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WorksheetsBio One Fall Exam
Total questions: 140
Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins
Which of the following are likely topics in a biology course?
Why does the Texas horned lizard squirt blood out of its eyes?
How is a banded pipe fish able to hide in its environment of seaweeds?
What chemicals cause plant stems to lengthen or flowers to bloom?
All of these.
Living things do all of the following except
make adjustments to nonliving factors around them.
maintain a steady internal environment.
respond to other organisms.
pass an identical genetic code to their offspring for many generations.
Technology has allowed humans to produce more food and reduce the chance of starvation. Which of the following is the most significant result of this technology?
The technology increased population growth, creating the need for additional food.
The technology caused salts to be deposited in soils.
The technology caused the false belief that the problem was solved forever.
All of these.
Because it is often difficult to gather numerical data, ________ information is collected.
quantitative
descriptive
scientific
ethical
Students in a biology class ran an experiment on a type of flowering plant. Their goal was to find the optimal time in the plant's life for flowering. What time period will provide the most flowering plants? Use the table to determine your answer.
5-6 days
6-7 days
7-8 days
8-9 days
Which of the following would most likely be the major focus of a biologist?
bacteria found in hot springs
the composition of water in hot springs
the temperature of hot springs
the location of hot springs
Which topic falls under the study of biology?
the chemicals in fuel
the makeup of the atmosphere
rocks found in a riverbed
the digestive system of an earthworm
Which is not a topic of biology?
the relationship between fungi and trees
the distribution of sand on an ocean floor
the chemicals at work in the stomach
the speed at which a hummingbird flies
Which might you study in a biology course?
communication across telephone wires
communication over fiber optics
communication by satellite
communication among birds
What is a possible benefit of studying plants in the rain forest?
The plants may hold medicines to treat human diseases.
The plants may produce needed carbon dioxide.
The plants may be cut down and sold in floral shops.
The plants may make toxins for human consumption.
Which describes a major benefit that bio engineering technology has provided to society?
Its applications include the development of new plastics for airplanes.
Its applications include the development of pacemakers and artificial limbs.
Its applications include larger capacity for handheld music devices.
Its applications include more energy-efficient fossil fuels.
Which is not something a scientist would study?
astrology
botany
biology
anatomy
Which best describes the purpose of science?
to explain the nature of things
to propose solutions to political issues
to solve the ethical problems of society
to debate the meaning of life
A person studying a topic is presented with new information that conflicts with previous findings. What would a scientist do in this situation?
ignore the new information
argue against the new information
evaluate the new information
keep the new information to himself
In the peer-review process for a report of the results of a study on the ecology of honeybees, who would be an appropriate reviewer?
a politician that knew about bees
a biologist studying insects
a university president
a physicist that keeps bees
What is the basis of the metric measurement system?
its measures are based on divisions that are powers of ten
it is based on European measurement standards
it is the only scientific measurement system
it is based on the wavelength of krypton-86 radiation
Which best explains the importance of understanding science?
It allows us to perform experiments on a variety of living things.
It allows us to determine which endangered species are worth saving.
It allows us to be educated in issues important in today's society.
It allows us to understand different ways of measuring things.
Which of the following is an observation?
You record the air temperature every day for a week.
You propose that a cold front is approaching.
You hypothesize that the temperature will increase tomorrow.
You conclude that the season is changing.
Which is an inference?
You measure a plant's height every day for a week.
You give a plant the same amount of water every day.
Every day for a week, you collect data on a plant;s movement.
After watching a plant for a week, you determine it needs more sunlight.
Which best describes the difference between an observation and an inference?
You can record an observation; an inference is an idea.
You make an inference before you make observations.
An observation is a conclusion; an inference is a hypothesis.
An observation is based on evidence, an inference is not.
A person studying a particular field has published her findings. The findings are not testable by others. This person is most likely studying which field?
astrology
biology
chemistry
physics
Which is the most likely inference Luisa might make after watching the wildlife around her bird feeder?
Ten birds come every morning to feed at her bird feeder.
Birds and squirrels compete for the same food sources.
Different birds come to the bird feeder each day.
Squirrels run very quickly up and down trees.
Which of the following best describes a benefit of studying biology?
One is able to experiment on a variety of animals.
One is able to intelligently debate issues such as cloning.
One is able to preserve the animals that are extinct.
One is able to understand the causes of changes in weather.
Which is most likely not a beneficial contribution made by biologists?
Biologists improve the soil used for agriculture.
