Free Printable Organic Medicinal Chemistry

1.

The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi

a)

Phenol number

b)

Phenol coefficient

c)

Phenol value

d)

None of these

2.

To calculate phenol coefficient, the concentration of phenol at which the compound kills the test organism in 5 minutes, but not in 10 minutes, is divided by the concentration of the test compounds that kills the organism under the same conditions

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

Sulfonamides used for burn theraphy ;

a)

Mafenide

b)

Silver sulfadiazine

c)

Both

d)

None

4.

A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic;

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Nystatin

c)

Salicylic acid

d)

Econazole

5.

Tolnaftate, Acrisorcin, Halaprogin, Ciclopirox olamine , Fatty acid, Propionic acid, Zinc propionate, Sodium Caprylate, Zinc Caprylate, Triacetin

a)

Imidazoles

b)

Polyenes Antibiotic

c)

Synthetic

d)

Macrolide

6.

Amphotericin B

a)

Syntheric

b)

Polyene Antibiotic

c)

Macrolide Antibiotic

d)

Imidazole

7.

Griseofulvin

a)

Polyene Antibiotic

b)

Macrolide Antibiotic

c)

Imidazole

d)

Synthetic

8.

Flucytosine

a)

Imidazole

b)

Synthetic

c)

Polyenes Antibiotic

d)

Macrolide Antibiotic

9.

Benzyl Penicillin

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicillin V

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Oxacillin

10.

Phenoxymethyl penicillin

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicillin V

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Oxacillin

11.

5-Methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicillin V

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Oxacillin

12.

D-a-aminobenzyl penicillin

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicllin V

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Oxacillin

13.

First generation urinary tract anti-infective ;

a)

Salicylic acid

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Norfloxacin

d)

Nalidixic acid

14.

Fluoroquinolone

a)

Norfloxacin

b)

Pipemedic acid

c)

Methenamine

d)

None

15.

Combination theraphy in the treatment of TB contain the ff;

a)

Ethambutol

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Streptomycin

16.

Drugs used in the treatment of amoebic dysentery;

a)

Tinidazole

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Etofamide

d)

Metronidazole

17.

4th Generation Cephalosphorins;

a)

Cefepime

b)

Cefaloxin

c)

Cefamandole

d)

Cefuroxime

18.

All starts with CEPH except Cefadroxil and Cefazolin

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

19.

CEFUROXIME

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

20.

LORACARBEF

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

21.

CEFDINIR

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

22.

CEFTIBUTIN

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

23.

MOXALACTAM

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

24.

CEFPIROME

a)

1ST GEN

b)

2ND GEN

c)

3RD GEN

d)

4TH GEN

25.

Drug used in the treatment of chicken pox;

a)

zidovudine

b)

chloroquine

c)

acyclovir

d)

metronidazole

26.

Pyrimidine analog

a)

AZT

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Metronidazole

27.

DOC for erythrocytic falciparum malaria except resistant strain

a)

zidovudine

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Metronidazole

28.

Guanosine analog HSV 1&2 varicella

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Chloroquine

d)

Metronidazole

29.

Antiprotozoal

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Chloroquine

d)

Metronidazole

30.

DOC for thypoid fever;

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Lincomycin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Cephalosphorins

31.

Combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine

a)

Povidone iodine

b)

String iodine souluton

c)

Iodine tinctures

d)

I₂in KI solution

32.

Generic name of new Merthiolate

a)

Chlorhexidine

b)

Thimerosal

c)

Mexachlorophene

d)

Benzalkonium chloride

33.

7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Roxithromycin

c)

Spectinomycin

d)

Ilotycin

34.

Drug that is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria;

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Quinine

c)

Amodiaquine

d)

Cycloquanil

35.

DOC for erythrocytic p. falciparum

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Quinine

c)

Amodiaquine

d)

Cycloquanil

36.

Newest and most potent quinolone derivative for malaria;

a)

Amodiaquine

b)

Mefloquine

c)

Atabrine

d)

Daraprim

37.

DOC for malarial supression

a)

Mefloquine

b)

Amodiaquine

c)

Diaprim

d)

Chloroquine

38.

