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System Engineering

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

We move into the Detailed Design and Development stage whenever there are elements of our design that are not off the shelf, or where we need to make some modification to off the shelf items. Select the most correct option below relating to the detailed design process and its output.

a)

Once detailed design is complete, we are left with our Product Baseline (PBL) consisting of the detailed design specifications, process specifications, and parts/materials specifications. When detailed design is complete, we pause the project because we need to start considering production requirements.

b)

Detailed design and development is an iterative process that involves design, prototyping, testing, reviews, and redesign until we are satisfied with the design. It also includes maintaining a good record of the parts, materials and fabrication processes that are needed to produce or construct our design.

c)

Detailed design and development makes use of modern computer-aided design (CAD) technology to develop our detailed designs. These tools have replaced the need for the time-consuming process of prototyping, integration testing, and documentation of materials and fabrication processes. This allows us to move straight from CAD to production.

d)

When detailed design is complete, and we are satisfied that our PBL has been finalised, we are able to start planning for through-life support of the system. It is during this planning, that critical through-life requirements such as reliability, availability and maintainability can first be considered.

2.

Requirements analysis and allocation is a key systems engineering activity in Preliminary Design. Which of the following statements best describes this process and its outcome?

a)

The requirements analysis process “reverse-engineers” the subsystems and the components that the Contractor wants to incorporate into the design. From there, they allocate these requirements to Development Specifications and trace the Development Specifications back to the SyRS. This gives the Customer the illusion of a “top-down” process without jeopardising the preferred detailed design.

b)

. Requirements analysis is only required if there is developmental technology involved in the design. Off the shelf technology already exists therefore there is no need to worry about analysis of the requirements for these subsystems. For developmental subsystems, requirements analysis and allocation generates a Development Specification to support detailed design for that subsystem.

c)

Requirements analysis (during Preliminary Design) is conducted by the Customer in order to determine which parts of the design are to be allocated to the Contractor and which parts of the design will be developed in-house by the Customer. This is known as requirement allocation. The requirements allocated to the Customer are placed in the SyRS and the requirements allocated to the Contractor are placed in the relevant development specification.

d)

. Requirements analysis takes the requirements in the SyRS and analyses them further to derive the requirements relevant at the subsystem-level. These requirements are then allocated to one or more of the subsystems via a requirements allocation matrix or equivalent. The result is a collection of subsystem specifications called “Development Specifications” that are traceable to and from the SyRS and upon which preliminary design decisions can be based.

e)

Requirements analysis commences just prior to Preliminary Design Review (PDR) and usually forms an entry criterion for that review. PDR investigates how the requirements have been allocated to design space within the design to justify the selection and use of off the shelf technology. Requirements analysis must be completed prior to the end of preliminary design.

3.

Configuration audits have been discussed as an important part of the systems engineering process, and are one of the four areas of focus within configuration management of our systems. Which of the following statements is most correct with regard to configuration audits?

a)

There are two broad categories of audits conducted in a standard systems engineering process - functional configuration audit (FCA) and physical configuration audit (PCA). We perform audits to confirm that the as-built system is accurately described by its technical documentation. These audits are typically conducted by the customer during the acceptance process.

b)

Configuration audits in general confirm the correct operation of our configuration management system. Physical configuration audits make use of activities like inspections during construction and production to confirm alignment between as-built systems and their technical documentation. This becomes critical during the sustainment period.

c)

Function and physical audits (FCA and PCA) are a critical part of the systems engineering design process and support development of the Functional Architecture and Physical Architecture respectively. Change to these architectures becomes increasing difficult with time which is why FCA and PCA are important parts of the earliest design reviews.

d)

Functional and Physical Configuration Audits (FCA and PCA) are certainly critical parts of a robust systems engineering and configuration management process. Both types of audits are applicable to system developments involving "hardware" (structures, computer hardware, mechanical systems and so on). They are, however, not applicable to software because software does not have a physical form.

e)

There are two broad categories of audits conducted in a standard systems engineering process - functional configuration audit (FCA) and physical configuration audit (PCA). We perform audits to confirm that the as-built system is accurately described by its technical documentation. With this in mind, audits commence after the system is completely constructed or produced.

4.

