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REVIEW SET BIOLOGY

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement describes a feedback mechanism involving the human pancreas?

a)

The production of estrogen stimulates the formation of gametes for sexual reproduction.

b)

The level of oxygen in the blood is related to heart rate.

c)

The level of sugar in the blood is affected by the amount of insulin in the blood.

d)

The production of urine allows for excretion of cell waste.

2.

Which of these is not an endocrine property?

a)

hormones reach targets through the blood

b)

effects are slow and cyclic

c)

rapid acting effects

d)

effects caused by chemicals.

3.

Which of these is not an endocrine gland?

a)

Pancreas.  

b)

Salivary gland.

c)

Testes.

d)

Parathyroid.

4.

The primary target of the releasing and inhibiting hormones of the hypothalamus is the:

a)

Liver and adipose tissue

b)

Gonads

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Bone marrow

5.

Which of these hormones is made by the posterior pituitary?

a)

FSH

b)

ACTH

c)

LH

d)

ADH

6.

Which gland controls body’s metabolic rate?

a)

Thyroid.

b)

Parathyroid.

c)

Testes.

d)

Pancreas.

7.

How do hormones from the thyroid and parathyroid regulate the calcium concentration of the blood?

a)

Calcitonin lowers blood calcium; parathyroid hormone raises blood calcium.

b)

Parathyroid hormone lowers blood calcium; calcitonin raises blood calcium.

c)

Thyroxine and triiodothyronine together regulate calcium levels, as needs dictate.

d)

Both parathroid hormone and the three thyroid hormones function to regulate blood calcium levels.Y

8.

Which of the following hormones are responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response?

a)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

b)

Insulin and glucagon

c)

Estrogen and progesterone.

d)

Thyroxin and melatonin.

9.

The pituitary hormone that stimulates the male testes to produce sperm and stimulates the development of the follicle in the female on a monthly cycle is:

a)

growth hormone

b)

prolactin

c)

luteinizing hormone

d)

follicle-stimulating hormone

10.

Most hormones of the endocrine system are regulated by a:

a)

Negative feedback mechanism.

b)

Positive feedback mechanism.

c)

Hormone-receptor complex.

d)

Hormone-gene complex.

11.

The pancreas produces one hormone that lowers blood sugar level and another that increases blood sugar level. The interaction of these two hormones most directly helps humans to

a)

maintain a balanced internal environment

b)

digest needed substances for other body organs

c)

dispose of wastes formed in other body organs

d)

increase the rate of cellular communication

12.

The posterior pituitary stores and releases:

a)

Growth hormone and prolactin.

b)

Prolactin and oxytocin.

c)

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

d)

ADH and growth hormone.

13.

During which cycle day of a typical 28-day menstrual cycle does the follicular phase occur?

a)

Cycle days 7-14

b)

Cycle days 1-6

c)

Cycle days 1-13

d)

Cycle days 14-28

14.

Which of the following is the main role of LH in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Breaking down the wall of the follicle to allow for release of the ovum

b)

Maintaining the corpus luteum

c)

Thickening the endometrium layer for implantation

d)

Thinning of the endometrium

15.

During which stage of the uterine cycle does the endometrium layer starts thickening?

a)

Follicular Phase

b)

Proliferative Phase

c)

Ovulation Phase

d)

Luteal Phase

16.

During sexual intercourse, millions of sperms are introduced into the vagina. If the ovum is to be fertilized, where is the most common site of fertilization?

a)

Vagina

b)

Cervix

c)

Uterine wall

d)

Fallopian tube

17.

In what stage does the corpus luteum form?

a)

Luteal Phase

b)

Proliferative Phase

c)

Follicular Phase

d)

Menstrual phase

18.

On a regular 28-day cycle, what cycle day does the luteal phase occur?

a)

Cycle days 15-28

b)

Cycle day 14

c)

Cycle days 5-13

d)

Cycle days 7-14

19.

During the menstrual phase the layer of the endometrium is shed due to:

a)

increased level of LH

b)

decreased level of FSH

c)

decreased levels of progesterone and estrogen

d)

increased level of estrogen and progesterone

20.

The main hormone responsible for the main event during the follicular phase is the

a)

Progesterone

b)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Human chorionic gonadotropin

21.

If the egg cell in the fallopian tube is not fertilized, the corpus luteum will disintegrate and turn into ____

a)

Corpus Albicans

b)

Corpus Cavernosum

c)

Corpus Callosum

d)

Corpus Spongiosum

22.

The epididymis is a _____ and it functions to _____.

a)

compartment inside a testis; secrete testosterone and form sperm

b)

stage of spermatogenesis; form two sperm cells and semen

c)

tightly coiled tube on the outside of the testis; store mature sperm

d)

compartment that contains prostaglandins; ejaculate sperm and semen out of the penis

23.

Which of the following structures are unpaired?

a)

prostate gland

b)

vas deferens

c)

bulbourethral gland

d)

seminal vesicle

24.

The function of sugar or carbohydrate units in semen is to

a)

provide an energy source for ATP production by sperm

b)

promote coagulation of semen in the female reproductive tract

c)

buffer acids in the female reproductive tract

d)

inhibit the growth of bacteria in semen and the female reproductive tract

25.

The hormone oxytocin aids the birth process by stimulating

a)

fetal muscular movements

b)

uterine wall contractions

c)

an increase in progesterone secretion

d)

an increase in estrogen secretion

26.

During the menstrual cycle, LH is at its highest levels

a)

a.      during the menstrual phase

b)

a.      during ovulation phase

c)

a.      on days 17-20

d)

a.      just before menstruation begins

27.

During the menstrual cycle, progesterone would be at its highest levels

a)

prior to ovulation

b)

after ovulation during luteal phase

c)

a day after menstrual phase

d)

during the menstrual phase

28.

During the menstrual cycle, progesterone is produced by

a)

the corpus luteum

b)

the fallopian tubes

c)

the follicles of the ovary

d)

the fertilized eggs in the fallopian tube

29.

The main function of progesterone during the menstrual cycle is to

a)

initiate ovulation

b)

thicken the endometrium

c)

repair the surface of the ovary after ovulation

d)

initiate menstruation

30.

Matured sperm cells are stored in which part of the male reproductive system?

a)

Scrotum

b)

Testes

c)

Bladder

d)

Epididymis

31.

In which phase in the Menstrual cycle the development of the egg cell fall into?

a)

  Ovulation phase

b)

Follicular phase

c)

Luteal phase

d)

Menstrual phase

32.

This is the only phase in the Menstrual cycle when a woman can get pregnant once a sperm is present inside the reproductive system

a)

Follicular phase

b)

Ovulation phase

c)

Menstrual phase

d)

Luteal phase

33.

Which of the following is the female organ for copulation and the passage for menstrual flow and childbirth?

a)

Vagina

b)

Seminal Vesicle

c)

Cervix

d)

Ovary

34.

Which of the following organ and its function is INCORRECTLY matched?

a)

Cervix: site of implantation

b)

Ovary: produces egg cells

c)

Vagina: passage way menstruation and childbirth

d)

Oviduct: site of fertilization

35.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the entire duration of the menstrual cycle?

a)

Menstrual Phase, Follicular Phase, Ovulation Phase, Luteal Phase

b)

Luteal Phase, Ovulation Phase, Follicular Phase, Menstrual Phase

c)

Follicular Phase, Menstrual Phase, Ovulation Phase, Luteal Phase

d)

Menstrual Phase, Ovulation Phase, Luteal Phase, Follicular Phase

36.

Which of the followings shows the correct pathway of sperm?

a)

Testis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, epididymis, urethra

b)

Testis, vas deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra

c)

Testis, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

d)

Testis, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, ejaculatory duct

37.

Childbirth is usually aided by a positive feedback. Which of the following statements is FALSE during childbirth?

a)

Increased pressure on the cervix stimulates the brain to release the hormone oxytocin

b)

As the uterus contracts, the brain stops producing oxytocin

c)

When labor begins, the baby’s head is pushed downwards and results in increased pressure on the cervix

d)

High level of oxytocin in the blood results to more contraction until the baby is born

38.

Which of the following is the most important function of the male Reproductive System?

a)

Support a developing embryo

b)

Produce sperm and testosterone

c)

Produce LH and FSH

d)

Respond and adapt to all sensory stimulus

39.

  Which of the following is NOT an important function of the Female Reproductive System?

a)

Supports the developing embryo

b)

Regulates LH and FSH production

c)

Facilitates fertilization

d)

Produces egg cells

40.

Which of the following statements about the menstrual cycle is TRUE?

a)

It is a combination of negative and positive feedback mechanisms

b)

It is starts at puberty and ends during pregnancy

c)

It is an event which follows strictly 28-days per cycle

d)

It is an event participated by ovarian hormones only

41.

HCG is produced by the system whenever fertilization has succeeded. The role of the human chorionic gonadotropin is to

a)

stimulate the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone to support pregnancy

b)

stimulate the corpus luteum to produce more estrogen to support pregnancy

c)

transform the corpus luteum into corpus albicans immediately after ovulation

d)

Thicken the lining of the uterus to provide good environment for a growing fetus

42.

If a woman menstruates in a regular 28-day cycle, what must be currently happening inside her body at cycle days 7-10?

a)

Her endometrium has just started to shed

b)

Her uterine lining is starting to thicken again while her ovaries are developing egg cells

c)

Her ovaries finally released a mature egg cell

d)

Her ovaries through the corpus luteum has started to produce progesterone

43.

Certain hormones usually is at peak level during the ovulation day. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

During ovulation progesterone is at its highest level

b)

During ovulation estrogen is at its highest level

c)

During ovulation LH is at its highest level

d)

During ovulation FSH is at its highest level

44.

The human nervous system is capable of a wide range of functions. What is the basic unit of the nervous system?

a)

Glial cells

b)

meninges

c)

neurons

d)

cerebrospinal fluid

45.

The human nervous system comprises

a)

the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system

b)

the central nervous system and the somatic nervous system

c)

the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems

d)

the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems

46.

The autonomic nervous system

a)

enables us to act on the external environment

b)

transmits motor information to the brain

c)

regulates the internal environment

d)

is located within the brain

47.

The corpus callosum is a

a)

source of hypothalamic hormones

b)

neural pathway that connects the right and left hemispheres

c)

part of the neocortex

d)

structure in the cerebellum

48.

The autonomic nervous system is part of the

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

parasympathetic nervous system

d)

sympathetic nervous system

49.

Which of the following generally acts to conserve energy?

a)

Sympathetic NS

b)

Parasympathetic NS

c)

Somatic NS

d)

Peripheral NS

50.

The term central nervous system refers to the

a)

autonomic and peripheral nervous systems

b)

brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves

c)

spinal cord and spinal nerves

d)

brain and cranial nerves

51.

The peripheral nervous system consists of

a)

spinal nerves only

b)

the brain only

c)

the brain and spinal cord

d)

the spinal and cranial nerves

52.

The Schwann cells form a myelin sheath around the

a)

Nodes of Ranvier

b)

Dendrites

c)

Cell body

d)

Axon

53.

A neuron with a cell body located in the CNS whose primary function is connecting other neurons is called a(n)

a)

afferent

b)

efferent

c)

interneuron

d)

glial cell

54.

Afferent nerves are called ______nerves, and motor nerves are called ______nerves

a)

motor ; sensory

b)

sensory ; efferent

c)

peripheral; cranial

d)

cranial; peripheral

55.

Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

hypothalamus

d)

thalamus

56.

Which of the following are the parts of neurons?

a)

brain, spinal cord, and vertebral column

b)

dendrite, axon, and cell body

c)

sensory and motor

d)

cortex, medulla and sheath

57.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand 5'ATG TGA CAG 3' ?

a)

3' TAC ACT GTC 5'

b)

5' TAC ACT GTC 3'

c)

3' CAT TCA CTG 5'

d)

5' GTA AGT GAC 3'

58.

Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?

a)

it is a double-helix structure made up of nucleotides

b)

it has uracil, adenine, thymine and guanine

c)

it contains amino acid

d)

it is where proteins are synthesized

59.

A piece of double stranded DNA has 30% Adenine, what will be the % of Guanine?

a)

20

b)

60

c)

30

d)

70

60.

Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

a)

deoxyribose sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

c)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

d)

ribose sugar and phosphate

61.

Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?

a)

covalent bonds

b)

polar bonds

c)

phosphodiester bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

62.

The following are true to DNA except

a)

it is double-helix in structure

b)

it is found mostly in the nucleus

c)

it is made up of deoxyribose sugar

d)

it contains Uracil, Guanine, Adenine and Cytosine bases

63.

The elongation of the leading strand during DNA replication...

a)

progresses opposite the direction of replication fork

b)

produces Okazaki fragments

c)

occur in 5' - 3' direction

d)

occur in 3' - 5' direction

64.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for joining the fragments of DNA strands? 

a)

DNA Ligase

b)

Gluase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

DNA Polymerase

65.

When DNA replication starts...

a)

The leading strands develop Okazaki fragments

b)

The bond between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar breaks

c)

The weak hydrogen bonds break

d)

The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break

66.

In nucleic acids, the nitrogenous base is attached to the _____ carbon of the sugar

a)

1'

b)

2'

c)

3'

d)

4'

67.

Which of the following is a characteristic of purine bases?

a)

They are smaller than pyrimidine bases

b)

They contain nitrogen atoms in their structure

c)

They always pair with pyrimidine bases

d)

They have a single ring structure

68.

What is the role of Chargaff's rules in the discovery of DNA structure?

a)

They established the directionality of DNA replication

b)

They determined the three-dimensional structure of DNA

c)

They demonstrated the base pairing rules of DNA

d)

They discovered the transformation of bacterial cells

69.

What would be the expected consequence if the helicase enzyme fails to function during DNA replication?

a)

Both DNA strands would remain intact, and replication would not occur

b)

The leading strand would be synthesized normally but the lagging strand would not be synthesized

c)

The DNA strands would remain together, and replication would be incomplete

d)

The RNA primers would not be removed, and replication would be stalled

70.

How does the structure of DNA allow it to store genetic information?

a)

By containing a large variety of sugar

b)

By being a complex polymer of nucleotides

c)

By forming base pairs that can be read as a code

d)

By having a double-stranded helix structure

71.

What is the primary function of DNA replication?

a)

To synthesize proteins

b)

To create a copy of an existing DNA molecule

c)

To produce RNA molecules

d)

To generate new genetic material

72.

What is the process by which genetic information in DNA is used to create a functional protein?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Transduction

73.

What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

a)

They carry amino acids to the ribosome

b)

They bind to DNA and read the genetic code

c)

They catalyze the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids

d)

They help to assemble the mRNA

74.

What is the function of tRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

It brings amino acids to the ribosome

b)

It carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome

c)

It catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids

d)

It helps to assemble the ribosome

75.

What is the process by which genetic information in DNA is transcribed into mRNA?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Transduction

76.

What is the function of RNA polymerase in transcription?

a)

It adds nucleotides to the growing mRNA strand

b)

It unwinds the DNA double helix

c)

. It helps to assemble the ribosome

d)

It catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids

77.

What is the name for a sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Codon

c)

Anticodon

d)

Nucleus

78.

Which of the following correctly describes the order of events in protein synthesis?

a)

DNA → mRNA → tRNA → protein

b)

mRNA → tRNA → DNA → protein

c)

DNA → tRNA → mRNA → protein

d)

DNA → mRNA → protein → tRNA

79.

The process of transcription takes place in the:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosomes

80.

What is the most important role of the start codon AUG in protein synthesis?

a)

It signals the beginning of the mRNA sequence

b)

It initiates the process of transcription

c)

It codes for the amino acid methionine

d)

It helps to bind the ribosome to the mRNA

81.

Which of the following describes the correct order of events in translation?

a)

Initiation → Elongation → Termination

b)

Termination → Elongation → Initiation

c)

Elongation → Initiation → Termination

d)

Termination → Initiation → Elongation

82.

Which of the following is true of codons and anticodons?

a)

They both consist of a sequence of three nucleotides

b)

They are found on the same strand of DNA

c)

They are involved in the process of transcription

d)

They are not complementary to each other

83.

Which of the following is the role of the promoter region in transcription?

a)

To provide a starting point for DNA replication

b)

To provide a binding site for RNA polymerase

c)

To encode the amino acid sequence of the protein

d)

To stabilize the mRNA transcript

84.

The anticodon on one tRNA which carries Arginine to the site of protein synthesis is UCC. What was the corresponding set of bases in the gene of the DNA molecule which specified placement of the specified arginine at that location?

a)

TCC

b)

UCC

c)

CCT

d)

AGG

85.

Which of the following is NOT a type of point mutation?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Duplication

86.

What is a point mutation?

a)

A mutation that affects the entire chromosome

b)

A mutation that affects a single nucleotide base

c)

A mutation that affects multiple genes

d)

A mutation that affects the ribosome

87.

Which type of gene mutation is most likely to cause a frameshift?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Insertion or deletion of a nucleotide

d)

Silent mutation

88.

What is a frameshift mutation?

a)

A mutation that affects the entire chromosome

b)

A mutation that affects a single nucleotide base

c)

A mutation that changes the reading frame of the mRNA

d)

A mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein

89.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of comparative anatomy?

a)

The study of similarities and differences in the structure of different organisms

b)

A branch of biology that helps to understand the evolution of species

c)

Uses fossils to compare the anatomy of extinct and living organisms

d)

Only compares the external physical appearance of different species

90.

What is the purpose of comparative anatomy?

a)

To understand the similarities and differences in the structure of different organisms

b)

To study the external physical appearance of different species

c)

To analyze the DNA of different species

d)

To compare the behavior of different species

91.

What is the difference between homologous structures and analogous structures?

a)

Homologous structures have a similar origin, whereas analogous structures have a different origin.

b)

Homologous structures are found in different species, whereas analogous structures are found in the same species.

c)

Homologous structures have a different origin, whereas analogous structures have a similar origin.

d)

Homologous structures have a similar function, whereas analogous structures have a different function.

92.

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adaptation?

a)

The long neck of a giraffe

b)

The sharp claws of a lion

c)

The migration patterns of birds

d)

The tough skin of an elephant

93.

What is natural selection?

a)

The process by which organisms adapt to their environment

b)

The process by which random mutations occur in DNA

c)

The process by which individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

d)

The process by which individuals with unfavorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

94.

What is the relationship between biodiversity and ecosystem stability?

a)

Biodiversity has no effect on ecosystem stability

b)

Ecosystem stability increases with decreasing biodiversity

c)

Ecosystem stability decreases with decreasing biodiversity

d)

Ecosystem stability is independent of biodiversity

95.

Which of the following is a threat to biodiversity?

a)

ALL OF THESE

b)

Habitat destruction

c)

Climate change

d)

Pollution

96.

What is the importance of biodiversity to humans?

a)

Biodiversity has no impact on humans

b)

Biodiversity provides food, medicine, and other resources

c)

Biodiversity is important only for aesthetic reasons

d)

Biodiversity is important only for scientific research

97.

What happens to a population that exceeds its carrying capacity?

a)

The population continues to grow indefinitely

b)

The population stabilizes at the carrying capacity

c)

The population experiences a sudden decline

d)

The carrying capacity of the environment increases

98.

Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor that can affect carrying capacity?

a)

Earthquakes

b)

Floods

c)

Droughts

d)

Disease outbreaks

99.

What is carrying capacity?

a)

The maximum population size that a habitat can support

b)

The minimum population size needed for a habitat to thrive

c)

The rate at which a population grows

d)

The total number of organisms in a population

100.

What is a population?

a)

A group of individuals of different species that live in the same area

b)

A group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area

c)

A group of individuals that are genetically identical

d)

A group of individuals that live in different areas