Biologists improve the life expectancy of humans
Biologists improve the durability of non-stick coatings
Biologists improve the nutritional content of food.
________ represents a formula for a chemical compound.
H
C
P
H2O
The total number of atoms in a molecule of sucrose is
11
12
22
45
An atom of fluorine has nine electrons. Its second energy level has _____.
two electrons
eight electrons
seven electrons
nine electrons
Which is the negatively charged particle located outside the nucleus of an atom?
Electron
Neutron
Proton
Silicon
Which particle in the nucleus of an atom has a neutral charge?
carbon
electron
neutron
proton
If an atom has seven electrons, how many are located in the second energy level?
2
3
5
7
In the periodic table of the elements, elements in Group one have how many outer electrons?
0
1
4
8
One isotope of carbon differs from another in which way?
atomic number
number of electrons
number of neutrons
number of protons
Which substance has at least one ionic bond?
CH4
H2O
NaCl
O2
A molecule of water (H2O) has which bonds?
1 covalent bond
1 ionic bond
2 covalent bonds
2 ionic bonds
A single covalent bond forms when two atoms do which of these?
when they share one electron
when they share two electrons
when one gives an electron to the other
when one gives two electrons to the other
Which is an example of a chemical reaction?
ice melting
iron rusting
sugar dissolving in water
water evaporating
When paper burns in a fire, what is one reactant?
fire
carbon dioxide
oxygen
water
When an iron nail rusts, what is one product?
iron
iron oxide
oxygen
water
Two substances are combined and heat is produced. Does this provide evidence that a chemical reaction took place?
No, because heat is not a chemical
No, because this would be a physical change
Yes, because energy is absorbed
Yes, because energy is released
Consider the energy diagram for a chemical reaction in Figure 6-3. Overall, is energy released or absorbed?
absorbed, because the energy level increases during the reaction
absorbed, because the energy level of the products is greater than that of the reactants
released, because the reaction is initiated by the addition of heat
released because the energy level of the reactants is greater than that of the products
Which is the best description of activation energy?
Heat added to initiate a reaction.
Heat released as the reaction proceeds.
Heat stored within the reactant molecules.
Heat stored within the product molecules.
A spontaneous chemical reaction occurs more rapidly when the reactants are held at 35 degrees C rather than 25 degrees F. Why would this be the case?
The activation energy would be lower.
The activation energy would be higher.
The net energy release would be lower.
The net energy release would be greater.
How does an enzyme influence a biological reaction?
It increases the net energy difference between reactants and products.
It decreases the activation energy necessary to initiate the chemical change.
It increases the kinetic energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to collide.
It decreases the kinetic energy of reactants, enabling them to undergo chemical change more easily.
A hydrogen bond can form between a hydrogen atom of one molecule and which atom of another molecule?
carbon
hydrogen
oxygen
sodium
Which property is responsible for the fact that water and oil do not mix?
density
mass
phase
polarity
Which is the best example of a solution?
blood
milk
paint
seawater
Which beverage is the best example of a colloid?
black coffee
root beer
milk
tea
When added to water, how does an acid affect the pH and H+ concentration?
Both pH and H+ decrease
Both pH and H+ increase
The pH decreases while the H+ increased
The pH increases while the H+ decreases
A single carbon atom can form a maximum of how many single covalent bonds?
2
4
6
8
Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates or lipids?
C
H
N
O
In humans and other multi cellular organisms, which substance plays a central role as an energy source?
Carbohydrate
Fat
Protein
Water
Glycogen, used to store energy in the liver and muscle tissue, is an example of which type of molecule?
carbohydrate
protein
saturated fatty acid
steroid
Amino acids are the building blocks of which macromolecule?
carbohydrate
DNA
lipid
protein
An organism's genetic information is stored in which type of macromolecule?
DNA
carbohydrate
lipid
protein
What is the approximate size of A in Figure 7-3.
400 um
500 um
700 um
1000 um
What is the approximate size of B in Figure 7-3?
400 um
500 um
700 um
1000 um
What would be the best way to estimate the size of C in Figure 7-3?
increase magnification
decrease magnification
estimate by what you can see
assume it is 2000 um
What would happen to the structure in Figure 7-4 if part D is completely removed?
it would become more rigid
it would disintegrate
it would have holes in it
it would collapse in on itself
Where are you least likely to find water in the structure shown in Figure 7-4.
A
B
C
E
Which of the following pictures in Figure 7-5 most likely approximate the motion phospholipids make in a plasma membrane?
A
B
C
D
Both Schwann and Virchow developed important theories about cells int he mid 1800's. Which best explains the reason these theories were made within a few years of each other?
