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WorksheetsEarth Science Final Review
Total questions: 87
Worksheet time: 59mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the approximate density of a mineral with a mass of 262.2 grams that displaces 46 cubic centimeters of water?
a)
1.8 g/cm3
b)
5.7 g/cm3
c)
6.1 g/cm3
d)
12.2 g/cm3
2.
As air on the surface of Earth warms, the density of the air
a)
decreases
b)
increases
c)
remains the same
3.
Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, three different samples of the same uniform substance will have the same
a)
shape
b)
density
c)
mass
d)
volume
4.
Which two elements make up the greatest percentages by mass in Earth’s crust?
a)
oxygen and potassium
b)
oxygen and silicon
c)
aluminum and potassium
d)
aluminum and silicon
5.
Which New York State city is located at 42°39' N 73°45' W?
a)
Buffalo
b)
Albany
c)
Ithaca
d)
Plattsburgh
6.
A ship is at a location of 40° S 77° W. Which type of surface ocean current and tectonic plate boundary are located beneath this ship?
a)
warm ocean current and a transform boundary
b)
warm ocean current and a convergent boundary
c)
cool ocean current and a transform boundary
d)
cool ocean current and a convergent boundary
7.
What is the approximate altitude of Polaris at Syracuse, New York?
a)
43°
b)
47°
c)
76°
d)
90°
8.
If an observer on Earth views Polaris on the horizon, the observer is located at the
a)
equator (0°)
b)
North Pole (90° N)
c)
Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N)
d)
Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S)
9.
At which New York State location would an observer measure the highest altitude of Polaris?
a)
New York City
b)
Slide Mountain
c)
Niagara Falls
d)
Plattsburgh
10.
We can tell that our sun smaller in size than Polaris, because:
a)
Our sun is cooler, but has the same luminosity
b)
Our sun is more luminous, but has the same temperature
c)
Our sun is less luminous, but has the same temperature
d)
Polaris is a special star
11.
The Y-axis or vertical axis on the Characteristics of Stars diagram shows the following:
a)
The categories of all the stars
b)
The colors of the stars
c)
The brightness of stars
d)
The velocity at which stars travel
12.
The vast majority of stars on the Characteristics of Stars diagram are classified as:
a)
white dwarfs
b)
main sequence
c)
giants
d)
supergiants
13.
Earth, the Sun, and billions of stars are contained within
a)
a single constellation
b)
the Milky Way galaxy
c)
the solar system
d)
a giant cloud of gas
14.
Since Earth has an elliptical orbit, the
a)
distance between the Sun and Earth varies
b)
distance between the Sun and the other focus varies
c)
length of Earth’s major axis varies
d)
length of Earth’s period of revolution varies
15.
Which planet has completed less than one orbit of the Sun in the last 100 years?
a)
Mars
b)
Mercury
c)
Neptune
d)
Uranus
16.
Which terms describe the motion of most objects in our solar system?
a)
noncyclic and unpredictable
b)
noncyclic and predictable
c)
cyclic and unpredictable
d)
cyclic and predictable
17.
The theory that the universe is expanding is supported by data from the
a)
nuclear decay of radioactive materials
b)
nuclear fusion of radioactive materials
c)
blue shift of light from distant galaxies
d)
red shift of light from distant galaxies
18.
The best evidence of Earth’s rotation is provided by the
a)
shape of Earth’s orbit
b)
shape of the Milky Way galaxy
c)
changes in the total yearly duration of insolation at a location on Earth
d)
apparent changes in the direction of swing of a Foucault pendulum
19.
Which statement best describes Earth’s approximate rates of rotation and revolution?
a)
Earth’s rotation rate is 15°/hour and its revolution rate is 1°/day.
b)
Earth’s rotation rate is 1°/hour and its revolution rate is 15°/day.
c)
Earth’s rotation rate is 24°/hour and its revolution rate is 360°/day.
d)
Earth’s rotation rate is 360°/hour and its revolution rate is 24°/day.
