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WorksheetsMA Final 2017
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 3600secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which two scientists developed a vaccine that brought polio under control
a)
Helen Tassig and Alfred Balock
b)
Albert Sabin and Jonas Salk
c)
Alexander Fleming and Howard Florey
d)
Walter Reed and Sir Frederick Grant Banting
2.
Which procedure was first performed by Christian Barnard?
a)
Operation to save babies born with malformed hearts
b)
Heart transplant from one human to another
c)
Catheterization for diagnosis of heart disease
d)
Injection of penicilling to cure infectious diseases
3.
Which healthcare professional is trained to practice medicine under the supervision of a physician?
a)
Medical technologist
b)
Paramedic
c)
Medical assistant
d)
Physician Assistant
4.
What type of registered nurse has advanced training to diagnose and treat common illnesses?
a)
Anesthetist
b)
Practitioner
c)
Dietician
d)
Practical
5.
The health professional who provides basic patient care services, including diagnosing illnesses and prescribing medications, is a
a)
nurse practitioner
b)
nurse anesthetist
c)
licensed practical nurse
d)
vocational nurse
6.
DO refers to which of the following physicians?
a)
Doctor of medicine
b)
Osteopathic physician
c)
Doctor of Chiropractic
d)
Doctor of Optometry
7.
Talk or widely disseminated opinion with no discernible source, or a statement that is not known to be true, is called
a)
a rumor
b)
libel
c)
discrimination
d)
slander
8.
Deciding which tasks are most important is called
a)
modification
b)
teaching
c)
prioritizing
d)
procrastination
9.
Which of the following statements about professionalism is true?
a)
It must be practiced at all times in the workplace
b)
It can lead to wage increases and promotions
c)
Unacceptable behavior is detrimental to the MA's career
d)
All of the above are true
10.
An obstruction to professionalism could be
a)
a cooperative co-worker
b)
a co-worker who assists in completing a difficult task
c)
bringing personal problems to the office
d)
speaking, in an even, calm tone
11.
Which quality in a medical assistant is most likely to promote positive relations in the medical office?
a)
Businesslike behavior
b)
Consistently high grades during medical assisting training
c)
Attractiveness
d)
Sincere interest in patients' welfare
12.
Which of these careers would not be available to a person who has had medical assistant training?
a)
Billing specialist
b)
Medical receptionist
c)
Coder
d)
Respiratory therapy assistant
13.
Which of the following personal hygiene attributes can be considered infection control problems
a)
Long ponytail
b)
Long polished nails
c)
Plain wedding ring or watch
d)
Tattoos and body piercing
14.
If managers were asked to name the most important attribute for medical professionals, what would always high on the list?
a)
Professional image
b)
Responsible and honest
c)
Teamwork
d)
Diplomatic and tactful
15.
Which of the following is true about most patients?
a)
They do not want to follow the physicians instructions
b)
They have unrealistic expectations for their recovery
c)
They have no medical background and need to have medical terms explained
d)
They understand all the medical terms used in the physicians office
16.
Which of the following is not the role of the medical assistant in communicating with patients?
a)
Advising
b)
Listening
c)
Observing
d)
Responding
17.
The needs we have as humans, at the most basic level, include
a)
esteem and recognition
b)
love
c)
safety
d)
food and shelter
18.
"Don't worry, I'm sure everything will be fine" is an example of
a)
giving advice.
b)
providing unwarranted assurance
c)
reflective response
d)
talking too much
19.
Which of the following involves repeating the main idea of the conversation while also identifying the senders feelings?
a)
Restatement
b)
Reflection
c)
Clarification
d)
Listening
20.
Which of the following is an example of an open ended question?
a)
What is the name of your insurance carrier
b)
What is the date of birth?
c)
How have you been getting along
d)
What pharmacy do you prefer?
21.
What is meant by the "litigious nature of today's society?
a)
Crowding has caused people to need more personal space
b)
Patient are more likely to bring lawsuits than in the past
c)
A growing diversity of cultures is represented in U. S.
d)
Fewer people have access to medical care
22.
A legal instrument that authorized a person to act as the agent of the grantor is called a
a)
power of attorney
b)
will
c)
medical record release
d)
requisite
23.
An informed consent form must address which of the following?
a)
Risk and benefits of the procedure
b)
Reasonable alternative to the procedure
c)
Risks and benefits of not performing the procedure
d)
All of the above
24.
Respondeat superior is a Latin term meaning
a)
"Let the master answer"
b)
"Buyer, beware"
c)
"The thing speaks for itself"
d)
"Respond as soon as possible"
25.
A minor crime is called a(n).
a)
felony
b)
mesdeameanor
c)
violation
d)
act of treason
26.
A major crime such as rape, murder, or burglary, is classified as a(n).
a)
felony
b)
misdeameanor
c)
violation
d)
act of treason
27.
Which of the following elements is necessary for informed consent?
a)
Patient's diagnosis, if kinow
b)
Risks and benefits of the procedure or treatment
c)
Alternative treatments
d)
All of the above
28.
A person who represents a minor in legal situations is called a
a)
respondeat superior
b)
guardian ad litem
c)
respondeat minor
d)
none of the above
29.
The most sacred trust that patients place in physicians and their staff members is
a)
the ability to cure disease
b)
the competent treatment of symptoms
c)
confidentiality
d)
the fairness of charges for services
30.
Presumed consent is also called ___________ consent
a)
written
b)
verbal
c)
implied
d)
informed
31.
A solemn declaration usually made orally by a witness under oath is called
a)
a response
b)
testimony
c)
a subpoena
d)
assent
32.
Which word best describes issues that have a moral implication of right and wrong?
a)
Ethics
b)
Etiquette
c)
Precepts
d)
Contracts
33.
In the allocation of health resources, the criterion (or criteria) should be which of the following?
a)
Likelihood of benefit
b)
Duration of benefit
c)
Urgency of need
d)
All of the above
34.
The tendency of something to act a certain manner under circumstances is called.
a)
Idealism
b)
introspection
c)
disposition
d)
verocity
35.
The prime objective of the medical profession is to
a)
heal patients
b)
render service to humanity
c)
make money
d)
All of the above
36.
One who plead the cause of another or defends a cause or proposal is a(n)
a)
attorney
b)
defender
c)
coselor
d)
advocate
37.
Which of the following is the most common form of organ donation?
a)
Kidney
b)
Retina
c)
Bone marrow
d)
Blood
38.
A medical assistant is authorized to release which of the following information without the patient's permission?
a)
Public domain information
b)
Verification that a patient is u nder the provider's care
c)
Patient's condition
d)
None of the above
39.
Which of the following is spelled correctly?
a)
Commensurate
b)
Commensarate
40.
Which of the following is spelled correctly?
a)
Crediability
b)
Credibility
41.
Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
a)
Detrimental
b)
Detrimantal
42.
Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
a)
Optimistic
b)
Optimestic
43.
Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
a)
Tolerence
b)
Tolerance
44.
Which medical assistant has a good work ethic?
a)
Angela, who arrives on time everyday
b)
Roy, who completes his duties and leaves early
c)
John, who is sick often and has missed several days of work.
d)
Mac, who complains to the patients about his workload
45.
Which size letterhead is appropriate for most business correspondence?
a)
5 1/2 x 8 1/2 inches
b)
7 1/4 x 10 1/2 inches
c)
8 1/2 x 11 inches
d)
17 x 22 inches
46.
What is the purpose of noting "c. Alice Adams, M.D. at the bottom of a letter?
a)
To request that the receiver make a copy of the letter for Dr. Adams
b)
To instruct the medical assistant to send the same letter to Dr. Adams
c)
To advise the receiver that a duplicate letter has been sent to Dr. Adams
d)
To tell the receiver that Dr. Adams has more information about the subject of the letter
47.
Which of the following is the usual business envelope size?
a)
No. 5
b)
No. 10
c)
No. 6 1/4
d)
No. 5 1/4
48.
Which of the following is an output device?
a)
Printer
b)
Scanner
c)
light pen
d)
Keyboard
49.
A mouse if a(n)
a)
output device
b)
input device
c)
storage device
d)
processor
50.
A series of computers that are linked, allowing them to share information, is a(n)
a)
database
b)
clearinghouse
c)
network
d)
internet
51.
If you want to transfer paper files to a computerized system without inputting all the data using the keyboard, you could use a
a)
modem
b)
disk operating system
c)
scanner
d)
magnetic disk drive
52.
What are used to help prevent access to private networks?
a)
Network systems
b)
Virus detectors
c)
Scanner
d)
Firewalls
53.
Encrypted data are called
a)
flash
b)
cipher text
c)
crackers
d)
firewalls
54.
An ergonomic workstation designed for prolonged use will not include which of the following?
a)
Headsets
b)
Split-key keyboards
c)
Laptops and tablets
d)
Foam wrist rest
55.
Which is the most common type of business letter where all elements are left justified?
a)
Full block letter format
b)
Modified block letter format
c)
Informal full block format
d)
Semi-block letter format
56.
Which of the following is not typically included in memorandums?
a)
To:
b)
From:
c)
Date:
d)
Signature:
57.
Which of the following types of communication tools can be used to record verbal messages?
a)
Voice mail
b)
Fax
c)
E-mail
d)
Call waiting
58.
Pitch is
a)
the choice of words.
b)
the highness or lowness of sound
c)
the quality of being clear
d)
a change in pitch
59.
Enunciation is
a)
the choice of words
b)
the highness or lowness of sound
c)
articulation of clear sounds
d)
a change in pitch
60.
The medical assistant should be extremely careful when using a speakerphone because
a)
the service is expensive
b)
it is distracting
c)
the call can be traced
d)
confidentiality can be violated
61.
When a patient calls with a complaint
a)
use an approach similar to that for angry callers
b)
find the source of the problem
c)
present options of solutions to the patient
d)
All of the above
62.
Which of the following is essential to active listening
a)
Listen to what the speaker is saying
b)
Listen to nonverbal clues
c)
Interpret what the message is
d)
All of the above
63.
When answering a telephone for a healthcare practice, which of the following practices help create a positive impression on the caller?
a)
Speak in monotone
b)
Smile
c)
Use medical jargon
d)
All of the above
64.
When placing caller on hold, how often should you check back to make sure the caller still wants to remain on hold
a)
No longer than 1 minute
b)
Every 2 minutes
c)
Until time is available to talk
d)
It is not necessary to check back; patients will hold until you return to the call
65.
Which patients should be personally escorted to examination and treatment areas and given detailed instructions about what they are to do?
a)
New patients
b)
Established patients
c)
Consultations
d)
All of the above
66.
What is the best way to decide whether patients need special assistance in disrobing?
a)
Ask all patient if you can be of assistance
b)
Wait for patients to request help
c)
Use special consideration with patients who have a disability
d)
Offer help to patientw who appear ill or upset
67.
The patient's name should be used:
a)
on greeting him or her at arrival
b)
when he or she leaves the office
c)
during the examination
d)
All of the above
68.
Which of the following should be removed from the reception area as quickly as possible?
a)
Talkative patients
b)
Angry patients
c)
Children
d)
Patients' relatives
69.
The statistical characteristics of human population are called:
a)
numbers.
b)
perceptions.
c)
demographics.
d)
phonetics.
70.
An effective way to deal with patients who are always late for their appointments is to:
a)
refuse to schedule them after this happens several times
b)
have them wait until it is convenient for the physician
c)
advise them that they disrupt the office schedule.
d)
schedule them the last appointment of the day
71.
A matrix in the schedule
a)
prevents overcrowding
b)
prevents booking of patients during meetings and hospital rounds
c)
is used only in large offices
d)
is done at the end of the day
72.
Which types of outpatient procedures might be scheduled by the physicians office?
a)
MRIs
b)
CT scans
c)
Blood work
d)
All of the above
73.
A person who fails to keep an appointment without giving advance notice is called a
a)
disruption
b)
no show
c)
cancellation
d)
reschedule
74.
An obstetrician who devotes two afternoons a week to seeing pregnant patients is using an appointment scheduling method called
a)
wave scheduling
b)
advance booking
c)
grouping procedures
d)
modified wave scheduling
75.
When a requested appointment time is not available, the medical assistant should
a)
explain why the time is not available and offer a substitute date and time
b)
insist that the patient accept the next available appointment
c)
immediately put the patient on a waiting list for that time slot
d)
suggest the patient see an alternate physician in the practice
76.
When patients need a series of appointment, it is best to
a)
schedule them individually
b)
let the patient call when he or she is ready to come in
c)
try to set the appointments for the same day of the week at the same time
d)
use any method of scheduling, they will all be effective
77.
Which of the following scheduling systems reduces the number of calls to the office and is available to the patient 24 hours a day?
a)
Computerized scheduling
b)
Self-scheduling
c)
Appointment book scheduling
d)
Paper based scheduling
78.
For legal purposes, what need to occur when a patient fails to keep an appointment?
a)
Call to determine reason for failed appointment
b)
Reschedule as soon as possible
c)
Place documentation in the patient health record and appointment schedule
d)
Classify the patient as "deadbeat"
79.
All patients want to be kept informed about how long they should expect to wait to see the the provider. Any delay longer than ___________ minutes should be explained.
a)
10-15
b)
20
c)
30
d)
No explanation is needed
80.
If proof of mailing is needed, the medical assistant might ask the post office for
a)
special handling
b)
insured mail
c)
a certificate of mailing
d)
a certificate of delivery
81.
Books, manuscripts and computer recorded items are classified as ___________ mail
a)
first class
b)
standard
c)
media
d)
bulk
82.
A difference among conflicting facts, claims or opinions is called a(n)
a)
error
b)
discripancy
c)
outsource
d)
circumvention
83.
Common items that criminal look for in physicians' offices include
a)
checkbooks
b)
narcotics and cash
c)
checks and over the counter meds.
d)
over the counter meds and cash
84.
Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following?
a)
First class mail
b)
Priority mail
c)
Certified mail
d)
Certified Mail with Return Receipt
85.
Which of the following is not a method of organizing a medical record?
a)
Source oriented
b)
Problem oriented
c)
Progressively
d)
Chronologically
86.
Which of the following is not needed when describing a patients' chief complaint?
a)
Remedies the patient has tried to relieve symptoms
b)
The duration of pain
c)
The time when symptoms were first noticed
d)
How many family members are healthy
87.
Continuity of care means
a)
aggregate of activities designed to ensure adequate quality, especially in manufactured product or in the service industries
b)
a formal examination of an organization's or individual's accounts
c)
medical attention that continues smoothly from one provider to another so that the patient receives the most benefit
d)
granted or endowed with a particular authority
88.
Which of the following is not objective information?
a)
Progress notes
b)
Family history
c)
Diagnosis
d)
Physical examination and findings
89.
The medical record should be released only with a
a)
verbal order from the physician
b)
written order from the physician
c)
written release from the patient
d)
verbal order from the office manager
90.
The most frequently used follow up method is a
a)
tickler file
b)
transitory file
c)
practice management file
d)
None of the above
91.
HIPAA recommends that physicians keep the records on patients for at least
a)
1 year
b)
2 years
c)
3 years
d)
HIPAA does not recommend a number of years
92.
The process of moving an active file to inactive status is called:
a)
purging
b)
indexing
c)
coding
d)
conditioning
93.
Who ultimately decides whether a medical record can be released?
a)
The physician
b)
The office manager
c)
The medical assistant
d)
The patient
94.
In most cases, does the electronic health record system require more or less storage space than a paper filing system?
a)
More
b)
Less
c)
About the same
95.
Babies are considered newborn or perinatal for the first ________ days.
a)
30
b)
29
c)
28
d)
27
96.
Burns are coded by
a)
site and degree
b)
the body surface invovled
c)
Both A and B
d)
None of the above
97.
Which of the following terms defines a malignant neoplasm site as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissue?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
In situ
d)
Benign
98.
Which of the following terms applies to the period from the last month of pregnancy to 5 months after giving birth?
a)
Antepartum
b)
Childbirth
c)
Postpartum
d)
Peripartum
99.
Medical records used for procedural coding can include which of the following?
a)
Encounter form
b)
Progress noted
c)
Pathology report
d)
All of the above
100.
One time unit in anesthesia coding typically equals which of the following?
a)
1 minute
b)
10 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
20 minutes
101.
The amount of money paid to keep an insurance policy in force is the
a)
premium
b)
deductible
c)
co-pay
d)
co-insurance
102.
Health insurance designed for military dependents and retired military personnel is called
a)
CHAMPVA
b)
TRICARE
c)
Medicare
d)
Medicaid
103.
Organizations that fund their own insurance programs off their employees
a)
group coverage
b)
individual coverage
c)
government plans
d)
self funded plans
104.
Entities that make payments on an obligation or debt but are not parties of the contract that created the debt are called?
a)
riders
b)
service benefit plans
c)
third party payers
d)
capitation
105.
The amount of money the policyholder pays per clam or accident toward the total amount of an insured loss before the company will pay on the claim in known as the
a)
exclusion
b)
premium
c)
deductible
d)
remittance
106.
The federal and state sponsored health insurance program for the medically indigent is called
a)
Medicare
b)
Medicaid
c)
Medigap
d)
MediCal
107.
Which of the following individuals would not normally be eligible for Medicare?
a)
A 66 year old retired woman
b)
A blind teenager
c)
A 23 year old recipient of AFDC
d)
a person on dialysis
108.
Which of the following expenses would be paid by Medicare part B
a)
Inpatient hosital charges
b)
Hospice services
c)
Physicians office visits
d)
Home healthcare charges
109.
Which part of Medicare covers prescription drug services
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
110.
Which type of referral is usually processed immediately
a)
Regular
b)
Urgent
c)
STAT
d)
All of the above
111.
The medical assistant should always verify which of the following prior to the patients appointment?
a)
Eligibility
b)
Benefits and exclusions
c)
Effective date of insurance
d)
All of the above
112.
Electronic data interchange is
a)
transferring data back and forth between two or more entities
b)
sending information to one insuracne carrier
c)
sending information to one clearinghouse for processing
d)
None of the above
113.
Bloc 1 of the CMS-1500 contains what information
a)
Patients' name
b)
Insured's name
c)
Type of insurance coverage
d)
Carrier address
114.
How many diagnoses can be reported on the CMS-1500?
a)
two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Six
115.
Which of the following is a common reason why insurance claims are rejected
a)
When a procedure listed is not an insurance benefit
b)
Lack of insurance coverage on date of service
c)
Not obtaining preauthorization for the service
d)
Claim was sent to the wrong insurance plan
116.
Which of the following is a fixed amount per visit and is typically paid at the time of medical services?
a)
Co-payment
b)
Deductible
c)
Co-insurance
d)
Both A and B
117.
A system of recording, classifying and summarizing financial tranctions is called
a)
book keeping
b)
accounting
c)
accruing
d)
depreciation
118.
The STARK law imposes restriction on which of the following
a)
Medicare Advanced Beneficiary Notices
b)
Professional courtesy
c)
Fee for service
d)
Billing minors
119.
Which of the following is the most successful collection strategy?
a)
Notes
b)
Patient account statement
c)
Collection letter
d)
Telephone call
120.
Which of the following should be considered when using a collection agency?
a)
Net back
b)
Fee percentage
c)
Fee charged by the collection agency
d)
Both A and B
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