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STAAR Science 8 - Cat 3 Practice

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the elevation of point B?

a)

800 ft

b)

850 ft

c)

900 ft

d)

1000 ft

e)

6 miles

2.

In which direction is Mill River flowing?

a)

Southeast

b)

Southwest

c)

Northeast

d)

Northwest

e)

West

3.

What landform best describes the area at the end of the arrow?

a)

volcano

b)

mountain

c)

cliff

d)

river

e)

plateau

4.

The satellite photo shows San Francisco, California, which has many miles of coastline and an inland bay. Which area of the coastline has most likely experienced the greatest effect of erosion from waves over hundreds of years?

a)

Area N

b)

Area P

c)

Area S

d)

Area T

5.

Which of the following is NOT evidence to support the Theory of Continental Drift?

a)

fresh water reptile fossils found on salt water coastlines

b)

mountain rock layers the same on multiple continents

c)

evidence of glaciers in tropical areas

d)

sand erosion found along coastal areas

e)

puzzle-like fit of the continents

6.

The presence of the same ________ on several continents supports the idea of continental drift.

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

fossils and rocks

d)

lakes

e)

rivers and streams

7.

Which of the following was the main reason many scientists refused to believe Wegener’s Theory of Continental Drift?

a)

he didn’t have evidence to back his ideas

b)

they were just plain mean

c)

most geologists at the time thought it was impossible for continents to move

d)

he was a meteorologist

8.

What is seafloor spreading?

a)

continental crust-continental crust banging into each other

b)

rift valleys closing their gaps

c)

one plate subducting under another plate making trenches

d)

convection currents in the mantle pull plates apart that are filled with magma making new rock & forming mid ocean ridges

9.

The San Andreas Fault is a transform fault. The map shows a student's approximation of where the fault line crosses through the United States. Students were asked to make maps predicting which way land would most likely move over thousands of years. Which map best predicts the likely movement of land along the fault line over thousands of years.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

10.

The diagram shows a model of the movement of two tectonic plates. When the plates collide, one plate often moves below the other plate. The rising magma that can result from this type of plate movement may produce ...

a)

fossil layers.

b)

volcanic islands.

c)

deep-sea sediment.

d)

seafloor spreading.

e)

continental mountains.

11.

A map of tectonic plate boundary interactions and a table describing them are provided.

Which boundary interaction will most likely result in a rift valley?

a)

Boundary Interaction 1

b)

Boundary Interaction 2

c)

Boundary Interaction 3

d)

Boundary Interaction 4

12.

One piece of evidence for Plate Tectonic Theory is seafloor spreading. The diagram provided shows the pattern of rock on either side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. The evidence that indicates that plates are moving apart at this location is that, as one looks at the rocks on either side, one sees that ...

a)

rocks are older the farther they are from the center.

b)

there is a thickening of the crust where the sides meet.

c)

rock types on one side are very different from the other.

d)

one rock layer melts as it moves under the other side.

13.

What land form(s) is(are) created when an oceanic plate is subducted beneath a continental plate?

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

rift valley

c)

trench and Volcanic Mountains

d)

trench and Volcanic Island Arc

14.

What geologic process formed the Himalayas?

a)

two continental plates converging

b)

an earthquake in a subduction zone

c)

a tectonic plate moving over a hot spot

d)

movement at a transform fault boundary

15.

Which describes the location of star A correctly?

a)

Star A is less bright than the Sun and has a surface temperature above 25,000 K

b)

Star A is brighter than the Sun and has a surface temperature below 25,000 K

c)

Star A is less bright than the Sun and has a surface temperature of above 11,000 K

d)

Star A is brighter than the Sun and has a surface temperature below 11,000 K.

16.

Which of these correctly identifies different objects in the universe according to their size and composition?

a)

A nebula is smaller than a solar system

b)

a solar system contains many stars

c)

a galaxy contains many solar systems

d)

a galaxy is bigger than a universe

17.

Why does our Sun, an average sized star, appear so much brighter than other more massive stars?

a)

The Sun is lit.

b)

The Sun is closer to Earth than other stars.

c)

The Sun is made of different elements.

d)

The Sun is prettier so it shines brighter.

e)

The Sun is larger than other stars.

18.

In relation to us, most galaxies are…

a)

Moving toward us.

b)

Moving away from us.

c)

Not moving.

d)

Moving parallel to us.

19.

Which piece of evidence supports the Big Bang theory?

a)

The more distant galaxies are moving the slowest.

b)

The more distant galaxies are moving the quickest.

c)

The more distant galaxies are moving towards us.

d)

Galaxies and space is not changing.

20.

What type of galaxy do we live in?

a)

Spiral

b)

Elliptical

c)

Irregular

d)

Coaxial

21.