Tendering was used in this course as an example of a system-level synthesis process. Tendering may result in a number of solution options being presented to the customer and may result in the revision of the system requirements specification. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this?

a)

Following release of the RFT and receipt of the responses, the customer checks the proposed costs first and tends to accept the lowest cost option. They then begin negotiation on issues such as technical compliance. In this way, the customer not only ends up with the cheapest option but also ends up with the greatest level of technical compliance.

b)

When a customer issues an RFT, it is automatically open to any entity in the world who believes they have a compliant solution. Customers therefore often receive a large number of responses to RFTs. This can create evaluation problems for the customer who is often inundated with compliant offers from all over the world but restricting an RFT is illegal.

c)

When responding to an RFT, companies state that they are compliant to the draft contract even if their solution is non-compliant in some areas. Stating non-compliance with the draft contract is avoided as this will make them uncompetitive in the tender process. Once at the negotiating table, areas of non-compliance can be raised and removed from the contract.

d)

The RFT normally includes a draft Contract and solicits sufficient information for the customer to evaluate the responses. Responses are expected to vary in terms of compliance (against the draft Contract), costs, schedules, and levels of risk exposure. The customer generally selects a preferred tenderer based on the preferred blend of these variables.

e)

When a company receives an RFT from a potential customer, they are legally required to respond. If they do not want to respond, they will provide the just the customer with the minimum amount of information and include a large price premium to indicate a lack of interest in the contract.

5.

Developing key "scenarios" was discussed as a potentially useful thing to do during conceptual design. Which of the following provides the best description of scenarios in the context of systems engineering and conceptual design.

a)

Scenarios are an important part of the Stakeholder Requirements Specification. They are developed using formal language and constructs to ensure they are a suitable basis for both system design and system verification. Scenarios are used by both the customer and the contractor to better understand stakeholder requirements.

b)

Scenarios form an important attachment to the System Requirements Specification and therefore the functional baseline of the system. They are written in such a way as to "tell a story" about what the stakeholders want to achieve with the system. Scenarios are used by both the customer and the contractor to better understand stakeholder requirements.

c)

Scenarios are developed by key customer stakeholders to explain what they want to achieve with the new system without requiring them to be systems engineering experts. The scenarios are then used by systems engineers to develop a more formal set of requirements in the form of the System Requirements Specification.

d)

Scenarios are developed by potential contractors to help explain (to customer stakeholders) exactly what their proposed solution will be able to deliver in terms of capability. Scenarios are written in "customer's language" to help non experts to understand the proposed function and performance of the new system.

e)

Scenarios are written by customer stakeholders to explain what they need from the new or improved capability. When a contract is eventually established with a contractor, the scenarios are attached to the contract in a section appropriately called the "Statement of Requirement" (SOR).

6.

Assume that we are designing a complex system which consists of many parts/elements and involves significant and sustained design and development effort. Standard configuration management processes generally see at least three (3) distinct baselines established during the design and development process: functional, allocated, and product baselines. Which of the following statements best describes the fundamental configuration management process of establishing and auditing baselines at particular points in time?

a)

These baselines roughly correspond to system-level, subsystem-level, and component-level detailed design. Establishing the baselines is only part of the process. Configuration audits check each baseline against one another to discover any conflicts between the different baselines. If there is a conflict, the product baseline takes priority because it supports production.

b)

These baselines roughly correspond to system-level, subsystem-level, and component-level detailed design. Establishing the baselines is only part of the process. Configuration audits check each baseline against one another to discover any conflicts between the different baselines. If there is a conflict, the allocated baseline takes priority because it supports the CI identification process.

c)

These baselines roughly correspond to system-level, subsystem-level, and component-level detailed design. Establishing the baselines is only part of the process. Configuration audits (normally conducted during the production and integration process) compare as-built systems against the relevant baselines to confirm completeness and accuracy.

d)

These baselines are established to support the contract management of the system development and roughly correspond to prime-contract level, sub-contract level, and equipment supplier level of design respectively. The term “allocated” gets its name from the fact that requirements are being allocated to a sub-contractor. The term “product” gets its name from the fact that it is defining a product or part.

e)

These baselines are established to support the project management of the system development. The product baseline represents the function and performance of the system at the system level and is often used as the Statement of Requirement (SOR) on a contract. The functional baseline is derived from the product baseline and is used to describe the function and performance of the individual configuration items (CIs) within the design.

