensively than traditional technology.
135.
Which biologic-response modifier has been approved for use in hairy cell leukemia?
a)
Interferon
b)
Interleukin-2
c)
Tumor-necrosis factor
136.
Drugs useful against neoplasms of reproductive tissues include _____.
a)
nitrogen mustards
b)
antimetabolites
c)
hormones
137.
_____ is a class of recombinant DNA drugs used to influence the bone marrow to produce blood cells.
a)
Colony-stimulating factor
b)
Biologic-response modifier
c)
Hematologic agent
138.
Which of the following cytoprotective drugs is used to reduce the side effects and toxicity of chemotherapy agents?
a)
Amifostine (Ethyol)
b)
Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)
c)
Leucovorin
d)
All of the above.
139.
Which of the following drugs is used to suppress the immune system to prevent organ transplant rejection?
a)
Basiliximab (Simulect)
b)
Amifostine (Ethyol)
c)
Cyclolsporine (Sandimmune)
140.
Which of the following drugs is used to suppress the immune system to prevent organ transplant rejection?
a)
Alemtuzumab (Campath)
b)
Pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)
c)
Tacrolimus (Prograf)
141.
Which class of drugs typically ends its generic name with “stim?”
a)
Biologic response modifiers
b)
Immunoglobulins
c)
Cytoprotective agents
d)
Colony-Stimulating Factors
142.
Which of the following drugs is used to produce red blood cells?
a)
Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Progrit)
b)
Filgrastim, (Neupogen)
c)
Pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)
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