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TEST MGT420

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The CEO of Wal-Mart spends the majority of his work time determining his company's objectives, motivating behavior in pursuit of these objectives, and influencing group maintenance and culture. That means, he spends the majority of his time engaged in

a)

control

b)

organizing

c)

leadership

d)

supervision

e)

directing

2.

Calvin is typically very responsive to his boss's requests because he knows that his boss has the power to grant him tangible benefits such as a pay raise, a promotion, or a better work schedule. In this example, Calvin is responding to his boss's __________ power.

a)

reward

b)

information

c)

expert

d)

coercive

e)

legitimate

3.

The first day at a new job, ask your supervisor, "What is your view of leadership?" Your supervisor answers, "I believe that some people are natural leaders and are endowed with certain traits not possessed by other individuals." Based on this answer, you make a mental note that you supervisor subscribes to the __________ approach to understanding leadership.

a)

trait

b)

psychological

c)

transformational

d)

contingency

e)

behavioral

4.

__________ models of leadership include those that define a leader's effectiveness based on task-orientation such as setting goals, giving directions, setting standards, supervising worker performance, and applauding new ideas.

a)

Trait

b)

Objective

c)

Subjective

d)

Referent Power

e)

Behavioral

5.

Setting performance goals, planning and scheduling work, coordinating activities, and giving directions are examples of which of the following?

a)

task orientation

b)

objective orientation

c)

subjective orientation

d)

contingency orientation

e)

relations orientation

6.

The ability to marshal human, informational, or material resources to get something done is called

a)

prerogative

b)

power

c)

management

d)

authoritativeness

e)

control

7.

The type of power that is derived from opportunities inherent in a person's position in an organization is referred to as

a)

personal power

b)

legitimate power

c)

organizational power

d)

referent power

e)

follower-centered power

8.

The type of power that is derived from the interpersonal relationship between a leader and his or her followers is called

a)

hierarchical power

b)

position power.

c)

supervisory power.

d)

institutional power.

e)

personal power.

9.

Situational variables that tend to outweigh a leader's ability to affect subordinate satisfaction and performance are called

a)

leadership exchanges.

b)

referent power.

c)

sense of community.

d)

situational leaderships

e)

leadership substitutes

10.

A leader is able to define and articulate a vision for the organization, and the followers accept the leader's credibility. This is evidence of which of the following?

a)

situational leadership

b)

referent leadership

c)

transformational leadership

d)

transactional leadership

e)

organic leadership

11.

The forces acting on or within a person that cause the person to behave in a specific, goal-directed manner are called The forces acting on or within a person that cause the person to behave in a specific, goal-directed manner are called

a)

ability

b)

competence

c)

motivation

d)

teachability

e)

inducement

12.

According to __________, a person has five fundamental needs: physiological, security, affiliation, esteem, and self-actualization.

a)

Herzberg's Two-Factor Model

b)

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

c)

Acquired-Needs Model

d)

Equity Model

e)

Expectancy Model

13.

According to Hertzberg, __________ factors are associated with the job context or environment in which the job is performed.

a)

motivator

b)

inducement

c)

teachable

d)

hygiene

e)

subsistence

14.

According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Model, which of the following is an example of a motivator factor?

a)

administration

b)

recognition

c)

salary

d)

company policy

e)

supervision

15.

The drive to excel, to accomplish challenging tasks, and to achieve a standard of excellence is referred to as the ___________ in the Acquired-Needs Model.

a)

need for power.

b)

need for action.

c)

need for achievement.

d)

need for hygiene.

e)

need for affiliation.

16.

Which model suggests that individuals choose the option that promises to give them the greatest reward?

a)

expectancy

b)

reinforcement

c)

equity

d)

hierarchy of needs

e)

Herzberg's two-factor model

17.

The model that focuses on an individual's feelings about how fairly he or she is treated in comparison with others is called

a)

equity model.

b)

expectancy model

c)

instrumentality model.

d)

valence model

e)

reinforcement model.

18.

From a motivational perspective, the process of increasing efficiency and effectiveness by specifying the desired outcomes toward which individuals, groups, and organizations should work is called

a)

goal-setting.

b)

participate management.

c)

reinforcement model.

d)

behavior modification.

e)

equity theory.

19.

If the boss praises the efforts and outcomes of his advertising employees at the conclusion of each successful advertising campaign, this boss is said to be practicing

a)

equity

b)

avoidance

c)

Herzberg's Two-Factor Model.

d)

positive reinforcement.

e)

expectancy

20.

__________ is the administration of negative consequences following undesirable behavior.

a)

Punishment

b)

Avoidance

c)

Positive reinforcement

d)

Extinction

e)

Parallel reinforcement

21.