7.

What is the best description of the Preliminary Lifecycle Concept Document (PLCD) that is developed early in the Conceptual Design phase?

a)

The PLCD defines the need to key lifecycle issues such as spares, training, test equipment and support facilities. If these issues are not accounted for, we may be left with a system that fails to deliver a capability to stakeholders. This is an extension of the POSTED concept introduced in this course.

b)

The PLCD is developed early in the conceptual design stage as a way of modelling the life cycle cost (LCC) of the system. In this way, key LCC drivers associated with the system can be identified with a view to minimising LCC. One of the benefits of systems engineering is that it aims to minimise LCC

c)

The PLCD identifies and describes the conceptual approaches to the key lifecycle stages such as operations, acquisition, deployment, sustainment and retirement. It is important to do this early as key stakeholders may have life-cycle related preferences that will influence and/or constrain the subsequent systems engineering effort.

d)

Systems engineering is a lifecycle discipline and the the PLCD supports this by specifying the through-life support requirements for the system. It is critical to have the through-life support requirements specified as early as possible because research shows that the earlier our requirements are established, the better.

e)

The PLCD is written by strategic stakeholders within the customer's organisation in order to describe the critical relationship between systems engineering processes and the other related processes such as project management, operations and sustainment. This assists with the systems engineering effort because systems engineering has an "interdisciplinary" focus.

8.

External interfaces (to our system) were identified and defined during Conceptual Design and captured in the SyRS. In Preliminary Design, the subsystems are being designed and this process almost always involves identifying and considering subsystem-level interfaces (that may not be apparent at the system level). Which of the following options contains the most accurate statements about subsystem-level interfaces.

a)

Subsystem-level interfaces must be identified and documented as they place additional requirements/constraints on our interfacing subsystems. Interface requirements can be captured in the relevant Development Specifications or in a dedicated Interface Control Document, but they need to be mutually agreed between the “design owners” of the respective subsystems.

b)

Hardware interfaces are the main concern during Preliminary Design and must be documented in the relevant hardware Development Specifications. Software interfaces are much simpler to deal with due to advanced software development environments and methodologies. Accordingly, software interfaces are normally addressed during the writing of code (in the Construction/Production phase)

c)

Subsystem-level interfaces are managed differently depending on the acquisition concept determined by the Customer. If the system is being developed in-house, subsystem interfaces do not need to be addressed because a single design team is doing the whole design. If the system is being developed by a single contractor, it is the same. If, however, subcontractors are involved, subsystem-level interfaces must then be considered.

d)

Systems engineering promotes a top-down process where requirements drive design, but when it comes to interfaces, the opposite is true. We design the subsystems (using top-down systems engineering) and then we integrate them together to highlight interfacing issues. Integration normally works but, if it does not work, interface issues that are addressed in the next iteration of design.

e)

Subsystem-level interfaces are a concern for developmental subsystems because they need to be designed from “the ground up”. There is nothing we can do about the interfaces of off the shelf items so there is no need to identify or consider interface requirements associated with off the shelf technology.

9.

A phase called "Detailed Design and Development" is included in the lifecycle model used in this course. Which of the following statements is is most correct in relation to the detailed design and development process?

a)

The outputs of the detailed design process will be a collection of designs, parts/materials lists, and fabrication processes. These are reviewed and approved at the Preliminary Design Review and then added to the acquisition contract via a contract change proposal (CCP).

b)

In a classic “waterfall” process, the outputs of detailed design and development are reviewed at the Critical Design Review (CDR), after which design continues until it is sufficiently complete to support the production/construction process. Design is "frozen" when the initial production process commences and is proven via verification activities.

c)

It is likely that every design organisation we encounter will have different ways of performing detailed design and development. Despite the differences, we would expect the process to be iterative - involving a repeating process of design, prototyping, review, and redesign until the design is considered complete.

d)

The detailed design process is a standard process in systems engineering and is comprehensively described in classic standards such as IEEE1220 and EIA632. The customer typically uses these standards to mandate the process in the contract to ensure that the process is largely independent of technology, industry or organisational processes.

e)

Detailed design and development is a critical part of the systems engineering process that is typically conducted by the customer to ensure that the information provided to the contractors is appropriately focussed on the optimal system-level solution with a demonstrated traceability back to system-level requirements.