20.
Which process combines lighter elements into heavier elements and produces energy within the Sun and other stars?
a)
fusion
b)
insolation
c)
conduction
d)
radioactive decay
21.
Why is the surface of Mercury covered with meteor impact craters, while Earth’s surface has relatively few craters?
a)
Mercury is larger than Earth, so it gets hit with more meteors.
b)
Mercury is an older planet, so it has a longer history of meteor impacts.
c)
Earth’s less dense water surface attracts fewer meteors.
d)
Earth’s hydrosphere and atmosphere destroyed or buried most meteor impact sites.
22.
As Earth travels in its orbit, Earth’s axis
a)
remains parallel to itself at all Earth positions
b)
remains aligned with the Sun’s axis
c)
is perpendicular to the Moon’s axis
d)
is pointing toward the center of the Milky Way
23.
A high tide occurred at 6:00 a.m. at a beach on Long Island. The next high tide at this same beach would occur at approximately
a)
12:15 p.m. on the same day
b)
6:30 p.m. on the same day
c)
12:45 p.m. on the following day
d)
7:00 a.m. on the following day
24.
During which Moon phase might a solar eclipse be viewed on Earth?
a)
new Moon
b)
first quarter
c)
full Moon
d)
last quarter
25.
Why do the planets in our solar system have a layered internal structure?
a)
All planets cooled rapidly after they formed.
b)
The Sun exerts a gravitational force on the planets.
c)
Each planet is composed of materials of different densities.
d)
Cosmic dust settled in layers on the planets’ surfaces.
26.
Which group of substances is arranged in order of decreasing specific heat values?
a)
iron, granite, basalt
b)
copper, lead, iron
c)
dry air, water vapor, ice
d)
liquid water, ice, water vapor
27.
During which phase change does water release the most heat energy?
a)
freezing
b)
melting
c)
condensation
d)
vaporization
28.
Which transfer of energy occurs mainly through the process of convection?
a)
electromagnetic energy transferred from the Sun to the Moon
b)
solar energy transferred through space to Earth’s surface
c)
heated air in the lower atmosphere transferred upward by density differences
d)
heat from radioactive decay transferred by molecular collisions to surrounding mantle rock
29.
Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?
a)
ultraviolet
b)
gamma rays
c)
visible light
d)
radio waves
30.
The impacts of large asteroids on Earth are inferred to be associated with
a)
free oxygen entering Earth’s atmosphere
b)
seafloor spreading
c)
the creation of subduction zones
d)
global climatic changes
31.
Monsoons develop as a result of
a)
large changes between the temperatures of a continent and neighboring oceans
b)
a continent and neighboring oceans having nearly the same temperatures
c)
air rising over Earth’s equatorial region
d)
air sinking over Earth’s polar regions
32.
Which hot spot location on Earth’s surface usually receives the greatest intensity of insolation on June 21?
a)
Iceland
b)
Hawaii
c)
Easter Island
d)
Yellowstone
33.
Global warming is most likely occurring due to an increase in
a)
carbon dioxide and methane gases in the atmosphere
b)
oxygen and nitrogen gases in the atmosphere
c)
ultraviolet radiation and x rays reflected from Earth
d)
visible light and radio waves reflected from Earth
34.
Which natural event temporarily slows or reverses surface ocean currents in the equatorial region of the Pacific Ocean, causing a disruption of normal weather patterns?
a)
monsoons
b)
volcanic eruptions
c)
El Niño
d)
deforestation
35.
During an El Niño event, surface water temperatures increase along the west coast of South America. Which weather changes are likely to occur in this region?
a)
decreased air temperature and decreased precipitation
b)
decreased air temperature and increased precipitation
c)
increased air temperature and increased precipitation
d)
increased air temperature and decreased precipitation
36.
