WorksheetsMicrobiology - Chapter 19
Total questions: 98
Worksheet time: 49mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What are prokaryotes?
a)
unicellular organisms that lack a nucleus
b)
unicellular organisms that have a nucleus
c)
multicellular organisms that lack a nucleus
d)
multicellular organisms that have a nucleus
2.
What are bacteria?
a)
prokaryotes
b)
eubacteria
c)
archaebacteria
d)
unicellulars
3.
What are eubacteria?
a)
larger of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains peptidoglycan in cell walls
b)
larger of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains NO peptidoglycan in cell walls
c)
smaller of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains peptidoglycan in cell walls
d)
smaller of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains NO peptidoglycan in cell walls
4.
What are archaebacteria?
a)
larger of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains peptidoglycan in cell walls
b)
larger of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains NO peptidoglycan in cell walls
c)
smaller of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains peptidoglycan in cell walls
d)
smaller of two prokaroytic kingdoms; contains NO peptidoglycan in cell walls
5.
Identify the shape of this bacterium.
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirillum
d)
staph
6.
Identify the shape of this bacterium.
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirillum
d)
staph
7.
Identify the shape of this bacterium.
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirillum
d)
staph
8.
How can you tell if a bacterium is gram-positive?
a)
After the alcohol wash, the Crystal violet remains in the cell walls (purple)
b)
After the alcohol wash, the Crystal violet leaves the cell walls & the counterstain appears (pink)
c)
The bacterium is cyanobacteria and shows a cyan tint (blue)
d)
The bacteria is identified as eubacteria.
9.
How can you tell if a bacterium is gram-negative?
a)
After the alcohol wash, the Crystal violet remains in the cell walls (purple)
b)
After the alcohol wash, the Crystal violet leaves the cell walls & the counterstain appears (pink)
c)
The bacterium is cyanobacteria and shows a cyan tint (blue)
d)
The bacteria is identified as eubacteria.
10.
What are flagella?
a)
whip-like structures used for movement
b)
receptors on the outside of bacteria cells
c)
a "bridge" used in some forms of reproduction, such as conjugation
d)
none of the above
11.
Bob the Bacteria is a chemoheterotrophic bacteria. Select the description that would match with Bob.
a)
Bob is a prokaryote which must take in organic molecules for BOTH energy and a supply of carbon
b)
Bob is a prokaryote which are photosynthetic, but must take in organic compounds for a supply of carbon
c)
Bob is a prokaryote which use photosynthesis (light energy) as an energy source and a supply of carbon
d)
Bob is a prokaryote which use energy directly from chemical reactions involving ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, nitrites, sulfur, or iron (must are found near hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor)
12.
Bob the Bacteria is a photoheterotrophic bacteria. Select the description that would match with Bob.
a)
Bob is a prokaryote which must take in organic molecules for BOTH energy and a supply of carbon
b)
Bob is a prokaryote which are photosynthetic, but must take in organic compounds for a supply of carbon
c)
Bob is a prokaryote which use photosynthesis (light energy) as an energy source and a supply of carbon
d)
Bob is a prokaryote which use energy directly from chemical reactions involving ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, nitrites, sulfur, or iron (must are found near hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor)
13.
Bob the Bacteria is a photoautotrophic bacteria. Select the description that would match with Bob.
a)
Bob is a prokaryote which must take in organic molecules for BOTH energy and a supply of carbon
b)
Bob is a prokaryote which are photosynthetic, but must take in organic compounds for a supply of carbon
c)
Bob is a prokaryote which use photosynthesis (light energy) as an energy source and a supply of carbon
d)
Bob is a prokaryote which use energy directly from chemical reactions involving ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, nitrites, sulfur, or iron (must are found near hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor)
14.