An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness

a)

Suramin

b)

Eflornithine

c)

Pentamidine

d)

Stibophen

39.

6-methylether of erythromycin

a)

Clarithromycin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Lincomycin

d)

Ilotycin

40.

A semi-synthetic aminoglycosides whose structural prototype is kanamycin

a)

Kantrex

b)

Amikin

c)

Garamycin

d)

Nebcin

41.

Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza

a)

Ribavirin

b)

Rimantadine

c)

Gancyclovir

d)

Foscarnet

42.

Drug used for both antiviral and antiparkinsons

a)

Amantadine

b)

Rimantadine

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Gancyclovie

43.

Inhibition of cell division

a)

Thiazbendazole

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Praziquantel

d)

Mebendazole

44.

Paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Thiabendazole

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Praziquantel

45.

Phagocytic attack on worms

a)

Praziquatel

b)

Thiabendazole

c)

Mebendazole

d)

Ivermcectin

46.

Decrease glucose uptake

a)

Mebendazole

b)

Prazequantel

c)

Thiabendazole

d)

Ivermectin

47.

Anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis

a)

Silvadene

b)

Sulfamylon

c)

Whitfield's

d)

Vandol

48.

DOC for filarial infections;

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Diethylcarbamazine

c)

Stibophen

d)

Praziquantel

49.

Strongyloidiasis

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Praziquantel

c)

Diethylcarbamazine

d)

Stibophen

50.

Fascioliasis (Sheep liver fluke)

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Praziquantel

c)

Diethylcarabamazine

d)

Stibophen

51.

Schistosomiasis

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Praziquantel

c)

Diethylcarbamazine

d)

Stibophen

52.

Schistosomes (blood flukes)

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Praziquantel

c)

Diethylcarbamazine

d)

Stibophen

53.

Opisthorcosis (Liver fluke)

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Praziquantel

c)

Diethylcarbamazine

d)

Stibophen

54.

Active form of the sulfonamide

a)

Non-ionized

b)

Ionized

c)

Amphoteric

d)

Oxo-ring

55.

Benzoic acid to hippuric acid

a)

Glycine conjugation

b)

Sulfunation

c)

Methylation

56.

Phenol to phenolsulfate

a)

Sulfonation

b)

Glycine Conjugation

c)

Methylation

57.

Characteristics of active transport system

a)

Follow saturation kinetics

b)

Expedintures of energy

c)

Carrier mediated

d)

Higher to lower concentration gradient

58.

Antihistamine that possesses the same indications as that of dipenhydramine;

a)

Meclizine

b)

Hyoscine

c)

Dimenhydrinate

d)

DDT

59.

Dimenhydrinate is a combination of two drugs; dipenhydramine and 8-chlorotheophylline

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

60.

Fertility vitamins;

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin B2

d)

Vitamin H

61.

Also known as thyrocalcitonin

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Calcitriol

d)

Vitamin C

62.

Acts to reduce blood calcium, opposing the effects of PTH

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Calcitriol

d)

Biotin

63.

Ergocalciferol

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin D3

c)

Vitamin D2

d)

Vitamin H

64.

Cholecalciferol

a)

Vitamin D3

b)

Vitamin D2

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin H

65.

Is a fat soluble vitamins that helps your body absorb calcium and phosphorus

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin B

66.

A sample drug excreted via the urine, EXCEPT;

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Sulfonamides

c)

Aspirin

d)

Thiamine

67.

Vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis ;

a)

Retin-A

b)

Tegison

c)

Accutane

d)

Oilatum

68.

Used in the topical management of acne and to reduce wrinkles

a)

Retin-A

b)

Accutane

c)

Oilatum

d)

Tegison

69.

Form of Vitamin A and is used to treat severe nodular acne

a)

Isotretinoin

b)

Tretinoin

c)

oilatum

d)

Tegison

70.

Baby skin products designed to soothe and protect dry, itchy, and irritated skin

a)

Oilatum

b)

Retin-A

c)

Accutane

d)

Tegison

71.

Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on;

a)

Physical characteristics

b)

Ability to bind on a specific receptors

c)

Both

d)

None of these

72.