10.

Once we have established the Business Needs and Requirements (BNR) from key strategic-level stakeholders, more "operationally-focused" stakeholders refine the need for the new system in the form of Stakeholder Needs and Requirements (SNR). Which of the following statement is most correct with respect to the SNR?

a)

The SNR is the result of the standard systems engineering (analysis-synthesis-evaluation) loop and is used to develop an unambiguous understanding of the system-level requirements for the new system. In terms of the POSTED construct used in this course, the SNR is very much "E"quipment focused

b)

The SNR is independent of the BNR. It is put together by operationally-focused stakeholders without reference to the BNR. In this way, it is an independent "error check" on the BNR prior to the more technically-focused systems engineering process.

c)

The SNR (building on the BNR) contains detailed System Requirements Specification (SyRS), a proposed System Design Description (SDD) and a draft Statement of Work (SOW) as a preliminary form of the Functional Baseline. This is then able to support processes like Requests for Tender (RFTs).

d)

The SNR is a refinement and development of the Business Needs and Requirements (BNR) and takes the strategic guidance in the BNR to develops more refined life-cycle concepts (in the LCD) and more detailed stakeholder requirements and scenarios (in the StRS).

e)

The SNR (building on the BNR) captures the needs of all of the stakeholders associated with new system. It is important that all stakeholders who are affected by the new system are consulted during this process to ensure that all needs are captured

11.

Production planning is critical and is continually reviewed and updated as the system design matures. Select the most correct option below relating to production planning.

a)

Production planning relates to the specialised plant, facilities and equipment that we need to produce our design. The parts and materials needed are a logistics issue so the systems engineering effort does not need to worry about these. The specialised skills required from production personnel are a human resource problem so the systems engineering effort does not need to help identify specialised skills required.

b)

The production system drives the design process (not the other way around). Production specialists attend design reviews and if the current production system cannot cope with the proposed design, the design is rejected and changed. This way we can stick with an existing production system for long periods of time (which is much more cost-effective).

c)

Our evolving design is a key input to the production planning process to ensure that our production system can accommodate our design. However, our current (or projected) production capability must be a key input into our design process to ensure that our design options not only meet requirements, but can also be cost-effectively produced using our expected production capability.

d)

Our evolving design is a key input into the production planning process because design is a higher priority than production. In this way, the design drives the production system (not the other way around). Production specialists are involved in our later design reviews to make sure that they understand the priority and understand what production systems will be required to produce the system.

e)

Production planning is only required if we are going to use an external production capability or subcontractor. If production is to be done “in-house”, we can save a lot of time and effort by not worrying about production planning until the design has been finalised. In this way, we can take advantage of the “just in time”

12.

Systems engineering can be considered to be a "technical risk management" discipline. Generically, a risk is the chance of something happening that will adversely impact on objectives. Risks need to be identified, treated, and managed. The main options for treating risk are: avoidance, mitigation (or weakened the risk), transfer, and acceptance. Which of the following best describes risk management in general and risk treatment in particular?

a)

Risk severity is a function of both impact and probability. As an example of risk mitigation, we could use design diversity in our system design to reduce the impact of "common mode failures". Design diversity therefore reduces the risk severity by reducing imact.

b)

Risk severity is a function of both impact and probability. As an example of risk mitigation, we could design redundancy into our system to reduce the risk of system failure. Redundancy aims to reduce the impact of failure and therefore reduce the risk severity

c)

Risk avoidance is the most effective way to manage risks but it is generally also the most expensive.

d)

We can "transfer" risks to other parties (via mechanisms such as contracts and insurance policies). There are two things to keep in mind with this treatment option: risks should be transferred to the appropriate party; and even after transfer, the transferred risk still exists.

e)

Of the 4 treatment options, risk transfer is generally considered to be the preferred option for the most severe risks. We use contracts or insurance policies to transfer risks. In this way, another party will be legally responsible if something catastrophic happens.

13.