Bob the Bacteria is a chemoautotrophic bacteria. Select the description that would match with Bob.
a)
Bob is a prokaryote which must take in organic molecules for BOTH energy and a supply of carbon
b)
Bob is a prokaryote which are photosynthetic, but must take in organic compounds for a supply of carbon
c)
Bob is a prokaryote which use photosynthesis (light energy) as an energy source and a supply of carbon
d)
Bob is a prokaryote which use energy directly from chemical reactions involving ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, nitrites, sulfur, or iron (must are found near hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor)
15.
Obligate aerobes are ...
a)
organisms that require a constant supply of oxygen in order to live
b)
organisms that must live in the absence of oxygen; may be harmed by oxygen
c)
organisms that do not require a supply of oxygen but are not harmed by its presence
d)
organisms that are automatically killed by oxygen
16.
Obligate anaerobes are ...
a)
organisms that require a constant supply of oxygen in order to live
b)
organisms that must live in the absence of oxygen; may be harmed by oxygen
c)
organisms that do not require a supply of oxygen but are not harmed by its presence
d)
organisms that are automatically killed by oxygen
17.
Faculative anaerobes are ...
a)
organisms that require a constant supply of oxygen in order to live
b)
organisms that must live in the absence of oxygen; may be harmed by oxygen
c)
organisms that do not require a supply of oxygen but are not harmed by its presence
d)
organisms that are automatically killed by oxygen
18.
What is binary fission?
a)
a type of asexual reproduction where a bacterium grows to nearly double its normal size (while replicating DNA) and then divides in half
b)
a type of sexual reproduction where a bacterium grows to nearly double its normal size (while replicating DNA) and then divides in half
c)
a type of asexual reproduction where a hollow bridge forms between two bacteria cells, and genes move from one cell to the other
d)
a type of sexual reproduction where a hollow bridge forms between two bacteria cells, and genes move from one cell to the other
19.
What is conjugation?
a)
a type of asexual reproduction where a bacterium grows to nearly double its normal size (while replicating DNA) and then divides in half
b)
a type of sexual reproduction where a bacterium grows to nearly double its normal size (while replicating DNA) and then divides in half
c)
a type of asexual reproduction where a hollow bridge forms between two bacteria cells, and genes move from one cell to the other
d)
a type of sexual reproduction where a hollow bridge forms between two bacteria cells, and genes move from one cell to the other
20.
Is conjugation sexual or asexual reproduction?
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
21.
Is binary fission sexual or asexual reproduction?
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
22.
Endospores ...
a)
are formed when a bacterium produces a thick internal wall that encolses DNA and a portion of its cytoplasm.
b)
are formed during conjugation, a type of sexual reproduction.
c)
are formed when conditions are favorable and food is plentiful.
d)
are a type of bacterium.
23.
When do bacteria form into endspores?
a)
when conditions become unfavorable
b)
when conditions become favorable
c)
after sexual reproduction
d)
after asexual reproduction
24.
What do prokaryotes NOT have?
a)
nucleus & membrane-bound organelles
b)
membrane-bound organelles & ribosomes
c)
nucleus & ribosomes
d)
none of the above
25.
What is a plasmid?
a)
small circles of DNA
b)
small circles of RNA
c)
single chromosome in prokaryotes
d)
whip-like structure used for movement
26.
Who discovered microorganisms in the late 1600s?
a)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b)
Sir Issac Newton
c)
Robert Hooke
d)
Ewald Jürgen Georg von Kleist
27.
What kingdom do eubacteria & archaebacteria belong to?
a)
bacteria
b)
unicellulars
c)
prokaryotic
d)
none of the above
28.
Where can bacteria be found on Earth?
a)
soil
b)
water (oceans & ice)
c)
tissues of plants and animals
d)
all of the above
29.
Most heterotrophic bacteria are ________.
a)
decomposers
b)
photoheterotrophic
c)
chemoheterotrophic
d)
obligate aerobes
30.
What type of autotrophs do NOT need light?
a)
photoautotrophs
b)
chemoautotrophs
31.
