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Honors Biology Final Exam Review

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Water's temperature stays relatively________
a)
stable
b)
unstable 
c)
different
d)
changing 
2.

Proteins are made of monomers called ___________

a)

nucleotides

b)

monosaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

fatty acids

3.

To what class of macromolecule do enzymes belong?

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

nucleic acid

4.

Which class of macromolecules is the main source of energy for living things, and is therefore most closely involved in photosynthesis and respiration?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

5.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
6.
What are the four macromolecules?
a)
proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids
b)
monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccaharides, and proteins
c)
RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates
d)
proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
7.

Which of the following carbohydrate polymers stores energy in plants?

a)

cellulose

b)

chitin

c)

glycogen

d)

starch

8.
Capillary action is the result of adhesion. Which aspect of water is responsible for this?
a)
Nonpolar covalent bonds that enable water to dissolve other substances
b)
Polar covalent bonds that join molecules of water to other substances
c)
Hydrogen bonds between water and another substance
d)
Ionic bonds that enable electrons to flow through water and into another substance
9.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
10.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
11.

Which of the following carbohydrate polymers makes up the cell wall in plants?

a)

cellulose

b)

chitin

c)

glycogen

d)

starch

12.

Which of these is NOT true?

a)

Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.

b)

Each enzyme can catalyze multiple types of chemical reactions.

c)

Extreme pH can denature enzymes.

d)

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.

13.

The two strands of DNA are held together by

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

ionic bonds

14.

DNA is a polymer made of

a)

nucleotides

b)

ribosomes

c)

fatty acids

d)

amino acids

15.

The term used to describe DNA replication is

a)

semi-conservative

b)

conservative

c)

antiparallel

d)

dispersive

16.

In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

17.

DNA nucleotides contain which components? (select ALL that apply)

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

deoxyribose sugar

c)

phosphate group

d)

fatty acid

e)

amino acid

18.

Guanine bonds with ______________.

a)

adenine

b)

guanine

c)

cytosine

d)

thymine

19.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
20.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
21.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
22.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides during DNA replication?
a)
Helicase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
23.
What is a change in DNA sequence?
a)
nucleotide
b)
mutation
c)
mutagen
d)
unfortunate
24.
DNA codes for...
a)
cholesterol
b)
proteins
c)
fatty acids
d)
a sandwich
25.
Which of the following is the sugar found in RNA?
a)
Ribose
b)
Maltose
c)
Deoxyribose
d)
Amylose
26.
Which of the following bases is NOT found in RNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Adenine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
27.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication 
d)
mutation
28.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
29.
What process is being shown here?
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
30.
What does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
31.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
32.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
33.
A change in DNA that may result in a shortening of the resulting protein is called a
a)
missense mutation
b)
nonsense mutation
c)
frameshift mutation
d)
silent mutation
34.
Which of the following mutations results in the loss or addition of a single nucleotide, changing the DNA codons?
a)
missense
b)
nonsense
c)
frameshift
d)
silent
35.
A change in one nucleotide to another is known as a/n 
a)
frameshift mutation
b)
missense mutation
c)
somatic mutation
d)
point mutation
36.

What is the location in the cell for transcription?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

chloroplast

37.

Which of the following are conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? (select all that apply)

a)

No mutations

b)

Random mating

c)

No natural selection

d)

Gene flow

e)

Small population size

38.

Which of the following are mechanisms for evolution because they violate Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

gene flow

b)

genetic drift

c)

natural selection

d)

large population size

e)

random mating

39.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
40.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
41.

Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring?

a)

individual

b)

population

c)

species

d)

fossil

42.

This term describes the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment.

a)

diversity

b)

evolution

c)

adaptation

d)

fitness

43.

All of the meerkats that live in the same place at the same time make up a ____________.

a)

Community

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Population

d)

Biosphere

44.

______________ is all of the living and nonliving things in a given area.

a)

A population

b)

A community

c)

An ecosystem

d)

The biosphere

45.