We looked at three broad design options when it came to subsystem-level synthesis; developmental approaches, commercial off the shelf (COTS) approaches, and modified COTS approaches. Which of the following statements best describes the pros and cons of the different options?

a)

Modifying COTS subsystems to perfectly meet our requirements is the “best of both worlds” approach. COTS subsystems tend to be designed to be very easy to modify, including availability of extensive design documentation available. The time/effort/cost associated with the modification process is almost always negligible compared to developmental engineering.

b)

Sometimes we come across COTS subsystems that have more functionality than is required and/or perform at higher levels than required (by their Development Specifications). In these cases, this makes the decision to select the COTS subsystems easier and more compelling because over-performing at the subsystem level always provides benefits at the system level.

c)

COTS tends to be available with known lead times, known costs, and demonstrated function and performance. COTS products also generally have logistics support arrangements in place. Technical data associated with COTS may not be at the required level to support integration, they may not have been qualified in all environments (such as military environments), and they may represent obsolescence risks.

d)

Using COTS subsystems should be a last resort approach to design because developmental approaches are generally preferred by project management as a lower risk alternative to using COTS subsystems. Involving COTS in the design tends to increase the number of organisations involved and the administrative overhead.

e)

It is best to design our subsystems from scratch because this will result in subsystems that perfectly meet our requirements. COTS subsystems tend to be a compromise in terms of requirements compliance. Verifying developmental subsystems is also less onerous than COTS subsystems because the subsystems have been designed to meet our requirements.

14.

Business needs and requirements for a new or improved system are established by key business stakeholders at the start of Conceptual Design and are captured in a Business Requirements Specification (BRS) and a Preliminary Lifecycle Concept Document (PLCD). Which of the following statements best describes the most important information typically captured in the BRS?

a)

The BRS will containt a clear identification of the senior stakeholders, their specific interest in the project, and their opinions about feasible system alternatives. The BRS will also clearly state that these stakeholders have organisational authority to influence the direction of the new or improved system

b)

The BRS will contain high-level constraints that must be imposed on the new system, system missions/goals/objectives, some key preliminary operational scenarios, and validation criteria (often in the form of Critical Issues and Critical Operational Issues).

c)

The BRS is the draft contract between the "customer" and the "contractor" in a typical complex system development contact. The BRS therefore contains legal terms and conditions, statements of work (SOW), and statements of requirement (SOR).

d)

The BRS allows key strategic stakeholders to identify of the preferred system-level designs that they believe will meet business requirements. Additionally, the BRS usually contains a short list of potential system design contractors who may be invited to submit a tender.

e)

The BRS contains the critical information that forms the "functional baseline" of the required system. The BRS is a structured engineering specification and explains what the system needs to be able to do, how well it should function and the conditions under which it needs to operate.

15.

Following SDR, we move into Preliminary Design. One of the early activities in Preliminary Design is to identify and specify the subsystems in the design. Which of the following statements is most correct in relation to this?

a)

Although a lot of work has gone into development of the SyRS and then the development of the corresponding SDD, preliminary design effort remains focussed on delivering a design against the StRS as this is the key stakeholder description. Unless this is the focus, the contractor risks delivering something that does not meet the stakeholders’ expectations.

b)

During early preliminary design, the contractor continues refining their understanding of the subsystems identified in their proposed SDD. Requirements analysis contiunes, using the SyRS as the basis. Derived requirements from the SyRS are allocated to each of the subsystems. Interface requirements are an important part of this process.

c)

Once into preliminary design, the contractors work from the SDD reviewed at the previous design review. They start engineering the subsystems based on the physical descriptions contained in the SDD. Whilst the customer uses the SyRS as the basis of their understanding, the contractor is guided primarily by the design architecture contained in the SDD.

d)

Once we enter preliminary design, the influence of systems engineering is drastically reduced and the key work effort now shifts to project management issues such as determining the work breakdown structure (WBS), schedule management and budget management.

e)

The contractor determines which subsystems in the SDD are likely to be off the shelf items (or items that only need minor modifications) and proceeds straight to purchasing these. Requirements analysis is only relevant to the developmental subsystems in the design.

16.

