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Law & Ethics Unit 1

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 2hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The defendant in a lawsuit is the

a)

party keeping order in the court.

b)

party that testifies.

c)

party that dismisses the suit.

d)

party against who criminal or civil charges have been filed.

e)

party filing the civil charges.

2.

Formed through the influences of family, culture, and society, which of these serve as the basis for ethical conduct?

a)

laws

b)

codes of etiquette

c)

protocol standards

d)

moral values

e)

policies and procedures

3.

Law may be defined as

a)

rules of conduct.

b)

the rules of behavior.

c)

good manners.

d)

a moral code.

e)

protocol.

4.

What is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions?

a)

to revoke the licenses of unethical practitioners

b)

to provide a consistent guide for protocol

c)

to establish formal standard of care rules

d)

to increase the competence within the profession

e)

to relieve the lawmaking bodies of their legal responsibilities

5.

A pledge for physicians that remains influential today is:

a)

Babylonian Ethics Code

b)

Code of Hammurabi

c)

Hippocratic oath

d)

Percival's Ethics

e)

Socrates' pledge

6.

Unethical behavior is always:

a)

illegal

b)

unacceptable

c)

punishable by professional groups

d)

punishable by legal means

e)

behavior that requires time in jail

7.

An attorney files a motion that pleads there is no basis for a trial. This is called:

a)

summary judgment

b)

administrative law

c)

precedent

d)

liability

e)

acceptance

8.

Laws applying specifically to the practice of medicine in a certain state are called:

a)

Administrative Medical Law

b)

Protocol Acts

c)

State Medical Guidelines

d)

Civil Licensing Acts

e)

Medical Practice Acts

9.

Unlawful acts are always:

a)

punishable by professional groups

b)

unacceptable

c)

punishable by legal means

d)

those that require time in jail

e)

unethical

10.

The plaintiff in a lawsuit is the

a)

party against who criminal or civil charges have been filed.

b)

party filing the civil charges.

c)

party that dismisses the suit.

d)

party that testifies.

e)

party keeping order in the court.

11.

What document serves as a guideline for employees about professional behavior and etiquette?

a)

Emily Post's Guide to Etiquette

b)

the AMA's Code of Ethics

c)

the statutes of the city where the organization is located

d)

medical practice acts

e)

the office policy manual

12.

A precedent is a(n)

a)

a protocol rule.

b)

an alternative case.

c)

a policy or procedure.

d)

law enacted by the federal government.

e)

a case that serves as a model for future cases.

13.

Which of the following is a synonym for "good manners"?

a)

etiquette

b)

morals

c)

laws

d)

protocol

e)

ethics

14.

A student medical assistant doing his or her internship in a physician's office refuses to wipe up a spilled drink in the exam room hallway because he or she believes housekeeping is not part of his or her job description. The student is demonstrating the absence of which quality deemed necessary for successful health care practitioners?

a)

etiquette

b)

common sense

c)

courtesy

d)

technical skill

e)

compassion

15.

Which of the following is considered a technical skill?

a)

computer literacy

b)

problem solving

c)

common sense

d)

tact

e)

gathering information

16.

Another term for legal responsibility is:

a)

litigious

b)

defense

c)

precedent

d)

testimony

e)

liability

17.

Etiquette rules used in the workplace are called

a)

ethics.

b)

protocol.

c)

morals.

d)

beliefs.

e)

policies.

18.

Written codes of ethics for health care practitioners:

a)

are legally binding

b)

are used in legal cases

c)

are enforced by hospitals

d)

did not exist in ancient times

e)

evolved primarily to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care

19.

What is the meaning of the term litigious?

a)

increase in laws covering error

b)

increase in consumer awareness of health care

c)

decreased legal liability

d)

higher number of practicing lawyers

e)

increase in the number of lawsuits

20.

A health care practitioner completes a course in law and ethics. In this field of study, which of the following is the most important reason health care professionals should be familiar with?

a)

to help avoid legal entanglements

b)

to better supervise other health care practitioners

c)

to help explain the process of informed consent to patients

d)

to learn the inner workings of the health care system

e)

to promote patient and employee safety

21.

Ethics may be defined as

a)

rules of etiquette.

b)

principles, standards, and a guide to conduct.

c)

courtesy and manners.

d)

beliefs formed through the influence of family, culture, and society.

e)

a standard of competence.

22.

What do professional organizations create to govern their members?

a)

procedure manuals

b)

codes of ethics

c)

etiquette standards

d)

laws

e)

statutes

23.

