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Chemistry Exam Review

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A chemical equation is balanced when

a)

coefficients of the reactants equal the coefficients of the products

b)

same number of each kind of atom appears in the reactants and in the products

c)

products and reactants are the same chemicals

d)

subscripts of the reactants equal the subscripts of the products

2.

A balanced chemical equation allows one to determine the

a)

mole ratio of any two substances in the reaction

b)

energy released in the reaction

c)

electron configuration of all elements in the reaction

d)

mechanism involved in the reaction

3.

The coefficients in a chemical equation represent the

a)

masses, in grams, of all reactants and products

b)

relative numbers of moles of reactants and products

c)

number of atoms in each compound in a reaction

d)

number of valence electrons involved in the reaction

4.

In the chemical reaction represented by the equation wA + xB -> yC + zD, a comparison of the number of moles of A to the number of moles of C would be a(n)

a)

mass ratio

b)

mole ratio

c)

electron ratio

d)

energy proportion

5.

A chemical reaction involving substances A and B stops when B is completely used. B is the

a)

excess reactant

b)

limiting reactant

c)

primary reactant

d)

primary product

6.

What is the ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield, multiplied by 100%?

a)

mole ratio

b)

percentage yield

c)

Avogadro yield

d)

excess yield

7.

A balanced chemical equation allows one to determine the

a)

mole ratio of any two substances in the reaction

b)

energy released in the reaction

c)

electron configuration of all elements in the reaction

d)

mechanism involved in the reaction

8.

Which reactant controls the amount of product obtained?

a)

excess reactant

b)

mole ratio

c)

composition reactant

d)

limiting reactant

9.

In most chemical reactions, the product obtained is

a)

equal to the theoretical yield

b)

less than the theoretical yield

c)

more then the theoretical yield

d)

more then the percentage yield

10.

The coefficients in a chemical equation represent the

a)

masses, in grams, of all reactants and products

b)

relative numbers of moles of reactants and products

c)

numbers of atoms in each compound in a reaction

d)

number of valence electrons involved in the reaction

11.

If the percentage yield is equal to 100%, then

a)

the actual yield is greater than the theoretical yield

b)

the actual yield is equal to the theoretical yield

c)

the actual yield is less than the theoretical yield

d)

there was no limiting reactant

12.

What is the measured amount of product obtained from a chemical reaction?

a)

mole ratio

b)

percentage yield

c)

theoretical yield

d)

actual yield

13.

What is the maximum possible amount of product obtained in a chemical reaction?

a)

theoretical yield

b)

percentage yield

c)

mole ratio

d)

actual yield

14.

To determine the limiting reactant in a chemical reaction, one must know the

a)

available amount of one of the reactants

b)

amount of product formed

c)

available amount of each reactant

d)

speed of the reaction

15.

For an exothermic reaction, the products

a)

are the same energy level as the reactants

b)

have no energy

c)

are at a lower energy level than the reactants

d)

are at a higher energy level than the reactants

16.

Delta E is positive for

a)

an endothermic reaction

b)

an exothermic reaction

c)

an inhibited reaction

d)

stable reaction

17.

Delta H is always positive for a

a)

spontaneous reaction

b)

nonspontaneous reaction

c)

exothermic reaction

d)

endothermic reaction

18.

Catalysts generally affect chemical reactions by

a)

increasing the temperature of the system

b)

increasing the surface area of the reactants

c)

providing an alternate pathway with a lower activation energy

d)

providing an alternate pathway with a higher activation energy

19.

In what units are temperature measured?

a)

degrees Celsius

b)

kelvins

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

20.

If the temperature of the reactants is lower,

a)

the reaction rate is generally higher

b)

the reaction rate is generally lower

c)

the reaction rate is not affected

d)

the rate-determining step is eliminated

21.

Which of the following affects reaction rate?

a)

the nature of reactants

b)

surface area of reactants

c)

temperature

d)

all of the above

22.

Activation energy is

a)

the energy required to form the activated complex

b)

the net energy required to turn reactants into products

c)

the enthalpy of reaction

d)

free energy

23.

Raising the temperatures of reactants in a system

a)

increases the average kinetic energy of the molecules

b)

decreases the average kinetic energy of the molecules

c)

decreases the rate of collision of molecules

d)

has no effect on the avergae kinetic energy of molecules

24.

The energy transferred between samples of matter because of a difference in their temperatures is called

a)

heat

b)

thermochemistry

c)

chemical kinetics

d)

temperature

25.

Which of the following is the measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter?

a)

chemical kinetics

b)

thermochemistry

c)

reaction rate

d)

temperature

26.