The Sun's position in the Milky Way is ...

a)

near the center of the galaxy.

b)

a little over half way out from the center to the edge of the galaxy.

c)

at the very edge of the galaxy.

d)

just below the galaxy central core of stars.

e)

not located within the galaxy.

22.

Proxima Centauri is the closest star to Earth after the Sun and is located 4.3 light years away from Earth. How long does it take light from Proxima Centauri to reach Earth?

a)

1 year

b)

4.3 years

c)

43 years

d)

10 trillion years

e)

4.3 minutes

23.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Spiral

b)

Elliptical

c)

Irregular

d)

Irrational

e)

Square

24.

Which labeled star in this diagram has the lowest luminosity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

25.

The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shows how the brightness, surface temperature, and color of stars are related. Which of these observations of Barnard's Star is most likely accurate?

a)

Barnard’s Star is less bright than the sun, has a surface temperature below 3,800 K, and is red.

b)

Barnard’s Star is less bright than the sun, has a surface temperature above 3,800 K, and is red.

c)

Barnard’s Star is brighter than the sun, has a surface temperature below 5,300 K, and is yellow.

d)

Barnard’s Star is brighter than the sun, has a surface temperature above 5,300 K, and is yellow

26.

The universe has many different components. Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest?

a)

planets, stars, galaxies, moons

b)

moons, stars, planets, galaxies

c)

galaxies, stars, planets, moons

d)

moons, planets, stars, galaxies

27.

If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the blue side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...

a)

moving towards the Earth.

b)

moving away from the Earth.

c)

a trick question that cannot be answered.

d)

moving at the same speed as Earth.

28.

(6.11B) An object will continue moving in a straight line unless it is acted on by an unbalanced force. Which of the following best explains Earth’s motion?

a)

There is no unbalanced force acting on Earth because space is empty and nothing touches Earth.

b)

The gravitational force pulling Earth toward the sun is equal and opposite to the force pulling the sun toward Earth, so there is no unbalanced force acting on Earth.

c)

The sun moves in an elliptical orbit around Earth, and the sun’s gravity pulls Earth along.

d)

Earth moves in an elliptical orbit around the sun because the gravitational force of the sun attracts Earth.

29.

What is one condition that is necessary for a hurricane to form?

a)

Warm ocean water

b)

A strong cold front

c)

Cold ocean water

d)

A strong warm front

30.

The satellite photograph shows a large meteorite crater that is 1200 m in diameter and 170 m deep. This crater is located in a flat, arid part of northeastern Arizona. How will this crater most likely change over time?

a)

It will get deeper as it fills with water.

b)

It will rise up like a volcanic crater.

c)

It will become less deep as the rim erodes.

d)

It will widen as it fills with lava.

e)

Nothing will happen, it will stay the same always.

31.

(7.8C) What are sources of water pollution?

a)

Precipitation as Acid rain

b)

Runoff water & Groundwater

c)

Industry & Household waste

d)

Plastics water bottles

e)

All of these

32.

(7.8C) The picture shows how runoff from an urban location is routed to the ocean. Pollution in the runoff can damage ocean ecosystems. A likely cause of the runoff is ...

a)

larger amounts of farmland to support more people.

b)

pavement and concrete prevents water from entering the groundwater increasing runoff.

c)

increased rainfall in urban areas.

d)

sediments being deposited in the streams and rivers around urban areas.

33.

A student keeps a record of the phases of the Moon for one month. On the first night of the student’s observations, the full moon is visible in the sky. After the full moon, which of these phases will the student observe next?

a)

waxing crescent moon

b)

waxing gibbous moon

c)

waning crescent moon

d)

waning gibbous moon

34.

(7.8C) A student sets up the investigation shown. The movement of colored water trough the gravel best models ...

a)

condensation of water vapor.

b)

surface runoff of precipitation.

c)

conservation of water.

d)

pollution of groundwater.

35.

Day and night on Earth is caused by -

a)

Earth revolving around the Sun.

b)

Earth rotating on its axis.

c)

the Moon revolving around Earth.

d)

the Moon revolving around the Sun.

e)

the Sun revolving around the Earth and Moon.

36.

Which of the following is an examples of climate?

a)

Today it is hot and sunny in Phoenix, Arizona.

b)

Summers are usually mild in Lansing, Michigan.

c)

Last week it rained every day in San Antonio, TX.

d)

Yesterday was cold and windy in Anchorage, AK.

37.

Before the front passed through Houston, the temperature was 14 ⁰C. Which temperature is a reasonable prediction after the front has passed?

a)

26 ⁰C

b)

14 ⁰C

c)

8 ⁰C

d)

16 ⁰C

38.