All of the populations in a given area make up a ____________.

a)

community

b)

habitat

c)

ecosystem

d)

species

46.
The energy at each trophic level in the pryamid of energy decreases by a factor of ____.
a)
10
b)
1
c)
100
d)
2
47.
As resources in a population become less available, population growth
a)
declines rapidly
b)
increases slowly
c)
reaches carrying capacity
d)
enters a phase of exponential growth
48.
What type of growth model is this?
a)
exponential growth model
b)
logistic growth model
c)
Type I curve
d)
Type III curve
49.
Carrying Capacity is
a)
the capacity of what one person can carry per day 
b)
how many animals you have in your daily bag limit at the end of the year
c)
wildebeest at a watering hole with zebras
d)
the maximum number of individuals that the environment can support
50.
What type of growth is shown on this graph?
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
average
d)
density-independent
51.

Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?

a)

natural disaster

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

parasitism

52.
Diseases may spread more rapidly when an area is crowded, so disease is considered to be a
a)
type I survivorship curve
b)
population crasher
c)
density-dependent limiting factor
d)
population enhancer
53.
Has membrane bound organelles
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
54.

Which has ribosomes?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

both

55.
Has Mitochondria
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
56.
rigid structure that provides support and protection to plant, bacterial, and fungal cells
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Cytoskeleton
57.

Carries out protein synthesis

a)

Golgi body

b)

Centriole

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosome

58.

Site of protein AND lipid synthesis

a)

Ribosome

b)

Lysosome

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Golgi Apparatus

59.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
60.
What is it called when molecules move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a carrier protein?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
61.

A cell will _____________________ in a solution that contains a higher concentration of solute than what is in the cell (hypertonic solution).

a)

swell

b)

shrink

c)

not change in size

62.

A cell will __________________ when placed in a solution with a smaller solute concentration than what is in the cell (hypotonic solution).

a)

swell and perhaps burst

b)

shrink

c)

not change in size

63.

Select all of the following molecules that could move into or out of the cell through the phospholipid bilayer.

a)

Na+

b)

CO2

c)

H2O

d)

O2

e)

Glucose

64.

Osmosis is the net movement of water

a)

into a cell

b)

out of a cell

c)

from a hypotonic region to a hypertonic region

d)

from a hypertonic region to a hypotonic region

65.

Which of the following most accurately describes the structure of the cell membrane?

a)

lipid bilayer with embedded proteins

b)

carbohydrate bilayer with embedded lipids

c)

protein bilayer with embedded carbohydrates

d)

protein bilayer with embedded lipids

66.

Which of the following most correctly lists cell organelles in the order they play their roles, starting with protein assembly and ending with protein secretion from the cell?

a)

ER > lysosomes > vesicles

b)

Golgi > ER > lysosomes

c)

nucleus > ER > Golgi

d)

ER > Golgi > vesicles

67.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
68.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
69.

Which of the following molecules is NOT needed for the Calvin Cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

70.

The light reactions occur in the ________ and the Calvin cycle takes place in the ________.

a)

Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane

b)

stroma / thylakoid

c)

mesophyl / stomata

d)

thylakoid membrane / stroma

71.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
72.

Where/when is glucose synthesized?

a)

Photosystem II

b)

Photosystem I

c)

Calvin Cycle

d)

Glycolysis

73.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
stroma of the chloroplast
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
d)
interior of the thylakoid membrane
74.
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of
a)
reducing NADP+
b)
splitting water molecules
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
electron transfer in photosystem II and I
75.
What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
a)
regenerate ATP for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
b)
produce carbon dioxide for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
c)
produce oxygen by oxidizing water
d)
produce simple sugars from carbon dioxide
76.

During chemiosmosis, a proton (H+) concentration gradient is created in order to eventually

a)

make NADPH

b)

split a water molecule

c)

generate ATP

d)

form water

77.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

Glycolysis does not require oxygen

b)

Glycolysis is the first step in both anaerobic and aerobic respiration

c)

Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria

d)

Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvates, and 2 NADH

78.