__________ is defined as the systematic process through which managers regulate organizational activities to make them consistent with the expectations established in plans and to help them achieve all predetermined standards of performance.

a)

Control

b)

Directing

c)

Organizing

d)

Just-in-time management

e)

Design

22.

The basic process of control involves all of the following steps except which one?

a)

setting performance standards

b)

measuring actual performance

c)

developing organizational structure

d)

comparing performance to standards

e)

responding to deviations

23.

Jerry Langley, is attempting to establish a process of control for his company. Mr. Langley should begin the process by

a)

setting performance standards

b)

measuring actual performance.

c)

developing organizational structure.

d)

comparing performance to standards.

e)

responding to deviations.

24.

According to our textbook, what is the main difference between quantitative and qualitative performance measures?

a)

Quantitative measures are objective, and qualitative measures are subjective.

b)

Quantitative measures are objective, and qualitative measures are subjective.

c)

Quantitative measures are cheaper to administer than qualitative measures.

d)

Quantitative measures are more useful than qualitative measures.

e)

Qualitative measures are more robust than quantitative measures.

25.

The final step in the control process, the step in which the decision-maker must decide whether to take corrective action or not, is referred to as

a)

setting performance standards.

b)

measuring actual performance

c)

responding to deviations

d)

comparing performance to standards.

e)

developing organizational structure.

26.

To be effective in detecting and correcting unacceptable performance, a control system must satisfy all of the following criteria except which one?

a)

It must be related to organizational strategy.

b)

It must utilize all steps in the control process.

c)

It must be composed of only objective measures

d)

It must be timely in feedback reporting.

e)

It must be acceptable to diverse work force.

27.

Jacob Trueman is interested in the probability that the process being controlled will consistently behave in an acceptable manner. Jacob is concerned with

a)

the cost of the control system.

b)

selecting the proper amount of control.

c)

the reliability of the system.

d)

the minimum total cost of the system.

e)

the focal point of control.

28.

The type of control that focuses on detecting undesirable material, financial, or human resources that serve as inputs to the transformation process is referred to as

a)

concurrent control.

b)

safeguarding control.

c)

cross-functional control.

d)

feedback control.

e)

feedforward control.

29.

__________ focuses on the transformation process to ensure that it is functioning properly.

a)

Concurrent control

b)

Safeguarding control

c)

Cross-functional control

d)

Feedback control

e)

Feedforward control

30.

__________ control involves the use of rules, procedures, policies, hierarchy of authority, written documents, reward systems, and other formal mechanisms to influence behavior, assess performance, and correct unacceptable deviations from standards.

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Bureaucratic

c)

Cross-functional

d)

Organic

e)

Independent

31.

__________ includes a broad array of activities, including reading, listening, managing and interpreting information, serving clients, writing, speechmaking, and the use of symbolic gestures.

a)

Controlling

b)

Communicating

c)

Organizing

d)

Motivating

e)

Planning

32.

Which of the following choices correctly identifies the basic components of the communication process?

a)

sender, channel, message, receiver, feedback, noise

b)

delineator, facilitator, processor, decoder, end-user

c)

originator, facilitator, encoder, decoder, end-user

d)

sender, facilitator, medium, processor, receiver

e)

designer, encoder, decoder, facilitator, receiver

33.

Rather than speaking with each employee face-to-face, Greta Sharp e-mailed each employee a copy of the memo regarding the new vacation policy. The e-mail itself is an example of the __________ in the communication model.

a)

social context

b)

channel

c)

encoding

d)

message decoding

e)

feedback

34.

The __________ process translates the sender's ideas into a systematic set of symbols or a language expressing the communicator's purpose.

a)

transcribing

b)

decoding

c)

receiving

d)

encoding

e)

sending

35.

Amy Williams must translate a message received from her boss into a meaningful interpretation. This translation process is contained in which element of the communication process?

a)

social context

b)

sender and message encoding

c)

message and medium

d)

receiver and message decoding

e)

feedback

36.

__________ involves the translation of received messages into interpreted meanings.

a)

Decoding

b)

Medium processing

c)

Context interpretation

d)

Scripting

e)

Encoding

37.

Interpersonal communication can be broken down into four categories:

a)

oral, written, technological, and nonverbal

b)

spoken, written, nonverbal, and projected.

c)

oral, verbal, symbolic, and nonverbal.

d)

spoken, symbolic, technological, and straightforward.

e)

oral, symbolic, spoken, and nonverbal.

38.