The "red tide" seen in many lakes is seen as a _____ effect of bacteria.
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
32.
Choose a negative effect of bacteria.
a)
disease
b)
PCN
c)
fermentation
d)
nitrogen fixation
33.
Choose a positive effect of bacteria.
a)
yogurt
b)
PCN
c)
MRSA
d)
nitrogen fixation
34.
Identify this bacteria.
a)
staphylococcus
b)
streptococcus
c)
staphylograppus
d)
diplosprillum
35.
Identify this bacteria.
a)
diplobacillus
b)
diplococcus
c)
staphylosprillum
d)
streptococcus
36.
Identify this bacteria.
a)
diplosprillium
b)
diplobacillus
c)
streptobacillus
d)
streptococcus
37.
How often do bacteria reproduce?
a)
10 minutes
b)
20 minutes
c)
1 hour
d)
depends on how many bacteria are reproducing
38.
What type of prokaryotic reproduction is similar to mitosis?
a)
binary mission
b)
meiosis
c)
conjugation
d)
sexual reproduction
39.
What is the name of the hollow bridge that forms between two cells during conjugation?
a)
flagellum
b)
prokaryotube
c)
bridgellum
d)
none of the above
40.
How long can endospores live?
a)
centuries
b)
millenia
c)
decades
d)
forever; they stay alive forever
41.
Some bacteria have a symbiotic relationship with plants. What process do these bacteria go through to make the relationship mutualistic?
a)
nitrogen fixation
b)
nitrogen conversion
c)
decomposing material into glucose
d)
normal flora
42.
What can bacteria do to solve oil spills?
a)
Some bacteria can digest petroleum, which means they can clean up the spills
b)
Some bacteria can take the oxygen out of the water; the hydrogen mixes with the petroluim and it converts
c)
They can "decompose" some materials in the oil
d)
none of the above
43.
Choose the steps of Koch's Postulates in order CORRECTLY.
a)
1. Isolation from sick
2. Grow in culture
3. Inoculate healthy creature
4. Re-isolate
2. Grow in culture
3. Inoculate healthy creature
4. Re-isolate
b)
1. Isolation from sick
2. Inoculate
3. Record results
2. Inoculate
3. Record results
c)
1. Grow in culture
2. Innoclate healthy creature
3. Isolate from sick
2. Innoclate healthy creature
3. Isolate from sick
d)
1. Grow in culture
2. Inoculate infected creature
3. Isolate
4. Record results
2. Inoculate infected creature
3. Isolate
4. Record results
44.
Most bacteria are _______ to humans.
a)
harmless
b)
helpful
c)
harmful
d)
ineffective
45.
What do disease bacteria do to humans?
a)
They pathogenate.
b)
They interfer with the host's ability to obtain energy.
c)
They damage cells.
d)
They release toxins.
46.
What are the two ways bacteria can cause disease?
a)
interfere with the host's ability to obtain energy & breaks down cells
b)
damage cells & release of toxins
c)
attacks immune system & warms body
d)
none of the above
47.
What does a vaccine do?
a)
It puts a weakened or killed bacteria into the body.
b)
It puts a few bacteria into the body.
c)
It blcoks bacterial growth by blocking the formation of cell wall.
d)
It blocks bacterial growth by stopping reproduction.
48.
What does penicillin do?
a)
PCN blocks formation of cell wall by leaving bacteria vulnerable to lysis.
b)
PCN blocks formation of cell wall by leaving bacteria vulnerable to lysogenic cycle.
c)
PCN attacks bacteria by exploding them.
d)
PCN attacks bacteria by combating it with other cells.
49.
Heat, autoclave, and heat and pressure are ways of what?
a)
sterilization
b)
disinfectant
c)
refrigeration
d)
control
50.
What does disinfectants do?
a)
destroys cells
b)
slows bacterial growth
51.
What does refridgeration do?
a)
destroys cells
b)
slows bacterial growth
52.