Glucose is split into two pyruvate molecules in a process known as

a)

glycolysis

b)

electron transport

c)

the Krebs cycle

d)

phosphorylation

79.

This term refers to the production of ATP without oxygen being present.

a)

anaerobic respiration

b)

prokaryotic respiration

c)

aerobic respiration

d)

chemosynthesis

80.

In the most general sense, what is cellular respiration?

a)

the breakdown of glucose to release ATP

b)

the breakdown of glucose to release NADH

c)

the breakdown of glucose to release FADH

d)

the breakdown of glucose to release carbon

81.

Which of these molecules is released during the Krebs cycle?

a)

ammonia (NH3)

b)

oxygen (O2)

c)

water (H2O)

d)

carbon dioxide (CO2)

82.

What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration?

a)

Provide electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain

b)

Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration

c)

Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration

d)

Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis

83.

What are the stages of aerobic cellular respiration in order?

a)

glycolysis, electron transport chain, Krebs cycle

b)

electron transport chain, glycolysis, Krebs cycle

c)

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain

d)

Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis

84.
The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is
a)
oxygen
b)
water
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
NAD+
85.
The main purpose of anaerobic respiration is to
a)
produce oxygen
b)
replenish NAD+ for glycolysis
c)
replenish oxaloacetic acid for the Krebs cycle
d)
produce ATP
86.

Which of the following correctly describes the reactants and products of the light reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Reactants = Light and water; Products = ATP, NADPH, oxygen

b)

Reactants = Light and oxygen; Products = ATP, NADPH, water

c)

Reactants = ATP, NADPH, oxygen; Products = Light and water

d)

Reactants = Light, ATP, water; Products = NADPH, oxygen

87.

What is the primary purpose of the Krebs cycle?

a)

Produce ATP

b)

Fix CO2 into usable carbohydrates

c)

Produce NADH and FADH2 by removing carbons from sugars one at a time

d)

Split glucose into 2 pyruvate molecules

88.

Electron transport chains are important in both photosynthesis and respiration because

a)

they allow protons to flow down their concentration gradient.

b)

they establish an electron gradient that allows for conduction of signals.

c)

they pump protons against their gradient, and the gradient is later used to produce ATP.

d)

they split water molecules in order to produce oxygen.

89.

Which of the following correctly describes the reactants and products of the Calvin cycle?

a)

Reactants = Light and water; Products = ATP, NADPH, oxygen

b)

Reactants = Water and CO2; Products = ATP, NADPH, carbohydrates

c)

Reactants = ATP, NADPH, CO2; Products = carbohydrates

d)

Reactants = Light, ATP, water; Products = NADPH, oxygen

90.

Where in the cell does glycolysis take place?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Nucleus

91.

What process plays a part in both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism?

a)

the Krebs cycle

b)

electron transport chain

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

glycolysis

92.

What is one function of having other pigments besides chlorophyll in the chloroplast?

a)

to block damaging wavelengths of light

b)

to absorb different wavelengths than the chlorophyll

c)

to provide different colors to the leaves

d)

to transfer energy to a separate photosystem beside the one using chlorophyll a and b.

93.
Green plants reflect ________ light.
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
All
d)
Red and Violet
94.

Which molecule carries more energy?

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

95.
What is this phase of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
96.
What is this phase of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
97.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
98.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
99.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
100.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
101.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
102.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
103.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
104.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
105.
What phase is  shown in the picture?
a)
Anaphase 1
b)
Anaphase 2
c)
Metaphase 1
d)
Telophase 2
106.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase II
107.
What are somatic cells?
a)
Body cells
b)
Sex cells
c)
Body and Sex cells
d)
It varies from organism to organism
108.

Bacteria reproduce asexually by a process called

a)

replication

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

binary fission

109.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
110.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
a)
Grows
b)
Matures
c)
Carries on normal activities
d)
All of the above
111.
In the S stage of interphase_______________
a)
the cell grows
b)
the nucleus divides
c)
the cell membrane divides
d)
the DNA is replicated
112.