The Systems Requirements Specification (SyRS) is developed during conceptual design. Which statement best describes the SyRS?

a)

The SyRS is a formal, structured requirements artefact that captures the various requirements associated with the new or improved system. The specification should also contain some indication about how the requirements should be validated. It generally forms the Statement of Requirement in a classic contract structure.

b)

The SyRS is a formal, structured requirements artefact that captures the various requirements associated with the new or improved system. The specification should also contain some indication about how the requirements should be verified. It is drafted by the contractors during a classic tendering process.

c)

The SyRS is a formal, structured requirements artefact that captures the various requirements associated with the new or improved system. The specification should also contain some indication about how the requirements should be verified. It generally forms the Statement of Requirement in a classic contract structure.

d)

The SyRS is a formal, structured design artefact that captures the top-level system architecture for the system. Whilst the StRS describes what the system needs to be able to do, the SyRS describes how the system will be designed to meet those requirements.

e)

The SyRS is a formal, structured, requirements artefact that is drafted by the customer and then negotiated with the contractor before forming a critical part of the contractual relationship. The SyRS typically contains requirements that a mandatory, important, or desirable to give the contractor maximum flexibility.

17.

What is the best description of the Project Management Institute’s Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide (PMBOK)?

a)

A description of the system development processes required to pass certification as an effective project management organisation.

b)

A description of the processes to develop a system using the systems engineering approach.

c)

A description of a subset of project management practice that is generally recognised as good practice for most projects, most of the time.

d)

A routinely updated description of the state-of-the-art of project management practice informed by the very latest research

e)

A detailed project management methodology that most project-based organisations should adopt

18.

Which of the following statements is correct? A project is best defined as:

a)

A process of significant scope that implements a plan

b)

A significant activity undertaken by an organisation that is inherently temporary in nature.

c)

An assemblage of largely precedented components to provide a required business function.

d)

An endeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by people; and constrained by limited resources.

e)

A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result.

19.

Within the context of a business organisation, which statement about projects is most correct?

a)

Project management and functional management use the same skills, disciplines and processes except projects are temporary and operations are ongoing.

b)

Systems engineering and project management always work hand-in-glove – every project must have its associated system engineering effort

c)

An effective project management organisation must employ consistent and repeatable processes and practices across all projects

d)

A mature project management organisation allows each project manager to use their own discretion as to the management and reporting processes used on their projects.

e)

Once a project has been duly authorised by a business sponsor it must be completed no matter what.

20.

In a certain imaginary organisation, all project managers report to the program management office and projects draw on resources from the software development division, the hardware development division, the business operations division and the manufacturing division. This is an example of a ???? organisation:

a)

Projectised organisation.

b)

Program-focused organisation.

c)

Matrix organisation.

d)

Two-hatted organisation.

e)

Function-orientated organisatio

21.

With regards to the PMBOK project management process groups, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The monitoring and Control Process Group applies only in the monitoring and control phase of a project.

b)

Process Groups are same as Project Phases.

c)

Process Groups are not Project Phases

d)

Each Process Group is mapped to a particular Project Phase.

e)

Whether a process group is applied or not will depend on the type of industry or application area that a project is in.

22.

Select the ten PMBOK knowledge areas?

a)

Cost management.

b)

Risk management.

c)

Stakeholder management

d)

Resource management.

e)

Procurement management.

23.

Select the ten PMBOK knowledge areas?

a)

Schedule management

b)

Scope management

c)

Communications management.

d)

Quality management.

e)

Integration management.

24.

Projects are not initiated and planned in a vacuum. The organisational culture, governance structure, geographic distribution, marketplace conditions, existing skills and disciplines are all inputs to the project initiating and planning process. What does the PMBOK call these inputs?

a)

Organisational environmental factors

b)

The organisational quality system.

c)

Organisational process assets.

d)

Fundamental inputs to the project.

25.

An organization has been reorganised to form a Program Management Division (PMD). All projects will be run by this division. The new PMD director has mandated the use of project charters to initiate projects. As a project manager, why would you be happy about this?

a)

The project charter gives you, as the project manager, unambiguous authority to establish the business needs for the project.

b)

Any shortcomings in the project charter can be used as the basis for a scope change request to cover up or excuse project performance issues

c)

The project charter ensures you have senior management buy-in for your project management approach.

d)

The project charter gives you unambiguous authority to use organisational resources to accomplish the objectives of the project

e)

The project charter ensures that you are given a detailed budget and schedule to work within

26.