Product of hydrolysis of penicillins;

a)

Penicillenic acid

b)

Penicilloic acid

c)

Penicilloate HCL

d)

Pinecillic acid

73.

Is any of several acids which are obtained from the penicillins by the hydrolytic opening of the lactam ring

a)

Penicillenic acid

b)

Penicilloic acid

c)

Penicilloate HCL

d)

Pinecillic acid

74.

Penicillamine methyl ester hydrochloride

a)

Penicilloate HCL

b)

Penicillenic acid

c)

Pinecillic acid

d)

Penicilloic acid

75.

Is a mycotoxin that is produced by Penicillium roqueforti mold

a)

Penicillenic acid

b)

Penicilloate HCL

c)

Penicilloic acid

d)

Pinecillic acid

76.

Cidex;

a)

Glutaraldehyde

b)

Gammabenzenehexachloride

c)

Hexachlorophene

d)

Carbamoyl phosphate

77.

Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillin render;

a)

Activity against Pseudomonas

b)

Acid stability

c)

Activity against Gram (-) bacteria

d)

Penicillinase resistance

78.

Glycopeptide antibiotic;

a)

Beta-lactam

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Polymyxin

d)

Probenecid

79.

This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosphorins (cephems), monobactams, and carabapenems

a)

Beta-lactam antibiotics

b)

Polymyxins

c)

Probenecid

d)

Vancomycin

80.

Polymyxins are structure consisting of a cyclic peptide with a long hydrophilic tail.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

Is a benzoic acid derivative with antihyperuricemic property

a)

Probenecid

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Polymyxin

82.

Progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer

a)

Depo-provera

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Flutamide

d)

Goserelin

83.

Blocks the actions of estrogen and is used to treat and prevent some type of breast cancer

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Flutamide

c)

Goserelin

d)

Depo-provera

84.

Is a synthetic non steroidal antiandrogen used primarily to treat prostate cancer

a)

Flutamide

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Goserelin

d)

Depo-provera

85.

used to suppress production of the testosterone and estrogen

a)

Goserelin

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Flutamide

d)

Depo-provera

86.

DOC for absence seizures;

a)

Carbamezapine

b)

Ethosuximide

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Primidone

87.

An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens

a)

Butylated hydroxytoluene

b)

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

c)

Phencyclidine

88.

Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora

a)

Tyloxapol

b)

Guaiafenesin

c)

Emetine

d)

Potassium iodide

89.

Anesthetic choice for labor

a)

Halothane

b)

Enflurane

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Methoxyflurance

90.

DOC for acute attack of migraine;

a)

Codeine

b)

Avamigran

c)

Litec

d)

Inderal

91.

Anesthetic of choice for patient with asthma

a)

Ketamine

b)

Enflurane

c)

Thiopental

d)

None of theses

92.

is the oldest germicidal still in use today

a)

Elemental iodine

b)

Strong iodine

c)

Iodine solution

d)

Iodine tincture

93.

2% Iodine in 50% alcohol with sodium iodide

a)

Iodine Tincture

b)

Strong Iodine

c)

Iodine Solution

d)

Elemental Iodine

94.

5% iodine in water with potassium iodide

a)

Strong iodine solution

b)

Iodine tincture

c)

Iodine solution

d)

Povidone iodine

95.

2% iodine in water with sodium iodide

a)

Strong iodine

b)

Iodine solution

c)

Iodine tincture

d)

Lugol's solution

96.

Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products;

a)

Polychlorinated biphenyls

b)

Acesulfame

c)

BHA

d)

None

97.

Prostaglandins is also known as ;

a)

Saturated fats

b)

Compound lipids

c)

Eicosanoids

d)

All of these

98.

Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are ;

a)

oral hypoglycemic agents

b)

diuretics

c)

anti-inflammatory

d)

spasmolytic

99.

A necessary precursor of visual pigment is;

a)

Tocopherol

b)

Retinal

c)

Ergosterol

100.

Paracetamol is a/an;

a)

Salicyclate

b)

Pyrazolone

c)

Aniline derivative

d)

Azocrine derivative

Organic Medicinal Chemistry

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 24hrs 17mins

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