Body motions such as gestures, facial expressions, eye behavior, touching, and any other movement of the body are referred to as

a)

relationship

b)

pantomime

c)

kinesic behavior

d)

proxemics

e)

paralanguage

39.

The informal flow of messages throughout an organization is called the

a)

grapevine

b)

network

c)

lateral communication channel.

d)

discrete communication forum.

e)

bulletin board.

40.

According to our textbook, __________ differences can result in breakdowns and lead to distorted communications and misunderstandings between men and women because of the differences between males and females.

a)

gender

b)

perceptual

c)

cognitive

d)

personality

e)

attitudinal

41.

Coordinating and managing all of the things that are necessary to find the right people and guide them toward achieving the overall strategy is called

a)

personnel planning.

b)

strategic human resource management.

c)

employee empowerment.

d)

total quality management.

e)

employee-employer enhancement.

42.

_____ refers to studying a job in order to understand what knowledge, skills, and abilities are needed as a foundation for the behaviors that would help the job holder perform that job successfully.

a)

job analysis.

b)

job planning

c)

job breakdown.

d)

job differentiation.

e)

job theorization.

43.

A __________ details the responsibilities and tasks associated with a given position.

a)

position description

b)

career-track description

c)

position assessment

d)

employment report

e)

job description

44.

Which of the following is a listing of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other employee characteristics needed to perform a job?

a)

Job routine

b)

Job forecast

c)

Job specification

d)

Job description

e)

Job appraisal

45.

The process of determining the number of employees that the organization will need at some point in the future as well as the knowledge, skills, and abilities that these employees must possess is referred to as

a)

job analysis.

b)

strategic forecasting.

c)

personnel forecasting.

d)

demand forecasting.

e)

supply forecasting.

46.

__________ is the process of finding and attracting job candidates who are qualified to fill job vacancies.

a)

Recruiting

b)

Staffing

c)

Option

d)

Selection

e)

Preference

47.

Evaluating and then choosing the best qualified candidate for a job is known as

a)

forecasting

b)

selection

c)

appointment

d)

grouping

e)

mentoring

48.

__________ is the process of evaluating and choosing the best-qualified candidate from the pool of applicants recruited for a position.

a)

Recruitment

b)

Selection

c)

Forecasting

d)

Testing

e)

Assessing

49.

The first source of information about a potential employee is normally the

a)

application form

b)

employment test.

c)

interview.

d)

survey

e)

assessment center.

50.

Suppose you are the director of human resource management at Intuit Manufacturing and need to hire two statisticians to work on a new manufacturing process. Which selection device should be used to determine whether a particular applicant has sufficient math skills to do the job?

a)

employment test

b)

interview

c)

plant tour

d)

assessment center

e)

application form

51.

Relatively formal, in-depth conversations conducted for the purpose of assessing a job candidate's knowledge, skills, and abilities, as well as providing information to the candidate about the organization and potential jobs are called

a)

interviews

b)

assessment centers.

c)

evaluation forums.

d)

assessment forums.

e)

selection panels.

52.

A planned effort to assist employees in learning job-related behaviors that will improve their performance is called

a)

training

b)

mentoring

c)

coaching

d)

supervising

e)

monitoring

53.

From a consumer perspective, the degree to which the product or service meets the expectations of the customer is called

a)

quality

b)

technology

c)

characteristics

d)

goodness

e)

property

54.

From a producer perspective, the degree to which the product or service conforms to design specifications is called

a)

property

b)

technology

c)

characteristics

d)

goodness

e)

quality

55.

__________ focuses on the actual measurement of output to see if specifications have been met.

a)

Quality assurance

b)

Statistical process control

c)

Quality control

d)

Total quality management

e)

Throughput

56.

__________ focuses on any activity that impacts upon the maintenance of quality at the desired level.

a)

Quality assurance

b)

Statistical process control

c)

Quality control

d)

Total quality management

e)

Throughput

57.

The degree to which the product meets the specifications set by the designers is called

a)

serviceability

b)

durability

c)

responsiveness

d)

reliability

e)

conformance

58.

The willingness and speed with which service personnel attend to customers is called

a)

conformance

b)

responsiveness

c)

reliability

d)

assurance

e)

empathy

59.

Joseph Juran's quality trilogy includes

a)

quality planning, control, and improvement

b)

quality assurance, planning, and organizing.

c)

quality value, costs, and rewards.

d)

quality planning, assurance, and rewards.

e)

total quality management, costs, and rewards.

60.

The philosophy that "quality is free" was introduced by

a)

Kaoru Ishikawa.

b)

Joseph Juran.

c)

W. Edwards Deming.

d)

Armand Feigenbaum.

e)

Philip Crosby