In an endothermic reaction, the total energy at the beginning of the reaction is

a)

greater than the total energy at the end of the reaction.

b)

less than the total energy at the end of the reaction.

c)

equal to total energy at the end of the reaction.

d)

None of the above

27.

The Greek letter delta stands for

a)

heat stored in

b)

mass of

c)

rate of

d)

change in

28.

What units are used to measure energy as heat?

a)

joules/mole or kilojoules/mole

b)

kelvins or degrees Celsius

c)

joules or kilojoules

d)

non of the above

29.

For an exothermic reaction, delta H is always

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

zero

d)

small

30.

The energy change, delta E, for a reaction is the energy difference between the

a)

products and the intermediate

b)

product and the reactant

c)

product and the activated complex

d)

reactant and the intermediate

31.

The activation energy for a reaction is the energy difference between the

a)

product and the intermediate

b)

product and the reactant

c)

reactant and the activated complex

d)

reactant and the intermediate

32.

The minimum energy required for a reaction to occur is called

a)

energy of enthalpy

b)

activation energy

c)

free energy

d)

kinetic energy

33.

Which term has the same numerical value for the forward reaction as it has for the reverse reaction but with opposite sign?

a)

delta E

b)

activation energy

c)

activation energy for the reverse reaction

d)

delta T

34.

What is the energy required to rais the temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1 degree Celsius or 1 K?

a)

specific heat

b)

heat energy

c)

heat capacity

d)

enthalpy of formation

35.

In a potential energy graph, the activated complex is represented at the

a)

left end of the curve

b)

right end of the curve

c)

bottom of the curve

d)

top of the curve

36.

If the surface area of reactants is larger,

a)

the reaction rate is generally higher

b)

the reaction rate is generally lower

c)

the reaction rate is not affected

d)

the rate-determining step is eliminated

37.

If the concentration of a reactants is higher,

a)

the reaction rate is generally higher

b)

the reaction rate is generally lower

c)

the reaction rate is not affected

d)

the rate-determining step is eliminated

38.

The particles in both gases and liquids

a)

consist only of atoms

b)

can change positions with other particles

c)

can only vibrate in fixed positions

d)

are packed closely together

39.

The kinetic-molecular theory explains the behavior of

a)

gases only

b)

solids and liquids only

c)

liquids and gases only

d)

solids, liquids, and gases

40.

In general, most substances are

a)

least dense in the liquid state

b)

more dense as gases than as solids

c)

less dense as solids than as liquids

d)

most dense in the solid state

41.

Which term best describes the process by which particles escape from the surface of a nonboiling liquid and enter the gas state?

a)

sublimation

b)

evaporation

c)

surface tension

d)

aeration

42.

Which of the following properties do solids share with liquids?

a)

fluidity

b)

definite shape

c)

definite volume

d)

slow rate of diffusion

43.

Solids have a definite volume because

a)

the particles do not have a tendency to change positions

b)

the particles are far apart

c)

they can be easily compressed

d)

the energy of the particles is high

44.

A solid forms when the average energy of a substance's particles

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

decreases then increases

d)

creates a random arrangement

45.

Which of the following is a crystalline solid?

a)

a plastic milk container

b)

a quartz rock

c)

a glass bottle

d)

a three-dimensional glass cube

46.

The difference between crystalline and amorphous solids is determined by

a)

temperature changes

b)

pressure when the substances are formed

c)

amount of order in particle arrangement

d)

strength of molecular forces

47.

Which of the following is an amorphous solid

a)

ice

b)

diamond

c)

graphite

d)

glass

48.

Which of these can happen due to decreasing the average energy of a liquid's particles?

a)

vaporization

b)

evaporation

c)

a random arrangement

d)

freezing

49.

The density of a substance undergoes the greatest change when the substance changes from a

a)

liquid to gas

b)

liquid to solid

c)

solid to liquid

d)

a molecular solid to an ionic solid

50.

The energy of the particles in a solid is

a)

higher than the energy of the particles in a gas

b)

high enough to allow the particles to interchange with other particles

c)

higher than the energy of the particles in a liquid

d)

lower than the energy of the particles in liquids and gases

51.

The particles in a liquid are usually

a)

closer together and lower in energy than those in a solid

b)

farther apart and higher in energy than those in a gas

c)

closer together and lower in energy than those in a gas

d)

farther apart and lower in energy than those in a solid

52.

The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure conditions at which

a)

density is greatest

b)

states of a substance coexist at equilibrium

c)

equilibrium cannot occur

d)

kinetic energy is at a minimum

53.

What causes the high density of solids?

a)

The particles are more massive than those in liquids.

b)

The intermolecular forces between the particles are weak.

c)

The particles are packed closely together.

d)

The energy of the particles is very high.