A gene is a section of DNA that codes for a(n)

a)

protein

b)

allele

c)

channel

d)

receptor

113.

Autosomal traits are those that

a)

are coded on X and Y chromosomes

b)

are coded on numbered (non-sex) chromosomes

c)

are encoded by dominant alleles

d)

are encoded by recessive alleles

114.

Which of the following describes an inheritance pattern that occurs when one gene influences multiple phenotypic traits?

a)

Polygenic traits

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Epistasis

d)

Pleiotropy

115.

Which of the following is an inheritance pattern in which one gene modifies or masks the expression of another gene?

a)

Polygenic traits

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Epistasis

d)

Pleiotropy

116.

Human eye color and skin color are examples of which inheritance pattern?

a)

Polygenic traits

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Epistasis

d)

Pleiotropy

117.

Sex-linked traits are those that

a)

are coded on X and Y chromosomes

b)

are coded on numbered (non-sex) chromosomes

c)

are encoded by dominant alleles

d)

are encoded by recessive alleles

118.

Which inheritance pattern is characterized by heterozygotes displaying a blended or intermediate phenotype?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Codominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Polygenic traits

119.

Which inheritance pattern is characterized by heterozygotes displaying both allelic phenotypes at the same time?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Codominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Polygenic traits

120.

Fathers pass X chromosomes to their

a)

sons

b)

daughters

c)

sons and daughters

121.

Mothers pass X chromosomes to their

a)

sons

b)

daughters

c)

sons and daughters

122.

Calico cat fur coloring is associated with which two inheritance patterns?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Epistasis

d)

Sex-linked traits

e)

Polygenic traits

123.

If a flower's color pattern were inherited by codominance, then a purebred red flower and a purebred blue flower would produce offspring that are

a)

red and blue

b)

purple

c)

red, blue, and purple

d)

red only

e)

blue only

124.
The pedigree shown indicates the expression pattern of VHL in a specific family. Genetic counselors told the affected female that she and her non-carrier husband had a 50% chance of producing children with VHL.  Based on this information, which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern for this disorder?
a)
X-linked recessive
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Autosomal dominance
d)
Autosomal recessive
125.

Australian shepherd dogs can have a solid coat color (mm) or a mixed pattern coat color called merle (Mm). The homozygous dominant coat color is called a lethal white (MM) which produces pups that are deaf and blind. The Australian Shepherds of America Club discourages from mating two merles. Which of the following best explains why merle-to-merle matings are undesirable?

a)

The cross has the probability of producing litters with 50% solid coat color pups.

b)

The cross produces all homozygous recessive pups

c)

The cross has the probability of producing litters with 25% merle coat pups.

d)

The cross has a 25% chance of producing homozygous dominant pups.

126.
If a female who is heterozygous for color blindness marries a normal male, what percent of their children will be color blind?
a)
0 %
b)
25 %
c)
50 %
d)
75 %
127.
X-linked recessive disorders are more likely to affect which gender?
a)
Males 
b)
Females
c)
Both Equally
d)
No one can have the disorder
128.
What percentage of the offspring are homozygous recessive when you cross two heterozygotes for a trait? 
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
129.

What is the expected phenotypic ratio for offspring of two parents who are both heterozygous for two different traits?

a)

3:1

b)

9:3:3:1

c)

3:1:3:1

d)

9:1

130.

In a chi-square analysis, how do you find degrees of freedom?

a)

one less than the possible genotypes

b)

one less than the possible phenotypes

c)

total number divided 2

d)

total number times 2

131.

In a chi-square analysis, how do you find the expected number for a phenotype?

a)

ratio from Punnett square multiplied by total

b)

ratio from Punnett square divided by total

c)

ratio from Punnett square multiplied by observed number

d)

ratio from Punnett square minus observed number

132.

In a chi-square analysis, which significance level (p-value column) do you look at when finding the critical value?

a)

0.50

b)

0.10

c)

0.05

d)

0.01

133.