Hooke's Mircrographia inspired both theories.
New microscopes provided better viewing of cells.
Scientist invented the microscope in the mid 1800's.
The electron microscope was used for the first time.
What did scientist observe using the earliest microscopes?
atoms
cell parts
molecules
tiny organisms
An electron microscope can magnify an object about 500,000 rimes. How does this magnification compare with the magnification of a compound light microscope?
500 times lower
100 times lower
100 times higher
500 times higher
What major improvement came with the development of the scanning electron microscope?
Magnets were replaced with lighter materials.
It produced images with better color.
The magnification was higher.
The images were three dimensional.
Which statement is a fundamental principle of the cell theory?
All cells have a plasma membrane
Eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells
living organisms are composed of cells
the genetic material in cells is DNA
In what decade did the cell theory become an accepted part of biology?
1620's
1850's
1940's
1980's
Which statement is true about bacterial cells?
The cells are very large
The cells have no nucleus
They are eukaryotes
They have organelles
Which is present in only eukaryotic cells?
cell membrane
chromosomes
DNA
nucleus
Cholesterol is repelled by water and can be found between the layers of the phospholipids in the plasma membrane. What can be concluded from this information?
A high cholesterol diet should be avoided
cholesterol is non polar
cholesterol is polar
cholesterol is repelled by the polar tails
Which substance on the plasma membrane helps identify chemical signals from outside the cell?
carbohydrate chain
cholesterol
membrane protein
transport protein
At what point in the process of diffusion is dynamic equilibrium reached?
when the movement of the molecules stops being random
when the molecules are mixed and stop moving
when the rate of change in the solution slows by one half;
when there is continuous movement but no change
What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport?
Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient
Active transport uses proteins in the process
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane
Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy
A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell?
it will swell
it will shrink
it will stay the same
it will wilt
Algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution. Additional amounts of solutes are slowly added to the solution. What happens to the cells?
they will begin to swell
they will burst
they will stay the same
they will shrink
What types of materials are expelled from cells during exocytosis?
large molecules such as hormones
positive and negative ions
small molecules such as carbon dioxide
water and glycerol
Which of the following is an example of passive transport?
endocytosis
exocytosis
facilitated diffusion
NA+/K+ ATPase pump
By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except_____.
tighter coiling of the chromosomes
breaking down of the nuclear envelope
disappearing of the nucleolus
lining up of chromosomes in the cell
The chromosomes shown in Figure 9-1 are in which state of mitosis?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Which of the cells depicted in the line graph in Figure 9-2 are most likely cancerous?
A
B
C
D
If cancer is present, what is the likely explanation for what happened to the cells depicted in the curves labeled B and D in Figure 9-2?
they thrived with the cancerous cells
they were harmed by radiation therapy
they died off due to natural causes
they died off because the cancerous cells deprived them of nutrients
Which of the following does not occur as a cell grows larger and larger in size?
difficulty obtaining nutrients
difficulty eliminating wastes
ratio of surface area to volume increases
diffusion across the cell membrane is impaired
Which of the graphs in Figure 9-3 shows the correct changes in the amount of DNA in a cell as it moves through one cell cycle?
A
B
C
D
Why is the synthesis stage called this?
because protein synthesis is taking place
because DNA synthesis is taking place
because it combines several smaller stages into one
because the chromosomes come together
Which of these has occurred by the end of prophase?
sister chromatids are separated
the spindle is beginning to form
the cell membrane has begun to pinch inward
the nuclear membrane has disappeared
Figure 9-4 illustrates which stage of mitosis?ee
anaphase
metaphase
prophase
telophase
How is the alignment of chromosomes, shown in Figure 9-4, on the equatorial plate of the cell maintained?
they are always located there, since that is where the nucleus was
tension between opposite spindle fibers pulls them there
the pressure of the cytoplasm moves them there
the chromosomes are attracted to each other and meet there
Which of the following occurs in telophase?
chromosomes condense
chromosomes line up
chromosomes move to opposite poles
chromosomes relax
A cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cells have?