What is the FIRST stage?
a)
lag
b)
log
c)
stationary
d)
death
53.
What is the SECOND stage?
a)
lag
b)
log
c)
stationary
d)
death
54.
What is the THIRD stage?
a)
lag
b)
log
c)
stationary
d)
death
55.
What is the FOURTH stage?
a)
lag
b)
log
c)
stationary
d)
death
56.
a)
zone of inhabition
b)
antibiotic discs
c)
zone of sterilization
d)
death phase
57.
List the gram staining steps.
a)
(1) Heat fix; (2) Crystal violet; (3) Rinse; (4) Mordant; (5) Rinse; (6) Alcohol; (7) Rinse; (8) Counterstain; (9) Rinse
b)
(1) Heat fix; (2) Mordant; (3) Rinse; (4) Crystal violet; (5) Rinse; (6) Counterstain; (7) Rinse; (8) Alcohol; (9) Rinse
c)
(1) Heat fix; (2) Counterstain; (3) Rinse; (4) Crystal violet; (5) Rinse; (6) Crystal violet; (7) Rinse; (8) Alcohol; (9) Rinse
d)
(1) Heat fix; (2) Crystal violet; (3) Mordant; (4) Rinse; (5) Grams Idoine; (6) Rinse; (7) Counterstain; (8) Rinse
58.
How can gram-positive bacteria be identified?
a)
It can be identified by the peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
b)
It can be identified by the pink or red stain in the cell walls.
c)
It can be identified by the purple or violet stain in the cell walls.
d)
It can only be identified by sending the contents to a lab.
59.
How can gram-negative bacteria be identified?
a)
It can be identified by the peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
b)
It can be identified by the pink or red stain in the cell walls.
c)
It can be identified by the purple or violet stain in the cell walls.
d)
It can only be identified by sending the contents to a lab.
60.
Identify this bacteria and whether it is gram-negative or gram-positive.
a)
Gram+ streptobacillus
b)
Gram- streptobacillus
c)
Gram+ staphylobacillus
d)
Gram- staphylobacillus
61.
Identify this bacteria and whether it is gram-negative or gram-positive.
a)
Gram+ streptosprillium
b)
Gram- streptosprillium
c)
Gram+ staphylosprillium
d)
Gram- staphylosprillium
62.
What are the simplest biological systems (even smaller than bacteria)?
a)
coffee grains (those things are impossible to clean up)
b)
microorganisms
c)
viruses
d)
none of the above (bacteria are the smallest)
63.
Name the FIRST structure.
a)
virus
b)
bacterium
c)
microorganism
d)
decomposer
64.
Name the SECOND structure.
a)
virus
b)
bacterium
c)
microorganism
d)
decomposer
65.
What disease was being studied when virsues were discovered?
a)
Tobacco Mosaic
b)
Anthracnose
c)
Corn Smut
d)
Leaf Spot
66.
A virus is ...
a)
genetic material enclosed in a protective coat
b)
plasmid enclosed in a protective coat
c)
chromosomes enclosed in a protein coat
d)
a loose collection of material inside a protein coat
67.
TRUE OR FALSE: Viruses can matabolize.
a)
true
b)
false
68.
TRUE OR FALSE: Viruses cannot reproduce without a host cell.
a)
true
b)
false
69.
There is a protein coat that surrounds the genetic material in a virus. What is that protein coat called?
a)
capsid
b)
virus envelope
c)
nucelus envelope
d)
RNA
70.
There is a protecting coating found in viruses that infect animals.
a)
capsid
b)
envelope
c)
DNA
d)
RNA
71.
Viruses that infect bacteria are called ...
a)
bacteriophages
b)
pathogens
c)
tail sheaths
d)
plasmids
72.
A virus is ...
a)
a parasite
b)
a decomposer
c)
a living organism
d)
a bacterium
73.