All of these are true about the diagram EXCEPT-

a)

seasons are caused by Earth's tilt as it revolves around the Sun.

b)

the season shown in the northern hemisphere is winter.

c)

the season shown for the southern hemisphere is summer.

d)

seasons are caused by rotation of the Earth.

39.

Why are Earth's high tides the highest when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are lined up?

a)

The Moon is blocking the gravity of the Sun.

b)

The gravity of Earth is pulling on the Moon.

c)

The Sun's gravity increases as the Moon is pulled away from Earth.

d)

The Sun's gravity and the Moon's gravity are pulling in the same direction.

40.

When the North Pole is tilted toward the Sun and the US has the most daylight hours, it is...

a)

winter.

b)

spring.

c)

summer .

d)

fall.

41.

What moon phase is seen from Earth when the Moon is in position 3 of this diagram?

a)

waxing crescent

b)

1st quarter

c)

3rd quarter

d)

waning crescent

e)

new moon

42.

based on this diagram, what lunar phase would be next?

a)

waxing gibbous

b)

waning gibbous

c)

full moon

d)

new moon

e)

full moon

43.

On June 3rd there is a full moon. How many days until a 1st quarter moon is seen?

a)

28 days

b)

14 days

c)

7 days

d)

21 days

e)

1 month

44.

When a warm air mass gently slides on top of a cold air mass, and you have drizzly rain and then warmer weather, what type of front is it?

a)

warm front

b)

cold front

c)

occluded front

d)

stationary front

45.

Changes in air pressure can signify changes in weather. Which weather tool measures air pressure?

a)

thermometer

b)

barometer

c)

anemometer

d)

psychrometer

e)

hygrometer

46.

Wind is caused by difference in air pressure. The tool used measures wind speed is the ...

a)

thermometer

b)

barometer

c)

anemometer

d)

psychrometer

e)

wind vane

47.

Severe weather is associated with the tall cumulonimbus clouds. They are often created when a _?_ front arrives.

a)

warm front

b)

cold front

c)

stationary front

d)

occluded front

48.

Which celestial body has the greatest effect on Earth's tides?

a)

Sun

b)

Saturn

c)

Moon

d)

Venus

e)

Earth

49.

What type of tide would this arrangement of the Earth, Moon and Sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

e)

no tide

50.

If tides alternate from high to low and there are two of each type of tide a day, about how many hours on average will there be between each different tide?

a)

2 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

e)

8 hours

51.

The diagram shows an alignment of the Sun, the Moon, and Earth. In which locations are low tides taking place?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 4

d)

3 and 4

e)

1, 2, 3, & 4

52.

Which is the primary cause of surface winds on Earth?

a)

uneven heating of the Earth and its surface

b)

deflection in prevailing winds caused by the Coriolis effect

c)

rotational speeds of Earth's surface at various latitudes

d)

revolution of the Earth creating changes in temperatures

53.

The climate in cities that are close to a large body of water tends to be ...

a)

cooler in the summer and warmer in the winter than inland cities.

b)

cooler in the winter and warmer in the summer than inland cities.

c)

cooler in the winter and the summer than inland cities.

d)

warmer in the winter and the summer than inland cities.

54.

Ocean surface currents are a result of ...

a)

global wind patterns.

b)

Earth's rotation.

c)

variations in ocean density.

d)

variations in ocean salinity.

e)

revolution of Earth.

55.

Ocean currents have an affect on which two things listed below?

a)

climate and weather

b)

temperature and density

c)

land and sea

d)

equator and poles

56.

What causes warm air to rise?

a)

the fact that it's less dense than cold air

b)

The fact that it weighs more than cold air

c)

The fact that it has higher pressure than cold

d)

the fact that its more dense than cold air

57.

When gravity causes warm air to rise which then cools and sinks, it creates _?_ in the atmosphere.

a)

high pressure

b)

convection currents

c)

low pressure

d)

stratospheric pressure

e)

precipitation

58.

What creates the air pressure difference between the equator and the poles?

a)

The length of the seasons

b)

The shape of the Earth

c)

the duration of the solar year

d)

The amount of direct sunlight each area receives

59.

Which of these changes would likely occur if the rate of Earth’s rotation increased?

a)

The length of the seasons would be shorter.

b)

The length of the seasons would be longer.

c)

The length of a day would be shorter.

d)

The length of a day would be longer.

e)

Nothing would happen.

60.

(6.11B) In July 1994 the comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 collided with the planet Jupiter, as scientists had predicted. To be able to accurately predict when a comet will collide with a planet, it is essential to understand —

a)

the composition of a planet’s atmosphere.

b)

the gravitational attraction that exists between all bodies.

c)

the attraction of opposite poles of a magnet to each other.

d)

the formation of comets.

e)

how to make a good guess.