Which event is inferred to have contributed to the significant global climate change that may have caused the mass extinctions of organisms at the end of the Late Cretaceous Epoch?
a)
the Big Bang
b)
an asteroid impact
c)
formation of Pangaea
d)
shifting of Earth’s magnetic poles
37.
A fossil formed 11,400 years ago. Which percentage of the original amount of carbon-14 remains in the fossil?
a)
100%
b)
50%
c)
25%
d)
12.5%
38.
Which geologic event occurred in New York State at approximately the same time as the extinction of dinosaurs and ammonoids?
a)
formation of the Queenston Delta
b)
deposition of the sands and clays underlying Long Island
c)
initial opening of the Atlantic Ocean
d)
advance and retreat of the last continental ice sheet
39.
Fossils of which type of animal would most likely be found in the surface bedrock of the Catskills?
a)
reptiles
b)
brachiopods
c)
mammals
d)
birds
40.
The accumulation of water vapor, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen in Earth’s early atmosphere approximately 4 billion years ago resulted mainly from
a)
outgassing from Earth's interior
b)
photosynthesis by the earliest land plants
c)
convection currents in Earth’s outer core
d)
radioactive decay
41.
The major source of oxygen in Earth’s Early Proterozoic atmosphere is inferred to have been produced by
a)
oceanic cyanobacteria
b)
outgassing from volcanic eruptions
c)
radioactive decay in Earth’s inner core
d)
evaporation of ocean water
42.
Valcouroceras is a New York State index fossil. Which mountain-building event occurred in New York State during the time when Valcouroceras was living in oceans covering parts of New York State?
a)
Alleghenian orogeny
b)
Acadian orogeny
c)
Taconian orogeny
d)
Grenville orogeny
43.
Due to radioactive decay, an igneous rock sample now contains one-fourth of the amount of potassium-40 that it originally contained. The age, in years, of this rock sample is approximately
a)
0.7 × 109 y
b)
1.3 × 109 y
c)
2.6 × 109 y
d)
5.2 × 109 y
44.
Organisms that later became good index fossils lived over a
a)
wide geographic area and existed for a long geologic time
b)
wide geographic area and existed for a short geologic time
c)
limited geographic area and existed for a long geologic time
d)
limited geographic area and existed for a short geologic time
45.
The Andes Mountains and the Peru-Chile Trench must have formed when the Nazca Plate:
a)
Slid past the Sandwich Plate
b)
Collided with the South American Plate
c)
Moved toward the Pacific Plate
d)
Collided with the Eurasian Plate Option 4 (optional)
46.
Which tectonic feature is associated with a complex or uncertain plate boundary?
a)
Southwest Indian Ridge
b)
East African Rift
c)
Mariana Trench
d)
Galapagos Hot Spot
47.
A P-wave takes 5 minutes to travel from the epicenter of an earthquake to a seismic station. Approximately how many minutes will it take an S-wave to travel that same distance?
a)
15 min
b)
12 min
c)
9 min
d)
4 min
48.
The epicenter of an earthquake is located 6500 kilometers away from a seismic station. If the first S-wave arrived at this seismic station at 1:30 p.m., at what time did the first P-wave arrive?
a)
1:20 p.m.
b)
1:22 p.m.
c)
1:38 p.m.
d)
1:40 p.m.
49.
The arrival time of the first earthquake P-wave at a seismograph station was 10:11:20 (hours: minutes: seconds). If the epicenter of the earthquake is 8000 km away, what was the approximate arrival time of the first S-wave from this earthquake?
a)
10:02:00
b)
10:09:20
c)
10:20:40
d)
10:32:00
50.
An earthquake occurs at 12:02 p.m. A seismic station records the first S-wave at 12:19 p.m. Which set of data shows the approximate arrival time of the first P-wave and the distance to the epicenter?
a)
12:11:25 p.m. and 4000 km
b)
12:11:25 p.m. and 6000 km
c)
12:19:40 p.m. and 4000 km
d)
12:19:40 p.m. and 6000 km
51.