4
6
12
24
The cell cycle is regulated by
cyclins
enzymes
hormones
sugars
A cell that is undergoing mitosis is examined with a light microscope. An observation that would allow for identification of the cell as an animal cell rather than a plant cell would be ____________.
the centrioles migrating
the chromosome pairs separating from each other
the chromosomes twisting about each other
the nucleoli disappearing
Cancer cells can reproduce rapidly because they _____
are smaller than normal cells
bypass interphase
undergo mitosis faster
spend less time in interphase
What is cancer caused by?
cell-membrane damage
metabolic poisoning
mutation
immune-system damage
Prokaryotes divide by binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction in which
the nucleus divides into two nuclei
the number of chromosomes in the cell is reduced
a cell divides into two cells with identical genetic information
spindle fibers attach to the poles of the cell
It is often said that normal cells change into cancerous cells frequently in our bodies. Which of the following explanations accounts for the relative rarity of cancer?
the cancerous cells die on their own
the DNA repair system fixes the mutation that causes cancer
the cancer cells grow only very slowly at first
the cancerous cells are normally crowded out by normal cell growth
What is the role of cyclin-dependent kinases in the cell cycle?
they stop the cycle if something has gone wrong
they catalyze the condensation of the chromosomes
they provide the energy for the actions of the spindle fibers
they initiate various stages of the cell cycle
The cell in Figure 9-5 is undergoing mitosis. Which stage of mitosis will follow this one?
anaphase
metaphase
prophase
telophase
Which checkpoint has this cell just passed?
near the end of gap one, monitoring DNA damage
during the S stage
during the gap two stage
during mitosis, monitoring spindle formation
DNA replication occurs during
anaphase
interphase
metaphase
prophase
If you were studying the causes of cancer, which topic might interest you?
cyclin-dependent kinases
centromere structure
spindle-fiber structure
cell membranes
A cell that undergoes repeated mitosis without cytokinesis would have
many daughter cells
fewer chromosomes
many nuclei
cancerous properties
Why is it important for the chromosomes to condense during mitosis?
to facilitate DNA replication
to facilitate chromosome movement
to facilitate cytokinesis
to facilitate spindle formation
The typical growth period of a cell occurs during which stage of the cell cycle?
gap one
gap two
synthesis
mitosis
Some cancers have a genetic component to them, if a parent has a cancer the children are more likely than the average population to develop the cancer. Why might this be?
Cancers require more than one mutation to occur.
Cancers are inherited but remain dormant until a certain age.
Parents and children are often exposed to similar environmental factors.
Cancers are often recessive traits and require alleles from both parents.
A stem cell has potential medical uses because it
undergoes mitosis
is not specialized in structure and function
is similar to a cancer cell, providing a study system
undergoes apoptosis
A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably _____.
homozygous recessive
heterozygous
homozygous dominant
haploid
In chickens, rose comb (R) is dominant to single comb (r). A homozygous rose-combed rooster is mated with a single-combed hen. All of the chicks in the F1 generation were kept together as a group for several years. They were allowed to mate only within their own group. What is the expected phenotype of the F2 chicks?
100% rose comb
75% rose comb and 25% single comb
100% single comb
50% rose comb and 50% single comb
The diagram in Figure 10-2 shows a diploid cell with two homologous pairs of chromosomes. Due to independent assortment, the possible allelic combinations that could be found in gametes produced by the meiotic division of this cell are ______.
Bb, Dd, BB, and DD
BD, bD, Bd, and bd
BbDd and BDbd
Bd and bD only
Which event during meiosis leads to a reduction in chromosome number from 2n to n?
Pairs of homologous chromosomes line up at the equator.
DNA undergoes replication.
Homologous chromosomes travel to opposite sides of the cell.
Sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromere.
Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?
when DNA is being replicated
when homologous chromosomes line up in pairs
when centromeres are separated
when cytokinesis begins
What is the role of the spindle fibers?
to join homologous chromosomes together
to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesis
to initiate the formation of the nuclear membrane
to move chromosomes in the cell
The typical human body cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are found in a typical human sperm?
23
45
46
92
A true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a true-breeding short pea plant, and all the offspring are tall. What is the most likely genotype of the offspring assuming a single-gene trait?
tt
Tt
TT
TT or tt
In mice, black is dominant to white color and color is determined by a single gene. Two black mice are crossed. They produce 2 black offspring and one white offspring. If the white offspring is crossed with on of its parents, what percent of the offspring are expected to white?
0
25
50
75
Mendel took the pollen from a tall pea plant and pollinated the flower of a short pea plant. When he did this, he removed the male parts of the flower on the short plant. Why was it important that he remove the male parts from the flower of the short plant?
because he wanted to prevent self pollination
because the short plant was heterozygous
because he wanted to prevent the development of seeds
because the short plant was not a true-breeding plant
A heterozygous organism is best described as which of these?
dominant
genotype
hybrid
true-breeding
In which situation are the phenotypes of F2 offspring expected to follow the ratio of 9:3:3:1?
a monohybrid cross for 2 unlinked traits
a monohybrid cross for 2 closely linked traits
a dihybrid cross for 2 unlinked traits
a dihybrid for 2 closely linked traits
If two heterozygous individuals are crossed, what percent of their offspring are also expected to be heterozygous?