54.

Forces holding particles together are strongest in a

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

vapor

55.

During boiling, the tempeature of a liquid

a)

remains constant

b)

increases

c)

decreases

d)

approaches water's boiling point

56.

Above the critical temperature, a substance

a)

does not have a vapor pressure

b)

sublimes

c)

cannot exist in the liquid state

d)

is explosive

57.

What happens to the volume of a gas during compression?

a)

the volume increases

b)

the volume decreases

c)

the volume remains constant

d)

it is impossible to tell because all gases are different

58.

According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of matter

a)

are in constant motion

b)

have different shapes

c)

have different colors

d)

are always fluid

59.

Which substance has the lowest density?

a)

water in the gas state

b)

water in the liquid state

c)

Mercury in the liquid state

d)

Mercury in the gas state

60.

Particles within a solid

a)

do not move

b)

vibrate about fixed positions

c)

move about freely

d)

exchange positions easily

61.

According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of matter are in motion in

a)

gases only

b)

gases and liquids only

c)

solids, liquids, and gases

d)

solids only

62.

What is the process of a substance changing from a solid to a vapor without passing through the liquid phase?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

sublimation

d)

vaporization

63.

Standard pressure is exactly

a)

760 atm

b)

101 atm

c)

1 atm

d)

101.325 atm

64.

To observe the effects of changing pressure on the volume of a gas, factors that must be kept constant are the gas's temperature and

a)

quantity

b)

elasticity

c)

density

d)

kinetic energy

65.

When pressure, temperature, and volume are known, the ideal gas law can be used to calculate

a)

molar amount

b)

the ideal gas constant

c)

rate of effusion

d)

the chemical formula

66.

If the temperature of a fixed quantity of gas decreases and the pressure remains unchanged,

a)

its volume increases

b)

its density increases

c)

its volume is unchanged

d)

its volume decreases

67.

Why could the pressure of a sample of gas at a constant volume fall 75mm Hg?

a)

The temperature decreased.

b)

The container exploded.

c)

The volume increased.

d)

The temperature increased.

68.

Knowing the mass an volume of a gas at STP allows one to calculate the

a)

rate of diffusion of the gas

b)

condensation point of the gas

c)

molar mass of the gas

d)

identity of the gas

69.

Why does the air pressure inside the tires of a car increase when the car is driven?

a)

The air particles collide with the tire after the car is in motion.

b)

The air particles inside the tire increase their speed because their temperature rises.

c)

Some of the air has leaked out.

d)

The atmosphere compresses the tire.

70.

What does the constant bombardment of gas molecules against the inside walls of a container produce?

a)

temperature

b)

density

c)

pressure

d)

diffusion

71.

If the temperature of a fixed quantity and volume of gas changes, what also changes?

a)

pressure

b)

mass

c)

density

d)

formula

72.

Standard temperature is exactly

a)

100 degrees C

b)

0 K

c)

0 degrees C

d)

273 degrees C

73.

How many half-lives are required for 3/4 of the nuclei of one isotope in a sample to decay?

a)

3/4

b)

3/2

c)

2

d)

3

74.

Gamma rays are

a)

electrons

b)

helium nuclei

c)

electromagnetic waves

d)

neutrons

75.

To use radioactive dating for a substance, you must know the substance's

a)

melting point

b)

half-life

c)

rate of weathering or erosion

d)

enthalpy of reaction

76.

What does the 4 in the alpha particle represent?

a)

the mass number

b)

the atomic number

c)

the number of protons

d)

the number of neutrons

77.

Alpha particles are

a)

electrons

b)

helium nuclei

c)

electromagnetic waves

d)

neutrons

78.

During radioactive decay, the nucleus disintegrates into

a)

a lighter and more stable nucleus

b)

a heavier and more stable nucleus

c)

a lighter and less stable nucleus

d)

a heavier and less stable nucleus

79.

Which statement is true about half-lives?

a)

different atoms of the same nuclide have different half-lives

b)

each radioactive isotope has its own half-life

c)

all radioactive nuclides of an element have the same half-life

d)

all radioactive nuclides have the same half-life

80.

Which statement about nuclear reactions is not true?

a)

nuclear power plants use fission of uranium

b)

in fission, nuclei are combined, and in fusion, nuclei are split

c)

in fission, nuclei are split, and in fusion, nuclei are combined

d)

heat and light in the sung are produced by fusion reactions

81.

Which of the following is a fusion reaction?

a)

uranium-235 absorbing a nuetron and splitting into xenon-140, strontium-95, and two neutrons

b)

hydrochloric acid combining with sodium hydroxide to form NaCl and water.

c)

carbon-14 decaying into nitrogen-14 and a beta particle

d)

curium-246 combining with carbon-12 to form nobelium-254 and four neutrons

82.