From the point of project initiation, why should you, as PM, ensure the assumptions about the scope of the project are documented?

a)

Assumptions might prove to be incorrect. Analysis of the assumptions is a key technique to identify project risks

b)

The scope of a project is always uncertain. By documenting assumptions, the whole scope of the project is sufficiently firm to commence detailed planning.

c)

The documentation of assumptions will identify those responsible for the schedule or budget overruns that may occur.

d)

Assumptions might prove to be incorrect. Identifying these assumptions early in the project allows you to automatically adjust the scope of the project if the project hits problems due to the assumptions.

27.

Which statement is correct? A project management plan is

a)

A formal, approved document used to guide project execution, monitoring, and control.

b)

A narrative description of products or services to be supplied.

c)

A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organisational resources to project activities.

d)

A detailed picture of how each work element is positioned in time in relation to other work elements.

e)

A document describing the organisational breakdown structure of the company as it pertains to the project.

28.

Which of the following statements IS correct. Regarding the work breakdown structure (WBS), a work package:

a)

Is a bundle of cost items used to estimate the cost of a WBS element.

b)

Is sufficiently detailed for each person on the project team to manage their day-to-day activities.

c)

Is the lowest level of each branch of the WBS.

d)

Is detailed enough for costs and activity durations to be definitively estimated.

e)

Can be assigned to a single perform organisation.

29.

What is NOT a characteristic of a workpackage?

a)

It is an atomistic activity that will be conducted on the project

b)

It can be assigned to one perform group to take responsibility for its completion.

c)

. It is at a suitable level for the posting of actual costs and the monitoring of performance.

d)

It is at a level where its cost and duration can be definitively estimated.

30.

In the pre-acquisition stage of a system, when the business case is being developed, a rough-order-of-magnitude cost estimate for system development is required. What is the expected accuracy range of this estimate?

a)

Minus 50% to plus 300%

b)

Minus 5% to plus 10%.

c)

Minus 25% to plus 75%.

d)

Minus 10% to plus 30%

31.

What estimating method uses historical information from a similar activity or system to produce a rough-order-of-magnitude cost estimate?

a)

Analogous estimation

b)

Engineering estimation

c)

Parametric estimation

d)

Feasibility estimation.

e)

Bottom up estimation

32.

What estimating method uses an algorithm based on certain project or system parameters to produce a cost estimate?

a)

Bottom up estimation

b)

Analogous estimation.

c)

Engineering estimation.

d)

Feasibility estimation.

e)

Parametric estimation

33.

What estimating method is also called stochastic estimating?

a)

Engineering estimation

b)

Bottom up estimation.

c)

Feasibility estimation

d)

Parametric estimation.

e)

Analogous estimation.

34.

What expected accuracy range is expected of the bottom-up estimating method?

a)

Minus 25% to plus 75%.

b)

Minus 20% to plus 50%.

c)

Minus 5% to plus 10%.

d)

Minus 10% to plus 30%

e)

Minus 50% to plus 300%

35.

What expected accuracy range of cost estimate is required to create the project performance management baseline?

a)

Minus 20% to plus 50%.

b)

Minus 10% to plus 30%

c)

Minus 25% to plus 75%.

d)

Minus 50% to plus 300%.

e)

Minus 5% to plus 10%.

36.

What is the best description of a cost element or cost item?

a)

A parameter in a parametric cost estimating model.

b)

A type or category of cost (normally standardised within a company) that may apply to a particular work package.

c)

Any sub-system, assembly or component of a system that has an associated cost.

d)

A type or category of cost (normally standardised within a company) that may apply indirectly to a project.

e)

A component of the performance management baseline.

37.

What is the record that retains information about how a cost estimate was achieved?

a)

The work breakdown structure.

b)

The cost algorithm.

c)

The project budget

d)

The basis-of-estimate

e)

The cost management plan

38.

Which of the following would be classified as an indirect cost to a system-development project?

a)

The cost of internal labour to develop the software modules of the system.

b)

The cost of an external consultant to conduct an industrial design workshop to improve the attractiveness of the system.

c)

The cost of running the payroll for the internal labour on the project.

d)

The cost of hiring an external venue for the System Design Review

e)

The cost of certifying the water and dust ingress protection level of the system.

39.

What is the cost reserve that is in the project budget but outside the cost baseline?

a)

The contingency reserve.

b)

The uncertainty reserve.

c)

The management reserve.

d)

The sponsor's reserve

e)

The scope-change reserve.

40.

Is this statement true or false?