Gene linkage will lead to _______ genetic variation in a population.

a)

more

b)

less

134.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
135.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel elctrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
136.
Restriction Enzymes . . . 
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
137.

Which of the following represents directional selection?

a)
b)
c)
138.

Which of the following represents disruptive selection?

a)
b)
c)
139.

Which of the following represents stabilizing selection?

a)
b)
c)
140.

Which of the following statements is most accurate when describing natural selection?

a)

It is goal-directed

b)

Individuals evolve

c)

Variation exists in a population

d)

It is driven by acquired characteristics

141.
The condition in which there are barriers to successful interbreeding between individuals of different species in the same community is referred to as 
a)
sexual dependency
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
geographic isolation
d)
adaptive radiation
142.

The wing of a bat and a human's arm have different functions and appear very different. Yet, the underlying anatomy is basically the same and is most likely derived from a common ancestor. Therefore, these structures are examples of

a)

vestigial structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

homologous structures

d)

transitional structures

143.

The population of peppered moths in England changing from white to black in 50 years is an example of

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

sexual selection

c)

directional selection

d)

disruptive selection

144.
The differences in sparrow songs among sympatric species of sparrows are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
convergent evolution
c)
behavioral isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
145.

Darwin's finches are an example of what kind of speciation?

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

divergent evolution

c)

founder effect

d)

convergent evolution

146.

The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that morphologically resembles the North America wolf, which is a placental mammal. The physical similarities between these two unrelated organisms can be explained by

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

divergent evolution

c)

founder effect

d)

convergent evolution

147.

What is speciation?

a)

combining of two species to form one with different traits

b)

isolation that affects mating behaviors

c)

timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection

d)

divergence of two or more species from an existing one

148.

In evolutionary biology, reproductive success is described as

a)

sexuality

b)

mutation rate

c)

fitness

d)

adaptability

149.

Which of the following evolutionary mechanisms can introduce new genetic variation into a population?

a)

natural selection and non-random mating

b)

natural selection and genetic drift

c)

mutation and genetic drift

d)

mutation and gene flow

150.

Which of the following is an example of gene flow?

a)

A subordinate wolf successfully challenges the alpha male and mates with pack females.

b)

A deer picks up spores from a plant as it grazes and deposits them next to that plant.

c)

A young stallion is driven out of its herd by the alpha stallion and begins a brand new herd in another location.

d)

A male frog from an upstream population is swept downstream and mates with female frogs there.

151.

Two populations could interbreed, except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn. Which of the following types of reproductive barrier will ultimately lead to speciation?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

mechanical isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

temporal isolation

152.

On a cladogram, what represents the common ancestor of two species?

a)

The organism listed at the end of the outgroup branch

b)

The node at which the two species' branches meet

c)

The organism listed at the end of the next closest branch

153.

Which two are considered types of genetic drift, or random change in allele frequency?

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

gene flow

c)

sexual selection

d)

founder effect

154.

Which of the following are most closely associated with convergent evolution?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Analogous structures

d)

Transitional fossils

155.

The biological species concept states that

a)

organisms are part of the same species if they breed

b)

organisms are part of the same species if they look the same

c)

organisms are part of the same species if they can produce fertile offspring

d)

organisms are part of the same species if they look the same and act the same

156.

What is the main driving factor for defining the niche of a specific species?

a)

competition with other species

b)

carrying capacity

c)

competition within their species

d)

predators

157.

What is niche partitioning?

a)

When species compete and drive one of them to extinction

b)

When species subdivide a niche to reduce competition

c)

When species compete indefinitely for a resource

d)

When species eat different food sources

158.
What is the carrying capacity of the graph?
a)
around 500
b)
more than 500
c)
less than 500
d)
around 600
159.

Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population is known as __________.

a)

a limiting measure

b)

a limiting factor

c)

carrying capacity

d)

biodiversity

160.

Which trophic level in an ecosystem always contains the most biomass?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary consumers

c)

Secondary consumers

d)

Tertiary consumers

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