The natural sandblasting (abrasion) of surface bedrock in a desert region is the result of
a)
wind erosion
b)
wave erosion
c)
mass movement
d)
chemical precipitation
52.
A river’s velocity slows from 100 to 50 centimeters per second at a point in its channel. Which statement best describes the transport and deposition of particles at this point?
a)
Clay, silt, sand, pebbles, and smaller cobbles stay in transport; some cobbles are deposited.
b)
Clay, silt, sand, and smaller pebbles stay in transport; some pebbles are deposited.
c)
Clay, silt, and smaller sand stay in transport; some sand is deposited
d)
Clay and smaller silt stay in transport; some silt is deposited.
53.
A group hiking in the Catskill region of New York State finds several large boulders composed of metamorphic rock. These boulders most likely resulted from the weathering of bedrock formed in the
a)
Catskills, and were transported to their present location by mass movement
b)
Catskills, and were transported to their present location by glaciers
c)
Adirondack Mountains, and were transported to their present location by mass movement
d)
Adirondack Mountains, and were transported to their present location by glaciers
54.
Which rock weathers most rapidly when exposed to acid rain?
a)
quartzite
b)
granite
c)
basalt
d)
limestone
55.
On earth, the predominate agent of erosion is
a)
wave action
b)
moving ice
c)
running water
d)
moving air
56.
The formation of soil is primarily the result of
a)
stream erosion and mass movement
b)
stream deposition and runoff
c)
precipitation and wind erosion
d)
weathering and biological activity
58.
What occurs when a rock is crushed into a pile of fragments?
a)
The total surface area decreases and chemical composition changes.
b)
The total surface area decreases and chemical composition remains the same.
c)
The total surface area increases and chemical composition changes.
d)
The total surface area increases and chemical composition remains the same.
58.
What occurs when a rock is crushed into a pile of fragments?
a)
The total surface area decreases and chemical composition changes.
b)
The total surface area decreases and chemical composition remains the same.
c)
The total surface area increases and chemical composition changes.
d)
The total surface area increases and chemical composition remains the same.
59.
Which change in the climate of a location would most likely cause the greatest increase in chemical weathering of local bedrock?
a)
lower temperature in winter
b)
lower humidity in winter
c)
higher atmospheric pressure in summer
d)
greater precipitation in summer
60.
When two tectonic plates collide, oceanic crust usually subducts beneath continental crust because oceanic crust is primarily composed of igneous rock that has
a)
low density and is mafic
b)
low density and is felsic
c)
high density and is mafic
d)
high density and is felsic
61.
An earthquake’s magnitude can be determined by
a)
analyzing the seismic waves recorded by a seismograph
b)
calculating the depth of the earthquake faulting
c)
calculating the time the earthquake occurred
d)
comparing the speed of P-waves and S-waves
62.
Which geologic feature resulted from the collision of North America and Africa, as parts of Pangaea joined together in the Pennsylvanian Period?
a)
Allegheny Plateau
b)
Acadian Mountains
c)
Taconic Mountains
d)
Grenville Mountains
63.
Hot springs on the ocean floor near the mid-ocean ridges provide evidence that
a)
convection currents exist in the asthenosphere
b)
meteor craters are found beneath the oceans
c)
climate change has melted huge glaciers
d)
marine fossils have been uplifted to high elevations
64.
A cycle of Moon phases can be seen from Earth because the
a)
Moon’s distance from Earth changes at a predictable rate
b)
Moon’s axis is tilted
c)
Moon spins on its axis
d)
Moon revolves around Earth
65.
Air pressure is usually highest when the air is
a)
cool and humid
b)
cool and dry
c)
warm and humid
d)
warm and dry
66.
Which geographic region is the most common source region for the mT air masses that move into New York State?
a)
northern Canada
b)
Gulf of Mexico
c)
Arctic Ocean
d)
southwestern United States
67.