The energy released in a nuclear reaction comes from

a)

electrons

b)

bonds

c)

positrons

d)

the binding energy of the nucleus

83.

Beta particles are

a)

electrons

b)

helium nuclei

c)

electromagnetic waves

d)

neutrons

84.

What does the 218 in polonium-218 represent?

a)

the mass number

b)

the atomic number

c)

the mass defect

d)

the neutron number

85.

In a nuclear reaction, unstable nuclei change their number of protons and neutrons,

a)

give off large amounts of energy, and increase their stability

b)

give off small amounts of energy, and increase their stability

c)

give off large amounts of energy, and decrease their stability

d)

give off small amounts of energy, and decrease their stability

86.

Reactions that affect the nucleus of an atom are called

a)

fusions

b)

fissions

c)

radioactive decays

d)

nuclear reactions

87.

Which of the following does not increase the rate of dissolving a solid in water?

a)

raising the temperature of the water

b)

stirring the solution

c)

using larger pieces of solid

d)

crushing the solid

88.

In the expression "like dissolves like," the word like refers to similarity in molecular

a)

mass

b)

size

c)

energy

d)

polarity

89.

IF the amount of a solute present in a solution at a given temperature is less than the maximum amount that can dissolve at the temperature, the solution is said to be

a)

saturated

b)

unsaturated

c)

supersaturated

d)

concentrated

90.

A solute crystal is dropped into a solution containing dissolved solute. It falls to the bottom of the beaker and does not dissolve after vigorous stirring. What does this indicate about the solution?

a)

it is probably unsaturated

b)

it is probably super saturated

c)

it is probably saturated

d)

it is not at equilibrium

91.

As temperature increases, solubility of solids in liquids

a)

always increases

b)

always decreases

c)

usually increases

d)

usually decreases

92.

Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture of substances in a single phase?

a)

a solution

b)

a colloid

c)

a compound

d)

a suspension

93.

Which of the following expresses concentration?

a)

molality

b)

molarity

c)

moles of solute per liter of solution

d)

all of the above

94.

Sugar dissolved in water is an example of which solute-solvent combination?

a)

gas-liquid

b)

liquid-liquid

c)

solid-liquid

d)

liquid-solid

95.

Carbon dioxide dissolved in water is an example of which solute-solvent combination

a)

gas-liquid

b)

liquid-gas

c)

liquid-liquid

d)

cannot be determined

96.

A molar solution of calcium chloride contains

a)

one mole of calcium chloride for every mole of solution

b)

one mole of calcium chloride for every liter of solution

c)

one liter of calcium chloride for every liter of solution

d)

one liter of calcium chloride for every mole of solution

97.

Which of the following will dissolve most rapidly?

a)

sugar cubes in cold water

b)

sugar cubes in hot water

c)

powdered sugar in cold water

d)

powdered sugar in hot water

98.

An Arrhenius acid contains

a)

hydrogen that does not ionize

b)

hydrogen that ionizes to form hydrogen ions

c)

oxygen that ionizes to form hydroxide ions

d)

oxygen that ionizes to form oxygen ions

99.

An acid ending with the suffix -ic produces an ion with the

a)

suffix -ate

b)

suffix -ite

c)

prefix -hydro

d)

suffix -ous

100.

Acids taste

a)

sweet

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

salty

101.

The traditional definition of acids is based on the observations of

a)

Bronsted and Lowry

b)

Lewis

c)

Arrhenius

d)

Mendeleev

102.

Arrhenius theorized that an acid is a chemical compound that

a)

increases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water

b)

increases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water

c)

decreases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water

d)

decreases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water

103.

Aqueous solutions of bases

a)

contain only two different elements

b)

carry electricity

c)

have very high boiling points

d)

cannot be prepared

104.

Bases feel

a)

rough

b)

moist

c)

slippery

d)

dry

105.

Arrhenius theorized that a base is a chemical compount that

a)

increases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water

b)

increases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water

c)

decreases the concentration of hydrogen ions when dissolved in water

d)

decreases the concentration of hydroxide ions when dissolved in water

106.

Bases taste

a)

soapy

b)

sour

c)

sweet

d)

bitter

107.

Acids generally release hydrogen has when they react with

a)

nonmetals

b)

semimetals

c)

active metals

d)

inactive metals

108.

Aqueous solutions of acids

a)

contain only two different elements

b)

carry electricity

c)

have very high boiling points

d)

cannot be prepared

109.

Acetic acid is found in

a)

lemons

b)

vinegar

c)

sour milk

d)

apples