The first step in a critical thinking problem solving is to

a)

gather information.

b)

implement the right decision.

c)

consider alternatives.

d)

evaluate the evidence.

e)

identify and clarify the problem.

24.

Bioethics is concerned with:

a)

etiquette in medical research

b)

health care law

c)

the ethics of scientists doing research in a university

d)

ethical implications of biological research methods and results

e)

moral values of the scientists

25.

What basic flaw do critics cite as the major problem with using virtue ethics as a decision-making tool?

a)

The decision-making framework to too rigid.

b)

The past may not provide the right answer.

c)

People in different walks of life would come to different decisions.

d)

The decision-making framework is difficult to understand.

e)

Not all people are moral or use common sense.

26.

A physician running a busy practice makes decisions for his employees on a regular basis. The physician would describe himself as "moral man with common sense, a sense of justice, and courage who makes the right decisions in life by focusing on these moral traits." What theory of decision making is being employed by this physician?

a)

virtue ethics

b)

deontological

c)

utilitarian

d)

duty-oriented theory

e)

consequence-oriented theory

27.

When using the utilitarianism method of problem solving, which of the following do proponents of this method indicate should be the solution of choice?

a)

The solution that has the best long-term results.

b)

The solution that provides happiness over pain for those involved.

c)

The option that reflects the decider's highest principles.

d)

The option that is absolutely right.

e)

The option with the earliest solution to the problem.

28.

An X-ray technician witnesses a nurse diagnosing a medical problem for a patient. Which of the seven principles of health care ethics has this nurse violated?

a)

veracity

b)

non-maleficence

c)

beneficence

d)

role fidelity

e)

justice

29.

Which of the following is known as a B-need in Maslow's hierarchy of human needs?

a)

A family needs food from the food bank.

b)

A child in the waiting room needs a safe play area.

c)

A health care provider needs assistance with their own addiction problem.

d)

A medical assistant needs to be respected by his/her fellow medical assistants.

e)

A patient with cancer needs chemotherapy.

30.

According to MacIntyre's theory of virtue ethics, what principle helps the decision maker arrive at a decision?

a)

loyalty to the role he or she plays

b)

looking to the future

c)

looking to religion

d)

belief in a higher being

e)

belief in the golden rule

31.

A health practitioner is interviewing a 6-year-old male child who is in Piaget's preoperational stage. Which of the following is characteristic of this stage?

a)

The child begins to develop abstract thought.

b)

The child is totally self-centered.

c)

The child tends to see things as either right or wrong.

d)

The child sees adults as powerful and controlling.

e)

The child views the world from his own perspective.

32.

A hospital administrator makes a decision to shut down a wing due to budget cuts even though some people will lose their jobs. The decision is based on results that will produce the greatest balance of good over evil, everyone considered. What type of framework is the administrator employing to make this value decision?

a)

act-utilitarianism

b)

justice

c)

rule-utilitarianism

d)

duty-oriented theory

e)

deontological theory

33.

A patient who was injured in a fall in a health care facility due to the negligence of the nurse is filing a medical malpractice lawsuit. Which ethical principle applies in this situation?

a)

autonomy

b)

beneficence

c)

role fidelity

d)

veracity

e)

justice

34.

A patient undergoing surgery signs an informed consent for the procedure. Which of the following principles of health care ethics does informed consent protect?

a)

autonomy

b)

non-maleficence

c)

veracity

d)

confidentiality

e)

role fidelity

35.

A child life specialist caring for children in the pediatric ward plays a game with a young patient who is enjoying the game, but makes up the rules as she goes along. This behavior is characteristic of what stage of moral development?

a)

preoperational stage

b)

formal operational stage

c)

post-operational stage

d)

sensorimotor stage

e)

concrete operational stage

36.

A physician is caring for an indigent 37-year-old male patient with no health insurance, who is admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis related to alcohol abuse. The administrator questions whether this patient is entitled to health care because he did not take responsibility for his actions leading to this condition and he has no health insurance plan. What is the ethical principle guiding the physician's actions?

a)

justice

b)

veracity

c)

confidentiality

d)

non-maleficence

e)

role fidelity

37.

In Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs, the need for basic life (food, shelter), a safe environment, and to belong and be loved are designated "D" needs. What does "D" stand for?

a)

deficiency

b)

deprivation

c)

destitute

d)

demanding

e)

decisive

38.

