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Prelim Revision N5

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structures are found in all types of living cells?

a)

Cell membranes and cell walls

b)

Cell walls and ribosomes

c)

Ribosomes and cell membranes

2.

Which organelles are found only in plant cells?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nuclei

3.

What is wrong with this diagram of a plant cell?

a)

Plant cells do not contain mitochondria

b)

The nucleus and the chloroplast have been labelled the wrong way round

c)

The cell wall and the nucleus have been incorrectly labelled

4.

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a)

Supporting the cell

b)

Controlling the entry and exit of materials

c)

Storing water

5.

What is produced by ribosomes?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Protein

c)

Sugar

6.

What are plasmids made of?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

DNA

7.

Which three structures in the diagram of the bacterial cell would also be found in fungal cells?

a)

Cell membrane, large circular DNA molecule and ribosomes

b)

Cell membrane, cell wall and ribosomes

c)

Cell membrane, cell wall and plasmids

8.

Click all of the cells where you would find mitochondria

a)

Animal

b)

Plant

c)

Fungal

d)

Bacterial

9.

Which of the following cells does not contain a nucleus?

a)

Animal

b)

Plant

c)

Bacterial

d)

Fungal

10.

Which cell structure is not found in all cell types?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Cytoplasm

11.

What is the function of cell structure F?

a)

Traps light energy for photosynthesis

b)

Site of aerobic respiration

c)

Contains genetic information

d)

Site of protein synthesis

12.

What are the two main components of cell membranes?

a)

Proteins and cellulose

b)

Cellulose and phospholipids

c)

Phospholipids and proteins

13.

A glucose molecule diffuses out of a cell through the selectively permeable membrane. What is this an example of?

a)

Active transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Passive transport

14.

What may happen to red blood cells placed in pure water?

a)

They would burst

b)

They would become turgid

c)

They would shrink

15.

Which structure can prevent a plant cell from bursting when it gains water by osmosis?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Cell wall

c)

Vacuole

16.

What will happen when plant cells are placed in pure water?

a)

They will burst

b)

They will become plasmolysed

c)

They will become turgid

17.

What could cause a plant cell to become plasmolysed?

a)

Gain of water

b)

Loss of water

c)

Vacuole swelling up

18.

Which of the following processes requires energy to occur?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Passive transport

c)

Active transport

19.

A plant cell has been placed into a strong salt solution. Select all of the statements that will apply to this situation.

a)

Water will move from a high water concentration inside the cell to a low water concentration outside of the cell.

b)

Water will move from a high water concentration outside the cell to a low water concentration inside the cell.

c)

Cell will become plasmolysed.

d)

Cell will become turgid.

e)

Vacuole will fill with water.

20.

An animal cell has been placed into a strong salt solution. Select all of the statements that apply to this situation.

a)

Water will move from a high water concentration inside the cell to a low water concentration outside the cell.

b)

Water will move from a high water concentration outside the cell to a low water concentration inside the cell.

c)

Cell will become plasmolysed.

d)

Cell membrane will burst.

e)

Cell will shrink.

21.

Which of the following indicates the pathway of water through a plant?

a)

root hair cell --> xylem --> stomata

b)

stomata --> root hair cell --> xylem

c)

xylem --> stomata --> root hair cell

22.

Which statement describes the phloem transport system of plants?

a)

It transports sugar and is lignified

b)

It transports sugar and is not lignified

c)

It transports water and is lignified

23.

Which type of plant tissue transports water and minerals?

a)

Meristem

b)

Phloem

c)

Xylem

24.

Select all of the environmental factors that would increase transpiration.

a)

Increased humidity

b)

Increased wind speed

c)

Increased temperature

d)

Decreased surface area

25.

Which label points to palisade mesophyll?

a)

B

b)

G

c)

J

d)

H

26.

Which letter points to the leaf vein?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

J

d)

G

27.

Which label points to the region where photosynthesis takes place?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

I

d)

D

28.

Which label points to the transparent layer?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

F

29.

Which letter points to the guard cells?

a)

H

b)

I

c)

J

d)

G

30.

Choose the two statements that indicate what would be happening in the plant when stomata are open.

a)

Guard cells are turgid

b)

Guard cells are plasmolysed

c)

Transpiration increase

d)

Transpiration decrease

31.

Which transport process occurs during transpiration?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

32.

Which statement correctly identifies the substance and direction it is transported in the xylem?

a)

Water, only upwards

b)

Glucose, only upwards

c)

Water, up and down the plant

d)

Glucose, up and down the plant

33.

Which statement correctly identifies the substance and direction it is transported in the phloem?

a)

Water, only upwards

b)

Water, up and down the plant

c)

Glucose, only upwards

d)

Glucose, up and down the plant

34.

Which of the following human characteristics shows discrete variation?

a)

Blood group

b)

Body mass

c)

Height

35.

What term describes a characteristic that is controlled by more than one gene?

a)

Genotype

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Polygenic

36.