"A project cost estimate achieved by a bottom-up estimate can be called a definitive estimate"

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Is this statement true or false?


"The contingency reserve is usually controlled by the project manager to cater for anticipated risks."

a)

True

b)

False

42.

In the Critical Path Method, the critical path can be described as ....?

a)

The longest sequence of work packages that therefore determines the end-date of the project.

b)

The activity-on-node diagram that analyses the criticality of all work packages.

c)

The sequence of the most technically risky work packages.

d)

The sequence of work packages that provides the project manager with critical flexibility to mitigate schedule risks.

e)

The sequence of work packages that have not been completed on-time or to-budget.

43.

What is the best description of the technique of resource levelling?

a)

Altering the finish date of the project so that each resource type is used in the most efficient way.

b)

Altering the start date or duration of a work package within its float, so that each resource team is the same, efficient size.

c)

Altering the start date or duration of a work package within its float, so for each resource type, the demand is below a given constraint or is used in the most efficient way.

d)

Altering the start date or duration of a work package within its float, so for each resource type, the demand is concentrated in bursts of high productivity.

e)

Moving resources between work packages so there are no peaks of demand.

44.

Is this statement true or false?


"Crashing a project schedule involves accepting an increased level of risk to start a work package before its predecessor has finished."

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which of the following is NOT an external source of project risk?

a)

Market

b)

Customer

c)

Weather

d)

Regulatory

e)

Funding

46.

When identifying risks, what are the components of an effective risk statement?

a)

Possibility and probability

b)

Condition and consequence.

c)

Rating, response and responsibility.

d)

Likelihood, impact and response

e)

Likelihood and impact.

47.

According to the PMBOK, what is the name of the repository in which the outputs of the risk management processes are stored?

a)

The risk register.

b)

The risk response plan

c)

The risk monitoring and control tool.

d)

The risk assessment.

e)

The risk management plan.

48.

What is NOT a valid risk response strategy?

a)

Mitigate.

b)

Avoid.

c)

Transfer.

d)

Accept.

e)

Ignore.

49.

Is the following statement true or false?


"The project charter is the main input to the planning of risk management, The charter identifies the project risks at a high level. In essence, the project risk management plan is to analyse these given risks in finer detail and develop risk responses."

a)

True

b)

False

50.

After project stakeholders have been identified, each stakeholder must be classified in order to plan the right means of engagement. What is NOT a valid stakeholder class for this purpose?

a)

Urgency.

b)

Legitimacy

c)

Power.

d)

Personality

e)

Interest.

51.

Regarding project communications, is the following statement rue or false?


"A receiver rarely interprets a message exactly as the sender intended. It is the sender's responsibility to ensure the message correctly understood by examining the receiver's response."

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Your system-development project is relatively short. The objectives are very clear, it is not a technically challenging system and the full scope of the project has been identified and agreed. What is the most straight forward development approach for this project?

a)

Agile approach.

b)

Waterfall approach.

c)

Evolutionary approach.

d)

Spiral approach.

e)

Incremental approach.

53.

Your system-development project has clear objectives. it is not a technically challenging system and the full scope of the project has been identified and agreed. However the project spans several financial years and the project budget only covers Year 1. What development approach is most suited to this project?

a)

Agile approach.

b)

Spiral approach.

c)

Incremental approach.

d)

Waterfall approach.

e)

Evolutionary approach.

54.

Your system-development project has clear objectives for the delivery of a well-defined, initial capability. However there are several ways that the system might be enhanced in future to provide even more benefits. What development approach is most suited to this project?

a)

Agile approach

b)

. Incremental approach.

c)

Waterfall approach.

d)

Evolutionary approach

e)

Spiral approach.

55.

Your system-development project needs a high degree of user involvement in the early stages and a number of demonstrators and prototypes will be necessary. However in the final pre-manufacturing stage, the design will be stabilised and a strictly, ordered flow of work will be needed. What development approach is suitable for this project?

a)

Evolutionary approach.

b)

Spiral approach

c)

Incremental approach.

d)

Waterfall approach.

e)

Agile approach

56.

Regarding the agile development approach, is the following statement true or false?


"The agile approach emphasises working capability as the measure of progress rather than the traditional focus on architecture and technical excellence of each system component."

a)

True

b)

False