TRUE OR FALSE: Viruses are specific to the host cells that they infect.
a)
true
b)
false
74.
HIV & AIDS are considered ...
a)
viruses
b)
bacteria
75.
What was the first vaccine developed for?
a)
influenza
b)
smallpox
c)
staphylococcus
d)
streptococcus
76.
What are infectious agents similar than BOTH bacteria and viruses?
a)
prions
b)
capsids
c)
protein coats
d)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
77.
What is the FIRST blank in this process?
a)
prion
b)
normal protein
c)
new prion
d)
virus
78.
What is the SECOND blank in this process?
a)
prion
b)
normal protein
c)
new prion
d)
original prion
79.
What is the THIRD blank in this process?
a)
virus
b)
normal protein
c)
new prion
d)
original prion
80.
What is the FOURTH blank in this process?
a)
virus
b)
normal protein
c)
new prion
d)
original prion
81.
What are the violet arrow-shaped structures?
a)
prions
b)
viruses
c)
bacteria
d)
protein
82.
Is the following description more like the Lytic process or Lysogenic process? A virus attaches itself onto a bacterium and injects DNA into the cell. The DNA directs the cell to make virus parts and assembles viruses, until inevitably, the cell explodes.
a)
Lytic cycle
b)
Lysogenic cycle
c)
could be either cycle
d)
none of the above
83.
Is the following description more like the Lytic process or Lysogenic process? A virus attaches itself onto a bacterium and injects DNA into the cell. The DNA is now a part of the host cell's DNA and is included when the cell reproduces. Eventually, the DNA directs the cell to make virus parts and assembles viruses until the cell is destroyed.
a)
Lytic cycle
b)
Lysogenic cycle
c)
could be either cycle
d)
none of the above
84.
WRITE the Lytic Cycle down on a piece of paper. (NO - seriously... do this.)
a)
OK, fine, I did it. (No, actually.)
b)
I lied to you, I didn't do this.
c)
No.
d)
I'd rather fail.
85.
WRITE the Lysogenic Cycle down on a piece of paper. (NO - seriously... do this.)
a)
OK, fine, I did it. (No, actually.)
b)
I lied to you, I didn't do this.
c)
No.
d)
I'd rather fail.
86.
What is the difference between the Lytic and Lysogenic cycles?
a)
In the Lytic cycle, the viral DNA is made part of the cell and is copied during reproduction.
b)
In the Lysogenic cycle, the viral DNA is made part of the cell and is copied during reproduction.
c)
In the Lytic cycle only, the cell ends up exploding and releases hundreds of viruses.
d)
In the Lysogenic cycle only, the cell ends up exploding and releases hundreds of viruses.
87.
What is a retrovirus?
a)
a virus with DNA
b)
a virus with RNA
c)
a virus that causes disease
d)
a virus that occurs quickly
88.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "A".
a)
body tube
b)
eyepiece
c)
objectives
d)
stage
89.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "B".
a)
body tube
b)
eyepiece
c)
objectives
d)
revolving nosepiece
90.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "C".
a)
magnification lens
b)
eyepiece
c)
objectives
d)
high power
91.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "D".
a)
stage clips
b)
stage
c)
base
d)
base clips
92.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "E".
a)
diaphragm
b)
stage
c)
substage
d)
light source
93.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "F".
a)
diaphragm
b)
stage
c)
substage
d)
light source
94.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "G".
a)
eyepiece
b)
magnification lens
c)
objectives
d)
prestage
95.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "H".
a)
arm
b)
leg
c)
neck
d)
"i"-stage
96.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "J".
a)
coarse adjustment knob
b)
fine adjustment knob
c)
mini-arm
d)
platter
97.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "K".
a)
coarse adjustment knob
b)
fine adjustment knob
c)
mini-arm
d)
platter
98.
MICROSCOPE PARTS: Identify part "L".
a)
plate
b)
base
c)
bottom
d)
platter
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