What form of variation do polygenic characteristics show?

a)

Continuous variation

b)

Continuous and discrete variation

c)

Discrete variation

37.

What term can be used to describe a persons eye colour or a fruit fly's wing length?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Polygenic

38.

Which of the following genotypes represents a heterozygous organism?

a)

TT

b)

Tt

c)

tt

39.

What name is given to different forms of the same gene?

a)

Alleles

b)

Gametes

c)

Genotypes

40.

If a person inherits a dominant allele from one parent and a recessive allele from their other parent, which phenotype will they show?

a)

Dominant only

b)

Dominant and recessive

c)

Recessive only

41.

In a monohybrid cross what symbol is used to illustrate the first generation of offspring?

a)

P

b)

F1

c)

F2

42.

Select all of the characteristics that are the result of single gene inheritance.

a)

Eye colour

b)

Ear lobe attachment

c)

Blood group

d)

Height

43.

If B = brown hair and b = blonde hair, what phenotype will a person with genotype Bb have?

a)

Brown hair

b)

Blonde hair

44.

If two heterozygous individuals had a child, what are the chances of the child also being heterozygous?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

45.

If a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive individual had a child, what are the chances of the child being homozygous recessive?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

46.

If a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive individual had a child, what are the chances of the child being homozygous dominant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

47.

"A group of organisms which can interbreed to produce fertile offspring" is the definition for:

a)

Niche

b)

Species

c)

Habitat

d)

Carnivore

48.

What is intraspecific competition?

a)

Competition between members of the same species

b)

Competition between members of different species

49.

Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor?

a)

predation

b)

grazing

c)

temperature

d)

disease

50.

Where in the cell does photosynthesis happen?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Cell wall

d)

Vacuole

51.

What gets produced in stage 2 of photosynthesis?

a)

glucose

b)

sugar

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

52.

What is a random change in an organisms genetic material called?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

adaptations

d)

biological control

53.

What is the name given to Stage 2 of Photosynthesis?

a)

Light Reactions

b)

Carbon Fixation

c)

Enzymes

d)

Phloem

54.

What is the name of Stage 1 of Photosynthesis?

a)

Light Reactions

b)

Carbon Fixation

c)

Enzymes

d)

Xylem

55.

What is produced in Stage 1 and used in Stage 2

a)

Water

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Light Energy

56.

What cell structure captures light energy from the sun?

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Chloroform

c)

Chlorine

d)

Centromere

57.

What is added to Stage 2 from the atmosphere?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Carbon Dioxide

58.

Which of the following could limit the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

Light

b)

Sunlight

c)

Light Intensity

d)

Carbon Dioxide

59.

What is water split into?

a)

Hydrogen and Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen and Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Oxygen and ATP

60.

What the end product of photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Water

c)

ATP

d)

Sugar

61.

What molecule is converted from sugar and used for storage?

a)

Glucose

b)

Starch

c)

Cellulose

d)

ATP

62.

What is the cell wall made from?

a)

Sugar

b)

Protein

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Cellulose

63.

Which technique would you use to sample small, slow-moving invertebrates and plants?

a)

Pitfall trap

b)

Light meter

c)

Moisture meter

d)

Quadrat

64.

What technique can be used to sample small invertebrates?

a)

Pitfall trap

b)

quadrat

c)

light meter

d)

cup

65.

Which word means the build up of toxic substances in a living organisms

a)

Accumulate

b)

DDT

c)

Toxicity

d)

Bio-accumulation

66.

Which of the following is the definition for a pyramid of energy?

a)

The number of organisms present at each level in a food chain

b)

The energy present in each population at each level of a food chain

c)

The mass of organisms present at each level of a food chain

d)

The loss of energy in a food chain

67.

What do farmers add to their soil to increase nitrate concentrations?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Fertilisers

c)

Pesticides

d)

Fungicides

68.

Which type of competition is the most intense?

a)

Interspecific

b)

Intraspecific

69.

What things do animals compete for?

a)

Light

b)

Space

c)

Food

d)

Mates

70.

Select 2 abiotic factors

a)

predation

b)

disease

c)

light intensity

d)

pH

71.

An ecosystem is

a)

A group of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile young

b)

A natural biological unit made up of living and non-living parts

c)

The place where an organism lives

d)

All the living organisms that live within a habitat

72.

The base A is complementary to...

a)

T

b)

C

c)

G

d)

A

73.

Identify the statement/s which apply to mRNA

a)

It is single stranded

b)

It is double stranded

c)

It carries an identical copy of DNA from the nucleus to the ribosome

d)

It carries a complementary copy of DNA from the nucleus to the ribosome

74.

The sequence of bases determines...

a)

The sequence of amino acids

b)

The sequence of proteins

c)

The structure and function of proteins

d)

The structure and function of amino acids

75.

What are enzymes made of?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Protein

d)

Starch

76.

Which best describes a degradation reaction?

a)

Small molecules built up into large molecules

b)

Large molecules broken down into small molecules

c)

Molecules stay the same size