What is the dewpoint if the relative humidity is 100% and the air temperature is 20°C?
a)
0°C
b)
10°C
c)
20°C
d)
100°C
68.
Cloud formation is likely to occur in rising air because rising air:
a)
expands and cools
b)
expands and warms
c)
contracts and cools
d)
contracts and warms
69.
A low-pressure system in the Northern Hemisphere has a surface air-circulation pattern that is
a)
clockwise and away from the center
b)
clockwise and toward the center
c)
counterclockwise and away from the center
d)
counterclockwise and toward the center
70.
Which New York State location is most likely to experience the heaviest winter snowfall when the surface winds are blowing from the west or northwest?
a)
New York City
b)
Binghamton
c)
Oswego
d)
Plattsburgh
71.
How old is a bone that has 12.5% of the original amount of radioactive carbon-14 remaining?
a)
5,700 years
b)
11,400 years
c)
17,100 years
d)
22,800 years
72.
According to the graph, what is the half-life of this isotope?
a)
100 years
b)
150 years
c)
200 years
d)
300 years
73.
The surface temperature of which sample increased at the slowest rate?
a)
water
b)
basaltic sand
c)
copper pennies
d)
iron fragments
74.
The average rate of temperature change, in Fahrenheit degrees per hour, between 6 a.m. and noon was
a)
6 °/h
b)
8 °/h
c)
3 °/h
d)
18 °/h
75.
What is the density of this material?
a)
1.0 g/cm3
b)
5.0 g/cm3
c)
10.0 g/cm3
d)
20.0 g/cm3
76.
How many joules are required to evaporate 1 gram of boiling water?
a)
4
b)
334
c)
2260
d)
2594
77.
Which pie graph correctly shows the percentage of elements by volume in Earth's troposphere?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
78.
New York State’s Catskills are classified as which type of landscape region?
a)
mountain
b)
plateau
c)
lowland
d)
plain
79.
The surface bedrock at which location is most likely to contain this fossil (Bothriolepis)
a)
Ithaca
b)
Old Forge
c)
Albany
d)
New York City
80.
Which ocean current warms the climate of northwestern Europe?
a)
North Atlantic Current
b)
North Equatorial Current
c)
Canary Current
d)
Labrador Current
81.
Which surface feature was produced by crustal movements at a transform plate boundary
a)
East African Rift
b)
Tasman Hot Spot
c)
Aleutian Trench
d)
San Andreas Fault
82.
Which list correctly classifies each rock type?
a)
1 - Sedimentary
2- Metamorphic
3 - Igneous
b)
1 - Sedimentary
2 - Igneous
3 - Metamorphic
c)
1 - Metamorphic
2 - Igneous
3 - Sedimentary
d)
1 - Igneous
2 - Metamorphic
3 - Sedimentary
83.
A stream flowing at a velocity of 100 centimeters per second can transport
a)
silt, but not sand, pebbles, or cobbles
b)
silt and sand, but not pebbles or cobbles
c)
silt, sand, and pebbles, but not cobbles
d)
silt, sand, pebbles, and cobbles
84.
hich igneous rock is dark colored, cooled rapidly on Earth's surface, and is composed mainly of plagioclase feldspar, olivine, and pyroxene
a)
Obsidian
b)
Rhyolite
c)
Gabbro
d)
Scoria
85.
Which sedimentary rocks are clastic and consist of particles that have diameters smaller than 0.006 centimeter?
a)
conglomerate and sandstone
b)
siltstone and shale
c)
bituminous coal and breccia
d)
fossil limestone and chemical limestone
86.
Which process most likely formed a layer of the sedimentary rock, gypsum
a)
precipitation from seawater
b)
folding of clay-sized particles
c)
solidification of magma
d)
melting of sand-sized particles
87.
The metamorphic rock at location A is most likely
a)
marble
b)
quartzite
c)
phyllite
d)
slate
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