0
50
75
100
Of the following species used in agriculture, which is most likely a polyploid?
cow
goat
hen
wheat
Consider the cell labeled X in Figure 10-9 containing 4 chromosomes. Which of the four cells below it represents a healthy gamete that could be produced from this cell?
A
B
C
D
Which of the following would be least likely to happen as a result of a mutation in a person's skin cells?
skin cancer
reduced functioning of the skin cells
no change in functioning of the skin cell
the person's offspring have mutated skin
Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?
chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide
cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide
nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus
cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome
In which part of the cell does this process shown in Figure 12-2 take place?
in the nucleus
in food vacuoles
at the ribosomes
on the chromosome
Structure III in Figure 12-2 represents a(n) _______.
gene
amino acid
codon
DNA molecule
The process illustrated in Figure 12-2 is called ________.
translation
replication
monoploidy
transcription
Which of the structures in Figure 12-2 are composed of RNA?
II and IV
III and IV
I and V
III and V
A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ______.
frame shift mutation
substitution
insertion
deletion
What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 12-3?
substitution
frame shift
lethal
insertion
What will the result of the mutation in Figure 12-3?
it will have no effect on protein function
only one amino acid will change
nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changed
translation will not occur
A DNA segment is changed from -AATTAGAAATAG- to -ATTAGAAATAG-. This is a _______.
frame shift mutation
insertion
inversion
translation
Where would a DNA substitution probably have the smallest or least effect on the organism?
exon
histone
intron
operon
A particular sequence of parent DNA has four purine bases and two pyrimidine bases. According to base-pairing rules, which of the following sequences could be formed during replication?
2 cytosine, 2 adenine, 2 thymine
2 cytosine, 2 adenine, 2 uracil
2 adenine, 2 thymine, 1 guanine, 1 cytosine
2 adenine, 2 guanine, 2 cytosine
Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
You are a medical researcher trying to create a new antibiotic that will interfere with bacterial DNA replication without harming the eukaryotic host. You have found several chemicals that prevent DNA from unwinding and separation. Which of the following is the best chemical to use?
a chemical that blocks uracil use
a chemical that cannot pass into the cell nucleus
a chemical that is neutralized by cytoplasm
a chemical that works only in the presence of histones
This is a template DNA sequence: 3'AATCGC5'. This is a partially-completed mRNA strand transcribed from the DNA template: 3'GCGA5'. What is the next nucleotide that RNA polymerase will attach?
A
C
T
U
Here are two related mRNA sequences: 5'UUUAGCGAGCAU3' and 5'UUUAGCCAUAAAAAAAA3'. How was the second sequence formed?
a tandem repeat mutation formed the second sequence
processing removed an exon and added a poly-A tail to form the second sequence
processing removed an intron and added a poly-A tail to form the second sequence
RNA polymerase matched up several incorrect nucleotide bases to the original DNA as the second sequence formed
A bacterium that was once able to survive in a tryptophan-free environment is now unable to synthesize its own tryptophan. The bacterium appears completely unaffected in all its functions. Where is the most likely location for the mutation?
the trp repressor
the trp promoter
the histone
the RNA polymerase
Using DNA sequencing, you discover that a bacterium has experienced a deletion mutation that removed three nucleotides. The bacterium appears completely unaffected in all its functions. Where is the most likely location for the mutation?
an exon
an intron
a promoter
a repressor
You have a building toy set consisting of parts that can be connected together. You are going to use it to model a piece of DNA. You have decided that each part of DNA will be represented by a different type of toy piece. You have chosen the following four pieces so far: adenine= large red cube; guanine= large green cube; thymine=small orange cube; cytosine=small blue cube. How many other types of pieces do you need to represent the remaining parts both the 3-prime and the 5-prime strands of a section of DNA.
0
1
2
4
The template strand of a piece of DNA being replicated reads: 5'-ATAGGCCGT-3'. A partially synthesized Okazaki fragment is 5'CCTA3'. If the next fragment is four bases long, what is its first base?
A
C
G
T
DNA replication of a leading strand involves which enzymes?
primase, polymerase
primase, polymerase, ligase
helicase, primase, ligase
helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase
