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Final Physiological Psychology

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
When Janice is pointing out where a rattle is coming from in her car’s engine compartment, despite her not knowing what it means, her sound discrimination ability is a function of her _____.
a)
ventral stream of auditory information analysis
b)
dorsal stream of auditory information analysis
c)
secondary auditory cortex
d)
inferior colliculus and medial geniculate
2.
The auditory receptors are:
a)
Ganglia
b)
Vestibular fibers
c)
Hair cells
d)
Cilia fibers
3.
Which of the following is a disturbance in the comprehension or production of language that is caused by brain damage?
a)
aphasia
b)
dysgraphia
c)
agraphia
d)
dyslexia
4.
When children recover from brain damage to language areas and the resultant aphasia, recovery is most likely the result of:
a)
growth of the both hemispheres’ language areas
b)
other areas in the same hemisphere assuming the role of the damaged areas
c)
areas in the opposite hemisphere assuming the role of the damaged areas
d)
refinement of both hemispheres’ language areas
5.
_____ refers to the acquisition of sensory information, while _____ refers to the interpretation of sensory information.
a)
reception; transduction
b)
perception; sensation
c)
sensation; transduction
d)
sensation; perception
6.
Broca's area lies anterior and adjacent to the:
a)
Visual cortex
b)
Somatosensory cortex
c)
Auditory cortex
d)
Motor cortex
7.
The primary auditory cortex is located in the _____.
a)
inferior parietal gyrus
b)
inferior temporal sulcus
c)
superior parietal sulcus
d)
superior temporal gyrus
8.
The ossicles serve to _____ the sound energy to the inner ear as well as _____ it.
a)
rectify; amplify
b)
conduct; amplify
c)
conduct; transmit
d)
amplify; rectify
9.
When sound waves enter the ear, they first strike the:
a)
Tympanic membrane 
b)
Round window
c)
Tectorial membrane
d)
Tensor tympani
10.
A person reports to the emergency room with a complaint that he or she can understand and produce speech, but are unable to write thoughts down or read aloud. What area of the brain may be injured?
a)
angular gyrus
b)
Wernicke’s area
c)
Broca’s area
d)
planum temporale
11.
Officer Rosa hit the deck, knowing that the sudden sound was a gunshot and not a car backfiring, because of his _____.
a)
dorsal stream of auditory information analysis
b)
secondary auditory cortex
c)
ventral stream of auditory information analysis
d)
inferior colliculus and medial geniculate
12.
A brain area that is organized such that successive areas respond to successively higher frequencies is called _____.
a)
spatiotopic
b)
spatiotemporal
c)
tonotopic
d)
somatocortical
13.
The parts of the middle ear that are responsible for transferring sound from the tympanic membrane onto the oval window are called the _____.
a)
cleavers
b)
hair cells
c)
semicircular canals
d)
ossicles
14.
Humans are most sensitive to frequencies in the range of 2,000 to 4,000 Hz, which corresponds to frequencies of _____.
a)
predators in the environment
b)
most human conversation
c)
environmental sounds such as rain and thunder
d)
sounds that are unlike those of other animals in the environment
15.
Bending hair cells causes:
a)
An action potential
b)
Opening Cl- channels
c)
Opening of K+ channels
d)
Opening of Na+ channels
16.
When Celia tried to make use of old cans of paint by mixing them, she had expected to end up with a dramatic and bold hybrid color but instead the mixture became darker and darker in color. The colors were lost because mixing paints results in ___.
a)
subtractive effects
b)
more wavelengths being absorbed by the pigment molecules
c)
wavelengths that are reflected but distorted to wavelengths outside the visual spectrum
d)
more light being reflected from the mixture
17.
The dorsal stream of the visual system is involved in recognizing ___, whereas the ventral stream is involved in recognizing ___.
a)
surface features of an object; object movement
b)
movement in an object; the value of an object as food
c)
where an object is located; what an object is
d)
what an object is; where an object is located
18.
Adjacent retinal receptors activate adjacent cells in the visual cortex, a phenomenon called a:
a)
Retinotopic map
b)
Tonotopic map
c)
Geniculotopic map
d)
Somatosensory map
19.
Axons from the ___ of the retina cross over to the opposite side of the brain at the optic chiasm while the axons from the ___ stay on the same side of the brain.
a)
nasal area; foveal area
b)
temporal area; nasal area
c)
nasal area; temporal area
d)
foveal area; peripheral area
20.
The inferior temporal cortex:
a)
Contains modules within modules
b)
Is the termination point of the dorsal stream
c)
Plays a role in the recognition of patterns and objects
d)
Is involved in blindsight
21.
Which of the following would you expect of a species that is active during the night and sleeps during the day?
a)
Their fovea would be larger than a species that is active during the day.
b)
It would have more cones and fewer rods in its retina than a daytime organism
c)
This species would have poor vision in the dark
d)
It would have more rods and fewer cones in its retinas than a daytime organism
22.
The process of focusing on near or distant objects involves:
a)
Changing the shape of the retina
b)
Muscles behind the eyeball moving the eye forward or backward
c)
Changing the shape of the lens
d)
Changing the shape of the cornea
23.
In ___, each neuron's activity inhibits the activity of adjacent neurons and is likewise inhibited by their activity.
a)
bilateral inhibition
b)
lateral inhibition
c)
reciprocal inhibition
d)
interactive inhibition
24.
Rods in the retina:
a)
Detect different wavelengths
b)
Are more sensitive to light than cones
c)
Provide our best visual acuity
d)
Are most numerous at the fovea
25.
Three-dimensional processing of objects, such as films such as Avatar 3D, is performed by the:
a)
Anterior parietal cortex
b)
Lateral geniculate nucleus
c)
Optic chiasm
d)
Primary visual cortex
26.
All of the following types of cells are found in the retina except ___ cells
a)
horizontal
b)
amacrine
c)
bipolar
d)
complex
27.
When light strikes a molecule of photopigment, the photoreceptor:
a)
Releases transmitter substance
b)
Closes Na+ channels
c)
Opens Na+ channels
d)
Depolarizes
28.
When Chris needed to see the fine print, he knew to look at the document straight on using his foveal vision; the fovea gives us our highest visual acuity because ___.
a)
the fovea is a “rod-only” zone
b)
the fovea does not have bipolar cells
c)
the fovea has rods which share many ganglion cells
d)
the fovea has cones which share fewer ganglion cells
29.
Stephen had a stroke, but was rushed to the hospital in time to reverse most of the effects of the stroke. However, he did notice that he could no longer recognize his wife or family members by face. If his doctor performed an MRI scan of his brain, what brain area would most likely have been affected by the stroke?
a)
Posterior parietal cortex
b)
Fusiform face area
c)
V5/MT
d)
Primary visual cortex
30.
A light that stimulates receptors in the ___ of an off-center on-surround cell's receptive field will result in ___.
a)
center, excitation
b)
surround, inhibition
c)
surround, excitation
d)
center and entire surround, inhibition
31.
The most sensitive parts of our bodies for touch are the ___ while the least sensitive are the___.
a)
genitals; lips, and fingertips; upper arms and calves of our legs
b)
genitals; upper arms and lower back
c)
lips and fingertips; upper arms and calves of our legs
d)
genitals and lips; small of the back and upper arms
32.
Damage to the basal ganglia would be expected to:
a)
Result in postural abnormalities and involuntary movement
b)
Change the person's perception of movemen
c)
Result in inhibited reflexes
d)
Produce difficulties in initiating and inhibiting movement
33.
Which of the following is/are a stimulus/stimuli for pain?
a)
Intense pressure delivered to the skin
b)
Extreme temperature
c)
Chemical damage to tissue
d)
All provided answers are correct
34.
What does a “phantom limb” refer to?
a)
Neglect symptoms
b)
Sensations from a limb that has been amputated or paralyzed
c)
The sensation that your arms or legs are missing, when they actually are present
d)
The tingling, sparkly sensations of a limb that is “asleep”
35.
The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is___.
a)
Serotonin
b)
Substance P
c)
Acetylcholine
d)
Norepinephrine
36.
What is a central pattern generator?
a)
An innate movement that, once triggered, continues automatically until its completion
b)
A neural mechanism that produces an alternation between two movements
c)
A neural mechanism that guides movement on the basis of sensory feedback
d)
A neural network that produces a rhythmic pattern of motor action
37.
When are the cells in the prefrontal cortex (in contrast to the primary motor cortex) most active?
a)
During inhibition of movements
b)
During movements
c)
At or after the end of movements
d)
In preparation and planning for movements
38.
Why can the muscles of the face be moved with greater precision than the biceps muscles?
a)
 The biceps have only a few neuromuscular junctions.
b)
The biceps have too many neuromuscular junctions.
c)
Each biceps is opposed by an antagonistic muscle; facial muscles are not.
d)
The facial muscles have a lower ratio of muscle fibers to neurons.
39.
The function of proprioception is to provide information about:
a)
Movement and position of head
b)
Movement and position of body and limbs
c)
Orientation of the head
d)
Touch, pain, heat, and cold
40.
Internal organs are to ___as movement of the body is to___.
a)
smooth muscles; rough muscles
b)
smooth muscles; skeletal muscles
c)
organic muscles; skeletal muscles
d)
striated muscles; skeletal muscles
41.
The cells in the primary motor cortex are most active ___, and receive sensory information in order to ___.
a)
In preparation and planning for movements; know where to start the movements
b)
During involuntary, or reflexive, movements; start the movement
c)
At or after the end of movements; stop the movement
d)
During voluntary movements; refine movements as they are performed
42.
What is the relationship between the motor neurons and muscle fibers?
a)
Each neuron innervates only one muscle fiber.
b)
The fewer muscle fibers controlled by a single neuron, the more precise the movements.
c)
The more neurons controlled by a single muscle fiber, the more precise the movements.
d)
The more muscle fibers a neuron innervates, the more precise the movements.
43.
Damage to the cerebellum impairs:
a)
Breathing
b)
Coordinated movements
c)
Reflexive movements
d)
Movements during sleep
44.
Parkinson's disease is caused by degeneration of neurons that release which neurotransmitter?
a)
Dopamine
b)
Acetylcholine
c)
Serotonin
d)
Substance P
45.
Without a vestibular system we would experience:
a)
Dizziness when standing too still
b)
No instances of motion sickness ever
c)
Blurred vision while walking
d)
Projectile vomiting
46.
You would probably do better on your exams if you:
a)
Studied all night right up until the exam
b)
Took the exam after reading the chapters several times but not actually studying
c)
None of the answers
d)
Studied hard for 2–3 days before the exam, and got plenty of sleep the night before the exam
47.
It has been found that:
a)
Language memory is stored near Broca's area
b)
Identifying pictures of hand tools uses memories stored in the left temporal lobe and hand motor areas.
c)
All provided answers are correct 
d)
Identifying the color of an object requires memories stored in the temporal lobe.
48.
The earliest and most severe indicator of Alzheimer's is:
a)
Deterioration of non-declarative memory
b)
Deterioration of declarative memory
c)
Loss of memory for well-learned behavior
d)
Loss of language
49.
Classical conditioning usually involves pairing a stimulus with a response, such as a bell paired with food in the mouth inducing salivation. If the bell is later rung but no food is put in the mouth, salivation will eventually not be elicited by the bell. This loss of conditioning is called ___.
a)
Extinction
b)
Unlearning
c)
Forgetting
d)
Reconsolidation
50.
When presynaptic neurons are active and postsynaptic neurons fire at the same time:
a)
No neurotransmitter is released
b)
The action potential is inhibited
c)
The synapse is strengthened
d)
One cancels the effects of the other
51.
The neurotransmitter most closely associated with long-term potentiation is:
a)
Serotonin
b)
Dopamine
c)
Glutamate
d)
None of the provided answers
52.
When a memory is recalled, it becomes vulnerable again. This is because it must be ___.
a)
rehearsed
b)
confirmed
c)
reconsolidated
d)
potentiated
53.
Remembering how to get to class every day, although you cannot state the room number or the name of the building is an example of:
a)
Non-declarative memory
b)
Dendritic memory
c)
Declarative memory
d)
Short term memory
54.
As an organism ages:
a)
Myelin decreases
b)
LTP rates slow
c)
Metabolic rates in cortical areas that input to the hippocampus and receive its output decrease
d)
All provided answers
55.
For Henry Molaison (H.M.), removal of the ___ that were causing his epilepsy produced severe memory problems.
a)
hypothalamus
b)
frontal lobe
c)
thalamus
d)
temporal lobes
56.
Brad's mother had a stroke, but fortunately, while the damage occurred in the hippocampus, the damage was confined to area CA1; the prognosis was most likely that ___.
a)
Brad’s mother would not have any measurable amount of amnesia
b)
Brad's mother would have moderate retrograde amnesia
c)
Brad's mother would suffer from moderate anterograde amnesia
d)
Brad's mother would have severe retrograde amnesia
57.
The diseased brain of an Alzheimer's patient is characterized by:
a)
Clumps of amyloid plaque protein that inhibit neural transmission
b)
Both amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
c)
Senescent junctions
d)
Neurofibrillary tangles
58.
Your grandmother unfortunately had a stroke over the weekend. You take her to the doctor, and the doctor says to expect some declarative memory loss. What will your grandmother have problems with?
a)
Skills memory
b)
Motor memory
c)
Movement memory
d)
Memory for facts
59.
Transfer of information from the hippocampus to the cortex:
a)
Occurs whenever the cingulate cortex is activeOccurs whenever the cingulate cortex is active
b)
Occurs during the time of LTP
c)
Occurs during times when the hippocampus is less active
d)
Does not occur Does not occur
60.
The longest lasting memories are located mostly in:
a)
The left hippocampus
b)
Integration between left and right hippocampus areas
c)
The right hippocampus
d)
Cortical areas other than the hippocampus 
61.
It is assumed that more intelligent people excel when quick choices are required because of
a)
A greater number of frontal cortex neurons
b)
Longer neurons 
c)
Generally faster nerve conduction velocity
d)
A greater number of neurons
62.
Juan lives in the affluent neighborhood in Louisburg Square, Boston. Meanwhile, his identical twin Jose lives in a lower-class, diverse neighborhood in Roxbury. If Juan had a higher IQ score than Jose, this would be evidence to support:
a)
Neither the genetic or environmental influence of intelligence
b)
The environmental influence on intelligence
c)
Both the genetic and environmental influence of intelligence
d)
The genetic basis of intelligence
63.
The leading genetic cause of intellectual disability is:
a)
Fragile X
b)
Fragile Y
c)
Hydrocephaly
d)
Down syndrome
64.
Phenylketonuria (PKU):
a)
Can be prevented with a diet low in phenylalanine 
b)
Involves excess proteins that build up from an extra chromosome 21
c)
Interferes with myelination
d)
Is an inability to make proteins
65.
Individuals with ASD share a common core set of impairments that include:
a)
Socialization, communication, and repetitive behaviors
b)
Imagination, creativity, and savant
c)
Verbalization, intonation, and phonation
d)
Socialization, integration, and presentation
66.
The average IQ score is:
a)
1
b)
100
c)
1000
d)
0
67.
Spatial abilities are located, to a great extent, in the:
a)
Somatosensory area and the parietal lobe
b)
Somatosensory and motor areas
c)
Limbic areas
d)
Temporal lobe and motor area
68.
The characteristic most closely predicted by performance on intelligence tests is:
a)
Job performance
b)
Socioeconomic status
c)
Performance in school
d)
None of the provided answers are correct
69.
With respect to the biological foundation of intelligence, larger parietal lobes might mean:
a)
Better language and understanding skills
b)
Better vision and hearing
c)
Better math and spatial skills
d)
A stronger general factor, or g
70.
Why are we currently having an epidemic of treatable diseases in children like mumps and measles, when these diseases are easily preventable?
a)
The diseases are mutating faster than we can design cures
b)
Drugs that children take to treat ADHD block the effects of some of these treatments
c)
Many parents are not vaccinating their children because of the false fear that vaccines cause autism
d)
Increases in ease of travel between infectious areas spreads diseases faster than we can cure them.
71.
Individuals with ADHD have been found to have deficits in their ___.
a)
prefrontal cortex and the cerebellum
b)
basal ganglia and cerebellum
c)
prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia
d)
Visual cortex
72.
The leading environmental cause of intellectual disability is:
a)
Prenatal exposure to virus
b)
Rubella
c)
Early infancy exposure to viruses
d)
Maternal alcoholism
73.
A difference between Einstein's brain and the average brain is that:
a)
It was larger in the occipital lobes
b)
It was larger in the parietal lobes
c)
There were more neurons
d)
There was no difference
74.
Critics of the IQ test often argue that:
a)
The IQ test does not measure “street smarts”
b)
Most politicians score low on IQ tests
c)
IQ scores, even those that are culture-free, differ widely across cultures
d)
Most often IQ scores do not correlate with academic performance
75.
Mathematical abilities are located, to a large extent, in the:
a)
Frontal & Parietal Lobes
b)
  Occipital lobe
c)
Frontal lobe
d)
Parietal lobe
76.
The ___ network provides error detection by comparing an intended response with appropriate ones, which is faulty in some individuals with uncontrollable anxiety.
a)
salience
b)
default mode
c)
frontoparietal
d)
ventral attention
77.
The average age of onset for schizophrenia is:
a)
earlier for females than males
b)
25 years for males, and 20 years for females
c)
During the teens and early 20s for males
d)
15 years for both males and females
78.
Acute symptoms of schizophrenia:
a)
Are more common in women than men
b)
Are not responsive to treatment
c)
Develop suddenly 
d)
All provided answers are correct
79.
Mood disorders are associated with increased size of:
a)
The hippocampus
b)
The amygdala
c)
Prefrontal area
d)
The hypothalamus
80.
The major affective disorders include:
a)
Mania and psychosis
b)
Bipolar disorder and unipolar depression
c)
Depression and anxiety
d)
Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
81.
Chronic symptoms of schizophrenia:
a)
Are likely to persist over time
b)
Develop gradually
c)
Are less responsive to treatment than acute symptoms
d)
All provided answers are correct
82.
In the United States, ___ people will fall victim to a psychological disorder in their lifetime.
a)
1%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
85%
83.
The distinction between anxiety and fear is:
a)
Anxiety is a reaction to anticipated events while fear is a reaction to real events. 
b)
Anxiety is acute and fear is chronic.
c)
Anxiety is a reaction to real events while fear is a reaction to anticipated events.
d)
Anxiety is chronic and fear is acute.
84.
Positive schizophrenic symptoms include:
a)
Impaired attention
b)
Flat affect
c)
Delusions
d)
All provided answers are correct
85.
The monamine hypothesis of depression states that:
a)
There is an increase in dopamine
b)
Histamine and serotonin deficits are the cause
c)
Glutamate deficits are the cause
d)
There is a decrease in norepinephrine and serotonin activity
86.
Prozac, also called fluoxetine, and other SSRIs:
a)
Inhibits serotonin reuptake
b)
Stimulates dopamine production
c)
Stimulates serotonin production
d)
Inhibits dopamine reuptake
87.
The term schizophrenia literally means:
a)
Multiple personality
b)
Split personality
c)
Split mind
d)
Insane person
88.
Joe claims that he sees elves. If we put him in an fMRI during one of his experiences, where an elf danced in front of him, what would we see in the fMRI scan?
a)
Increased activity in the occipital lobes
b)
Decreased activity in the parietal lobes
c)
Reduced activity in the limbic system
d)
Heightened activity in the prefrontal cortex
89.
Identifying the genes for schizophrenia (as well as many other psychiatric disorders) is challenging because
a)
Schizophrenia most likely involves multiple genes
b)
Researchers are not consistent in whether they include spectrum disorders in their diagnosis
c)
The genes involved in schizophrenia each contribute a small effect
d)
All provided answers are correct
90.
According to the dopamine theory of schizophrenia, symptoms occur because:
a)
There is too little dopamine activity in the brain
b)
There is too much dopamine activity in the brain 
c)
“The schizophrenia gene” involves dopamine production
d)
Dopamine is broken down more quickly than usual