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Allied Review EOPA 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of mucus and cilia in the nostrils?

a)

sound production

b)

filtration

c)

temperature control

d)

respiration

2.

Where are the sinuses located?

a)

in the front lobe of the brain

b)

in the skull surrounding the nasal cavity

c)

inside the nares

d)

under the cheek bones in the subcutaneous tissue

3.

What structure is a passageway for both food and air?

a)

pharynx

b)

bronchus

c)

trachea

d)

larynx

4.

If your epiglottis were to stop working, what activity could be life threatening?

a)

breathing

b)

walking

c)

coughing

d)

eating

5.

The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all made primarily of:

a)

cartilage

b)

bone

c)

muscle

d)

tendons

6.

What structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?

a)

pleura

b)

oropharynx

c)

trachea

d)

bronchioles

7.

Where in the respiratory tract does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

a)

larynx

b)

bronchi

c)

trachea

d)

alveoli

8.

Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many lobes do you have?

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

9.

What does the pleura allow the lungs to do?

a)

expand during breathing

b)

trap dust and other particles

c)

keep the alveoli distended

d)

cough

10.

In the the process of breathing, during what stage does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?

a)

internal respiration

b)

external respiration

c)

inspiration

d)

expiration

11.

During cellular respiration, what happens to the carbon dioxide?

a)

It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled from the lungs

b)

It leaves the bloodstream and enters the bloodstream

c)

It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream

d)

It leaves the alveoli and enters the bloodstream

12.

If a person could not produce surfactant, his/her

a)

alveoli would collapse

b)

bronchi would collapse

c)

vocal cords would not vibtate

d)

epiglottis would close

13.

Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler when she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device is to:

a)

dissolve mucus

b)

contract blood vessels

c)

liquefy secretions in the lungs

d)

enlarge the bronchioles

14.

Most respiratory disorders are caused by:

a)

infrection

b)

lack of excercise

c)

heredity

d)

poor circulation

15.

What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis caused by a bump in the nose?

a)

pack the nose with gauze

b)

compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head slightly forward

c)

cauterize the bleeder

d)

lay flat on the back, head back, and pack the nose with tissue

16.

What respiratory disorders are highly contagious?

a)

laryngitis and pleurisy

b)

influenza and URI

c)

sinusitis and epistaxis

d)

emphysema and asthma

17.

Mr. Arnold is a heavy smoker with a chronic smoker, bluish tint to the skin, and a barrel chest. He most likely suffers from:

a)

emphysema

b)

epistaxis

c)

tuberculosis

d)

pleurisy

18.

Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she has tubercles in her lungs. What does that mean?

a)

she had tuberculosis in the past but has recovered

b)

she has a dormant form of tuberculosis that could become active if her resistance is lowered

c)

she has an active case of tuberculosis and is being treated with antibiotics

d)

she has a history of an infection that is similar to thuberculosis and therefor is immune to TB

19.

What state is true about lung cancer?

a)

the prognosis is good

b)

treatment includes hormone therapy and blood transfusions

c)

it is the leading cause of cancer death in men and women

d)

second hand smoke rarely contributes to the development of lung cancer

20.

What diagnostic test provides physicians with a direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract?

a)

CPAP

b)

bronchoscopy

c)

pulmonary function tests

d)

chest x-ray

21.

The heart is best described as a

a)

muscular pump

b)

storage chamber

c)

message center

d)

filtration unit

22.

The heart is about the size of a/an

a)

egg

b)

apple

c)

peanut

d)

pumpkin

23.

What would happen if a small hole developed in the septum?

a)

the heart would stop pumping

b)

blood would move between the right and left side of the heart

c)

the blood from the pulmonary artery would enter the aorta

d)

blood would not flow into the coronary arteries

24.

When blood leaves the left atrium, where does it go next?

a)

aorta

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

pulmonary artery

25.

After blood leaves the right atrium, what valve prevents back flow?

a)

tricuspid

b)

mitral

c)

pulmonary

d)

aortic

26.

What follows diastole?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

fibrillation

c)

hyperbole

d)

systole

27.

Where does an electrical impulse go after it leaves the Bundle of His?

a)

sa node

b)

aorta

c)

av node

d)

purkinje fibers

28.

What type of blood vessel is the most muscular and elastic?

a)

artery

b)

vein

c)

venule

d)

capillary

29.

In what type of blood vessel does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange take place?

a)

artery

b)

arteriole

c)

capillary

d)

vein

30.

If a person dehydrated, what would there be less of in the blood?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

platelets

c)

leukocytes

d)

plasma

31.

If a person does not have enough of erythrocytes, he/she would have difficulty:

a)

fighting infection

b)

carrying oxygen

c)

clotting in the blood

d)

transporting antibodies

32.

Neutrophils and lymphocytes are examples of:

a)

platelets

b)

thrombocytes

c)

erythrocytes

d)

leukocytes

33.

Anemia could be caused by a lack of:

a)

moncytes

b)

thrombocytes

c)

hemoglobin

d)

plasma

34.