Virtue ethics focuses on the traits, characteristics, and virtues that a moral person should have. Who is the most well-known ethicist to write about this ethical decision making process?

a)

Jean Piaget

b)

Immanuel Kant

c)

Aristotle

d)

Alasdair MacIntyre

e)

Abraham Maslow

39.

A nurse caring for older adults in a nursing home has a paternalistic view about telling patients the truth about their conditions. Which of the following best describes the practice of paternalism?

a)

providing patients with a number of options

b)

forcing patients to do things against their will

c)

thinking that “I know what is best for the patient"

d)

being a strong patient advocate

e)

acting like a parent to the patient

40.

Which of the following theorists believed that human behavior is based on specific human needs that must often be met in a specific order?

a)

Immanuel Kant

b)

Abraham Maslow

c)

Jean Piaget

d)

Alasdair MacIntyre

e)

Lawrence Kohlberg

41.

A health care facility administrator considers the principle of utility when making decisions that affect the employees of the facility. Which of the following describes this principle?

a)

It is the decision that has the fewest adverse effects on the facility as a whole.

b)

It is the decision that is desired by the majority.

c)

It is based upon absolute truths applied in other situations.

d)

It brings about positive results when generalized to a wide variety of situations.

42.

A nurse manager determines the work shifts for the staff based on a predetermined health care facility guidelines. This is an example of what type of decision making?

a)

rule-utilitarianism

b)

duty-oriented

c)

act-utilitarianism

d)

virtue ethics

e)

deontological

43.

Jean Piaget is one of the most famous researchers in value development. How did Piaget formulate that there are four levels of moral development?

a)

by interviewing families with children

b)

by observing male children in the classroom

c)

by observing children at play

d)

by researching the discipline patterns of parents

e)

by interviewing grandparents

44.

A doctor prescribes a placebo for a patient who he feels is complaining of pain that is not there. This is an example of a violation of what principle of health care ethics?

a)

justice

b)

autonomy

c)

beneficence

d)

role fidelity

e)

veracity

45.

A child tells a nurse that he stole money from his mother's purse because he needed to buy some candy. He also states that he knows what he did was wrong and will not do it again. Based on this conversation, what stage of moral development would this child be experiencing?

a)

sensorimotor stage

b)

preoperational stage

c)

formal operational stage

d)

post-operational stage

e)

concrete operational stage

46.

In health care practices, ethics and laws often interconnect with risk management measures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these concepts?

a)

Law is described as a "choose to" activity.

b)

Ethics is the expression of values in social rules.

c)

Risk management is a mandatory practice.

d)

Ethics involve mandatory practices.

e)

Risk management involves choices to reduce potential liability.

47.

A person who makes a commitment to universal principles such as social justice, equal rights, and respect for the dignity of all people is in what stage of Kohlberg's developmental theory?

a)

pre-conventional morality, Stage 1

b)

pre-conventional morality, Stage 2

c)

post-conventional morality, Stage 2

d)

post-conventional morality, Stage 1

e)

conventional morality

48.

What is the unique focus of health care providers that challenges them to make sound ethical decisions?

a)

the performance of medical procedures

b)

the offering of health care to all

c)

the allocation of scarce resources

d)

the administration of medications

e)

the health and well-being of the patient

49.

A nurse practitioner is also a manager in a small practice with three physicians. One of the medical assistants comes to her and says that another employee is falsifying her work hours. The nurse practitioner knows that the two employees don't get along. What would be the next step the nurse would take if following the problem-solving process?

a)

List the options.

b)

Ask the other employee why she is falsifying her work hours.

c)

Evaluate the potential options.

d)

Collect the facts.

e)

Make a decision and act.

50.

Insured patients must designate a primary care provider (PCP) under which type of plan?

a)

indemnity plan

b)

independent practice plan

c)

point-of-service plan

d)

preferred provider plan

e)

open access plan

51.

A health care provider is explaining to staff members about the accreditation process. Which of the following may be accredited?

a)

a hospital

b)

a pharmacist

c)

a medical supply company

d)

a pharmaceutical company

e)

a pharmacy

52.

A valid out-of-state license is accepted as the basis for issuing a license in a second state without reexamination. This is called:

a)

reciprocity

b)

registration

c)

certification

d)

accreditation

e)

endorsement

53.

What federal legislation created health insurance exchanges that provide individuals with an ability to purchase insurance?

a)

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

b)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

c)

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act

d)

Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act

e)

Health Care Quality Improvement Act

54.