A hematologist would most likely treat someone with:

a)

varicose vein

b)

a myocardial infarction

c)

hemophilla

d)

an arrhythmia

35.

Jasmine is diagnosed with an aneurysm. What is wrong with one of her arteries

a)

it is missing

b)

it is twisted

c)

there is a weakness in the wall

d)

there is a clot that is struck

36.

Which of the following "cause-and-effect" statements is true

a)

varicose veins cause an aneurysm

b)

arteriosclerosis causes hypertension

c)

leukemia causes phlebitis

d)

an arrhythmia causes an aneurysm

37.

Your friend has pain?, edema, and redness in the lower leg. What would cause those symptoms

a)

phlebitis

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

myocardial infarction

d)

leukemia

38.

What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed with an electrocardiogram?

a)

anemia

b)

fibrillation

c)

hypertension

d)

embolism

39.

Which of the following disorders could be treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or a bone marrow transplant?

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

hypertension

c)

atherosclerosis

d)

leukemia

40.

Why is a myocardial infarction life threatening?

a)

because a damanged heart muscle cannot pump blood effectively

b)

because swollen veins lose elasticity which decreases blod flow to vital signs

c)

because a minor bump or fall could lead to internal bleeding

d)

because it inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in body cells

41.

Where does digestion begin?

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

esophagus

d)

mouth

42.

What is the small muscular structure that hangs from the the soft palate and can be seen when you look in someone's mouth?

a)

epiglottis

b)

uvula

c)

hard palate

d)

tonsils

43.

A bolus is made of:

a)

chewed food and saliva

b)

digested food and chyme

c)

salivary lipase and ptyalin

d)

bile and flatus

44.

What would happen to food you swallowed if your esophagus did not perform peristalsis?

a)

the food would be stuck in your esphagus

b)

the food would enter your trachea

c)

you would vomit when the food hit your stomach

d)

you would choke

45.

Roberta suffers from car sickness and can only ride on an empty stomach. If she eats at 8am, what is the soonest she can ride in a car and be sure her stomach is empty?

a)

9:00am

b)

10:00am

c)

12:00pm

d)

2:00pm

46.

When a person vomits,what is in the chyme that often causes burning?

a)

rennin

b)

rugae

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

chymotrypsin

47.

During digestion, food leaves the stomach and enters the;

a)

duodenum

b)

ileum

c)

cecum

d)

jejunum

48.

What part of the large intestine does not serve as a passageway for fecal waste?

a)

colon

b)

rectum

c)

anus

d)

appendix

49.

The liver secretes bile that aids in the digestion of:

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

fats

d)

glucose

50.

The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that empty into the:

a)

gallbladder

b)

stomach

c)

duodenum

d)

liver

51.

Why does alcoholism destroy the liver?

a)

the liver detoxifies alcohol, but is overworked by alcoholism

b)

the liver has an allergic-type reaction to alcohol

c)

alcohol robs the liver of glycogen, which causes liver cells to starve

d)

alcohol is stored in the liver, causing the liver to enlarge

52.

Which of the following disorders of the digestive system is the most life threatening?

a)

cirrhosis

b)

constipation

c)

heartburn

d)

hemorrhoids

53.

What disorder is often treated by the surgical removal of the gallbladder?

a)

hepatitis

b)

cholecystitis

c)

diverticulitis

d)

peritonitis

54.

Diverticulitis is a disorder if the

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

small intestine

d)

large intestine

55.

The H pylori bacterium burrows into the stomach membranes and can cause a/an

a)

ulcer

b)

appendicitis

c)

hernia

d)

hemorrhoid

56.

It is recommended that the healthcare workers receive a vaccine to prevent:

a)

hepatitis A

b)

hepatitis B

c)

hepatitis C

d)

hepatitis D

57.

What is the serious complication of a ruptured appendix?

a)

ulcer

b)

peritonitis

c)

hernia

d)

diverticulitis

58.

What disorder could be found during a colonoscopy ?

a)

peritonitis

b)

halitosis

c)

cancer

d)

hepatitis

59.

Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine gland?

a)

pituitary

b)

thymus

c)

pancreas

d)

ovary

60.

The parathyroid glands are located nearest what structure?

a)

larynx

b)

pinna

c)

liver

d)

kidneys

61.

Why is the pituitary the "master gland"?

a)

Its hormones affect other glands

b)

its hormones can replicate the actions of other hormones

c)

all hormones start as immature pituitary hormones

d)

its hormones control reproduction

62.

A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause the skin to become?

a)

cyanotic

b)

jaundiced

c)

white

d)

red

63.

What medical treatment is effective because of the absorption function of the skin?

a)

defibrillation

b)

massage

c)

heating pad

d)

nicotine patch

64.

The excretory function of the skin allows the body to eliminate excess:

a)

fat and sugar

b)

water and heat

c)

vitamin C

d)

minerals

65.

Spending short periods of time in the morning sun can be beneficial. How?

a)

toughens the skin to improve its protective functions

b)

improves circulation to the skin, improving skin health

c)

improves the skin's elasticity, preventing wrinkles

d)

helps in the protection of vitamin D

66.

The presence of cellulite can be attributed to what layer of the skin?

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

corium

d)

subcutaneous

67.

When compared to someone with very light skin, a person with dark skin has more:

a)

melanin

b)

melanocytes

c)

vitamin D

d)

vitamin C

68.

What causes the pinkish tint in an albino's skin?

a)

melanin

b)

carotene

c)

blood vessels

d)

jaundice

69.

What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves and hair follicles?

a)

dermis

b)

epidermis

c)

hypodermis

d)

subcutaneous

70.

Which of the following is a permanent disorder of the integumentary system?

a)

urticaria

b)

alopecia

c)

vesicle

d)

athlete's foot

71.

When you look at the skin, what layer can you see?

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

corium

d)

subcutaneous tissue

72.

You might expect a person's skin to be jaundiced is he/she has

a)

melanoma

b)

hepatitis

c)

ringworm

d)

scabies

73.

Basal cell and squamous cells are types of:

a)

pustules

b)

allergic skin disorders

c)

skin cancer

d)

nodules

74.

Which of the following skin diseases is contagious?

a)

eczema

b)

dermatitis

c)

athlete's foot

d)

psoriasis

75.

Your friend has developed a patch of red skin that is covered by silver scales. What is this?

a)

psoriasis

b)

urticaria

c)

alopecia

d)

dermatitis

76.

What skin disorder is often life threatening ?

a)

athlete's foot

b)

eczema

c)

verrucae

d)

melanoma

77.

Greta has macules on her face. The more common term is:

a)

chickenpox

b)

freckles

c)

hives

d)

scabs

78.

The bone function as levers in coordination with what other body system?

a)

circulatory

b)

digestive

c)

integumentary

d)

muscular

79.

The skeletal system is responsible for the production of:

a)

adrenalin

b)

red blood cells

c)

vitamins A and D

d)

calcium

80.

The tibia is an example of a/an

a)

long bone

b)

axial bone

c)

flat bone

d)

short bone

81.

The vertebrae are part of the:

a)

pelvic girdle

b)

shoulder girdle

c)

axial skeleton

d)

appendicular skeleton

82.

What does a newborn have that most adults do not have?

a)

foramina

b)

sutures

c)

sinuses

d)

fontanels

83.

Where would you find the periosteum

a)

in the medullary cavity

b)

outside the bone

c)

inside the epiphyses

d)

outside a fontanel

84.

What two bones articulate with each other?

a)

patella and ulna

b)

vertebrae and sternum

c)

metacarpals and phalanges

d)

carpals and humerus

85.

What type of joint connects the parietal bones to the temporal bone?

a)

synovial

b)

diarthrosis

c)

suture

d)

fontanel

86.

What bone do you have the greatest number of in your body?

a)

femurs

b)

phalanges

c)

cranial bones

d)

scapulas

87.

What skeletal structure is located in the skull?

a)

sinus

b)

epiphysis

c)

diaphysis

d)

carpal

88.

What is the function of an osteoblast?

a)

to form new bone tissue

b)

to fight infection

c)

to produce erythrocytes and leukocytes

d)

protection

89.

Bursitis usually affects the :

a)

long bones

b)

joints

c)

neck

d)

feet

90.

What skeletal disorder is usually treated with physical therapy, traction, or surgery?

a)

arthritis

b)

dislocation

c)

herniated disk

d)

osteoporosis

91.

Maria has kyphosis. What part of her vertebral column is out of normal alignment ?

a)

thoracic

b)

lumbar

c)

coccyxgeal

d)

cervical

92.

What bone disorder resulting from a loss of calcium and phosphorus is common among elderly females?

a)

scoliosis

b)

gout

c)

sprain

d)

osteoporosis

93.

Leonard has a greenstick fracture. What can you assume about Leonard?

a)

He twisted his leg skiing

b)

He was hit in the head

c)

He is a child

d)

He has an increased chance of infection

94.

Approximately 75% of the time, a first attack of gout affects the

a)

neck

b)

big toe

c)

long bones

d)

wrist

95.

What function do the orbits, eyelashes, and lacrimal glands all have in common?

a)

nutrition

b)

lubrication

c)

protection

d)

excretion

96.

When you look in the mirror , what part of the eye can you NOT see?

a)

iris

b)

pupil

c)

sclera

d)

retina

97.

What part of the eye is actually a mucous membrane?

a)

sclera

b)

cornea

c)

choroid coat

d)

conjunctiva

98.

When a person looks at an image, light rays pass through the eye and focus on the:

a)

pupil

b)

retina

c)

optic nerve

d)

lens

99.

How is glaucoma usually treated ?

a)

medication

b)

surgical removal of the lens

c)

corrective lens

d)

radial keratotomy

100.

What eye condition occurs more frequently in children ?

a)

cataract

b)

glaucoma

c)

strabismus

d)

presbyopia

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