Facebook, Twitter, and blogs are examples of

a)

wikis

b)

closed-circuit television

c)

telemedicine

d)

social media

e)

discussion sites

55.

As a provision of the Affordable Care Act, health care insurers were encouraged to unite with health care providers to form what type of an organization?

a)

indemnity plan

b)

health maintenance organization

c)

preferred provider organization

d)

open access plan

e)

accountable care organization

56.

What federal legislation provided employees the ability to keep health insurance coverage when transferring to another job?

a)

Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act

b)

Health Care Quality Improvement Act

c)

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

e)

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

57.

Under this concept, a patient is established with a physician in a primary care group practice that provides a long-term partnership between the patient and providers in the group practice and also provides enhanced access for patients.

a)

patient-centered medical home

b)

independent practice home

c)

primary care medical home

d)

health maintenance plan

e)

open access plan

58.

Which of the following credentials is a voluntary, national examination that shows the level of competency for an individual?

a)

registration

b)

reciprocity

c)

endorsement

d)

certification

e)

accreditation

59.

A physician is undergoing professional peer review related to an incident of fraud in his practice. Which federal law requires that professional peer review action be taken in this case and also limits the damages for the professional review?

a)

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

b)

Health Care Quality Improvement Act

c)

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act

d)

Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act

e)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

60.

The statutes in all 50 states that govern the practice of medicine are called:

a)

physician licensing acts

b)

national board of medical licensing

c)

occupational statutes

d)

medical practice acts

e)

medical licensing acts

61.

A patient portal is

a)

an educational program for providers.

b)

an educational program for patients.

c)

an educational program for family members of dying patients.

d)

a medical device to provide nutrients to patients.

e)

online access to a variety of health care services and communications with providers.

62.

Which of the following is not sufficient grounds for revoking a medical license?

a)

personal incapacity

b)

falsifying medical records

c)

misdiagnosis

d)

conviction of a felony

e)

unprofessional conduct

63.

The most popular mobile medical app function is

a)

drug references.

b)

exercise programs.

c)

billing information.

d)

general medical reference.

e)

diagnostic support.

64.

When physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers contract with one or more HMOs or directly with employers to provide care, it is called a(n)

a)

physician hospital organization.

b)

open access plan.

c)

fee-for-service plan.

d)

indemnity plan.

e)

health maintenance plan.

65.

Under the provisions in the Affordable Care Act, insurance companies must cover dependent children up to age ___.

a)

23

b)

25

c)

26

d)

22

e)

24

66.

Which of the settings below provides limited liability for the providers?

a)

associate practice

b)

group practice

c)

partnership

d)

sole proprietorship

e)

professional corporation

67.

Which of these credentials is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field?

a)

certification

b)

reciprocity

c)

accreditation

d)

registration

e)

licensure

68.

Under this type of plan, a patient may see providers outside the plan, but the patient pays a higher portion of the fees.

a)

fee for service plan.

b)

health maintenance plan.

c)

open access plan.

d)

preferred provider plan.

e)

indemnity plan.

69.

Most medical training is provided in tertiary care settings. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary care setting?

a)

trauma center

b)

mobile clinic serving migrant workers

c)

walk in clinic

d)

community health care clinic

e)

physician's office

70.

A remote consultation with physicians or other health care professionals is called

a)

telemedicine.

b)

social media.

c)

patient monitoring.

d)

open access.

e)

closed-circuit television.

71.

A method used by a health plan to measure the amount and appropriateness of health services used by its members is called a(n)

a)

capitation review.

b)

formulary review.

c)

utilization review.

d)

accountable care review.

e)

coinsurance review.

72.

Coinsurance is

a)

the actual payment the insurance company makes to the provider.

b)

a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit.

c)

a percentage of the fee for services provided that the patient pays.

d)

a capitation payment.

e)

a portion of the fee that the physician must write off.

73.

A copayment is

a)

a portion of the fee that the physician must write off.

b)

a capitation payment.

c)

the actual payment the insurance company makes to the provider.

d)

a percentage of the fee for services provided that the patient pays.

e)

a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit.

74.

Which practice management system allows for a sharing of expenses without sharing profits and liability?

a)

associate practice

b)

partnership

c)

sole proprietorship

d)

group practice

e)

corporation

75.

There are ______ branches of the federal government.

a)

two

b)

six

c)

five

d)

four

e)

three

76.

The American Hospital Association (AHA) created a Patients' Bill of Rights in 1973. This Bill of Rights has

a)

been dropped and has become the Healthcare Provider Creed.

b)

been dropped by 25 states.

c)

been dropped and has become the Patient Care Partnership.

d)

become federal law.

e)

become state law in 25 states.

77.

From which of the following does an implied contract result?

a)

the legally worded contract

b)

the oral agreement of the parties involved

c)

the terms of the spoken agreement

d)

the written contract

e)

the actions of the parties involved

78.

Battery is defined as:

a)

needless or willful violence

b)

needless or willful damage

c)

the action that causes bodily harm to someone

d)

the open threat of bodily harm

e)

publicly damaging another's reputation

79.

A court of last resort is commonly known as a:

a)

supreme court

b)

state court

c)

federal court

d)

district court

e)

county court

80.

A felony is:

a)

a less serious criminal act

b)

a federal violation of the law

c)

a civil offense

d)

a more serious criminal act

e)

punishable by less than one year in prison

81.

The Easy Collection Agency continues to call Susan at work to talk to her about her past due account at St. John's Hospital. The Easy Collection Agency is violating which law?

a)

Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act

b)

Health Collection Act

c)

Statute of Frauds

d)

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

e)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

82.

A state court would have jurisdiction in which of the following cases?

a)

bankruptcy

b)

antitrust

c)

admiralty law

d)

license revocation

e)

copyright infringement

83.

A nurse who steals drugs from a medication cart is committing an offense under what kind of law?

a)

substantive law

b)

criminal law

c)

common law

d)

civil law

e)

administrative law

84.

A patient has not paid the balance due after insurance payments. The practice manager has sent numerous reminders and the patient has not contacted the practice. At this point, the practice manager

a)

can do nothing; the practice is out the money owed.

b)

may have the physician sign a letter of dismissal with 30 days to find a new physician.

c)

can report the patient to the Better Business Bureau.

d)

may sue the patient for the balance.

e)

may begin calling the patient at work.

85.

The President of the United Sates exercises limited legislative powers when issuing:

a)

executive orders

b)

fines

c)

public notices

d)

statutes

e)

common law

86.

The relatives of a patient in a nursing home have been prevented from seeing their family member by one of the staff in the nursing home. The patient had filed a complaint about the staff member, so the staff member thought it appropriate to prevent visitors. Which of the following torts might the staff member be convicted of?

a)

deceit

b)

false imprisonment

c)

invasion of privacy

d)

conversion

e)

trespass

87.

Assault is defined as:

a)

the open threat of bodily harm

b)

publicly damaging another's reputation

c)

needless or willful violence

d)

the action that causes bodily harm to someone

e)

needless or willful damage

88.

Both parties in the physician–patient relationship have certain rights and responsibilities. Which of the following is a physician responsibility?

a)

Exercise his or her best professional judgment in all cases.

b)

Possess the highest skills possible within the profession.

c)

Guarantee successful results.

d)

Restore the patient to his or her original state of health.

e)

Treat every patient who seeks medical care.

89.

A physician assistant provides treatment to a person who has come to the emergency room for treatment of a painful rash. This is an example of a(n)

a)

limited contract.

b)

verbal contract.

c)

written contract.

d)

implied contract.

e)

implied limited contract.

90.

The law of ________ makes employers liable for the actions of their employees.

a)

expression

b)

agency

c)

the agent

d)

liability

e)

corporate action

91.

Laws enacted by state or federal legislatures are called:

a)

common law

b)

bills

c)

statutes

d)

case law

e)

amendments

92.

Practicing medicine without a license is an example of which of the following types of laws?

a)

administrative law

b)

common law

c)

criminal law

d)

civil law

e)

substantive law

93.

Those responsibilities not set by the United States Constitution are left to the states. Which of the following is an exclusive power of state governments?

a)

print money

b)

establish post offices

c)

issue licenses

d)

nominate judges for the federal courts

e)

make laws controlling trade between states

94.

If a mentally incompetent person enters into a contract, the agreement may be set aside or validated at a later date. In this case, the agreement is said to be:

a)

breached

b)

enforced

c)

nullified

d)

violated

e)

voidable

95.

A misdemeanor is

a)

a federal violation of the law.

b)

a more serious criminal act.

c)

punishable by at least one year in prison.

d)

a less serious criminal act.

e)

a civil offense.

96.

Amanda is a nurse in Dr. Smith's pediatric practice. She accidentally gives a patient the wrong medication. Dr. Smith is held responsible under:

a)

res ipsa loquitur

b)

expressed contract

c)

implied contract

d)

respondeat superior

e)

duces tecum

97.

The highest law in our country is:

a)

the Bill of Rights

b)

an executive order

c)

a Supreme Court decision

d)

the U.S. Constitution

e)

the doctrine of respondeat superior

98.

Which of the following must be in writing?

a)

termination contract

b)

implied contract

c)

expressed contract

d)

employment contract

e)

third-party contract for health care coverage

99.

Unintentionally, a health care provider fails to exercise what is considered ordinary care. This is called _____________ and the provider may be sued by the patient.

a)

negligence

b)

assault

c)

precedent

d)

criminal

e)

a mistake

100.

The National Practitioner Data Bank may disclose information to which of the following groups?

a)

State legislators.

b)

Medical malpractice insurers.

c)

Defense attorneys.

d)

State licensing boards.

e)

The general public.

101.

Which brochure applies to both hospital and health care visits and encourages high qualify care?

a)

Patient Care Partnership: Understanding Expectations, Rights, and Responsibilities.

b)

DASH-Direct Admit System for Hospitals.

c)

Patient information.

d)

Professional Practice in Healthcare.

e)

Hospital Plan Plus.

102.

What basic flaw do critics cite as the major problem with using value ethics as a decision-making tool?

a)

The decision-making framework is difficult to understand.

b)

Not all people are moral or use common sense.

c)

The past may not provide the right answer.

d)

The decision-making framework to too rigid.

e)

People in different walks of life would come to different decisions.

103.

Which of the following is/are not enacted by government?

a)

Laws

b)

protocol.

c)

Legislation

d)

Medical practice acts

e)

Etiquette rules

104.

Which document serves as a guideline about professional behavior and etiquette for employees?

a)

The AMA's Code of Ethics.

b)

The office policy manual.

c)

Medical practice acts.

d)

Emily Post's Guide to Etiquette.

e)

The statutes of the city where the organization is located.

105.

A medical-surgical nurse is going off shift and giving her report to the nurse coming on duty. She is clearly and accurately describing the conditions of the patients she cared for during her shift. Which skill is an example of this?

a)

People skills.

b)

Critical thinking skills.

c)

Technical skills.

d)

Moral values skills.

e)

Problem solving skills.

106.

Which of the following is an example of a healthcare practitioner displaying compassion for a patient?

a)

A physician making rounds in a hospital asks a patient how he is doing.

b)

A nurse feels sorry for a patient who was just diagnosed with cancer.

c)

A medical assistant inquires about a patient's children.

d)

An LPN helps an elderly person walk through the hallways.

e)

A physician sits down with a patient and addresses all the concerns of the patient.

107.

A radiology technician approaches a new patient and states, "I am Jennifer and I will be taking care of you today." Which of the three "Cs" is an example of this?

a)

Common sense

b)

Compassion

c)

Commitment

d)

Coordination

e)

Courtesy

108.

The health care professional who studies law and ethics gains perspective on current issues that affect health care practice. Which of the following accurately describes one of those issues?

a)

A decrease in health care costs makes health care more affordable.

b)

The media has ensured that everyone has the same access to medical care.

c)

With the advancement of medical technology, patients expect favorable outcomes.

d)

Healthcare professionals should not be involved in the legal issues of patients.

e)

The role of the private sector in health care.

109.

A new employee in a large medical practice is looking for the professional etiquette staff members are expected to follow. Which would be the best source for learning these rules?

a)

The employee's professional code of ethics.

b)

The state's medical practice acts.

c)

The bulletin board in the employee lounge.

d)

The office policy manual.

e)

A search on the Internet for office etiquette.

110.

Psychologists question how individuals develop values that guide them in ethical decision making. Which of the following reflects current thought on value development?

a)

Individuals move from a personal value system to a needs-based motivation.

b)

Value development is the same for all people regardless of culture.

c)

Value development is not influenced by economic status.

d)

When people are born, they have no values in place.

e)

Once developed, values cannot change.

111.

Lawrence Kohlberg modified and expanded Piaget's work, laying the groundwork for modern studies on moral development. On which of the following tenets did the two disagree?

a)

That children under 12 years of age could develop moral values.

b)

That children form ways of thinking through their experiences.

c)

That the process of moral maturity took longer than 12 years.

d)

That children under 12 years of age could understand moral concepts.

e)

That all moral values are determined at birth.