wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Sports Science exam

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 3hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which is an example of unsaturated fat

a)

coconut oil

b)

full fat dairy products

c)

canola oil

d)

meat products

2.

what is the chemical composition of a protein molecule

a)

C, H, O and N

b)

C, H and O (1:2:1) ratio

c)

Glycerol and three fatty acids

d)

H, N, and O

3.

which of the following are macronutrients

a)

water, lipid (fat), fibre, protein

b)

Water, vitamins, minerals, protein

c)

vitamins, minerals, protein

d)

water, lipid, carbohydrate, protein

4.

what are the major sites of triglyceride storage

a)

adipose tissue and pancreas

b)

skeletal muscle and liver

c)

adipose tissue and liver

d)

adipose tissue and blood

5.

which nutrient has the most calories

a)

protein

b)

fat

c)

carbs

d)

fiber

6.

what is the energy content per 100 g of carbohydrate molecule

a)

1720 kj

b)

1760 kj

c)

4000 kj

d)

600 kj

7.

an athlete training for the olympic hockey team is going to eat a diet high in

a)

protein and carbs

b)

protein in fat

c)

carbs and fat

d)

fat and fiber

8.

it is recommended that most people eat a diet consisting of no more than what percent from fat

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

9.

what are the basic subunits of carbohydrates

a)

polysaccharides

b)

disaccharides

c)

monosaccharides

d)

trisaccharides

10.

which of the following comprises that largest percentage of blood

a)

plasma

b)

Leucocytes

c)

platlets

d)

plasma

11.

identify the blood cell that is correctly matched with its function

a)

erythrocytes - blood clotting

b)

leucocytes - immune response

c)

erythrocytes - immune response

d)

leucocytes - blood clotting

12.

which chamber of the heart and major blood vessel are associated with pulmonary circulation

a)

left ventricle and aorta

b)

right ventricle and aorta

c)

left ventricle and pulmonary artery

d)

right ventricle and pulmonary artery

13.

Deoxygenated blood returning to the heart will pass through the valves in which sequence

a)

L AV valve -> L semi lunar valve -> Rsemi lunar valve -> R AV valve

b)

R AV valve -> R semi lunar valve -> L semi lunar valve -> L AV valve

c)

L semi lunar valve -> L AV valve -> R AV valve -> R semi lunar valve

d)

R AV valve -> R semi lunar valve -> L AV valve -> L semi lunar valve

14.

select the correct sequence of the wave of excitation of the heart contraction

a)

SA node, purkinje fibers, AV node, bundle of his

b)

AV node, purkinje fibres, AV node, bundle of his

c)

SA node, AV node, bundle of his, purkinje fibres

d)

AV node, SA node, bundle of his, purkinje fibres

15.

what type of blood and main blood vessel the systemic and pulmonary circulatory systems are respectively

a)

oxygenated, pulmonary vein, deoxygenated, aorta

b)

deoxygenated, vena cava, oxygenated pulmonary vein

c)

oxygenated, aorta, deoxygenated, pulmonary artery

d)

deoxygenated, pulmonary artery, oxygenated vena cava

16.

stroke volume is...

a)

amount of blood pumped out of the heart per beat

b)

amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute

c)

product of heart rate times cardiac output

d)

number of times the heart beats per minute

17.

physiological adaptations resulting from regular, cardiovascular exercise may include

a)

increased stroke volume, decreased resting heart rate, decreased cardiac output

b)

increased stroke volume, increased resting heart rate, decreased cardiac output

c)

increased stroke volume, decreased resting heart rate, unchanged cardiac output

d)

decreased stroke volume, increased resting heart rate, unchanged cardiac output

18.

cardiovascular drift can be best described as

a)

an increase in heart rate to compensate for a drop in plasma volume

b)

an increase in plasma volume due to a drop In heart rate

c)

a decrease in heart rate due to a drop in plasma volume

d)

no change in cardiac output due to the steady state of exercise

19.

systolic and diastolic blood pressure refer to,

a)

contraction of heart, ventricular refilling

b)

ventricular refilling, contraction of the heart

c)

total pressure requires to contract the heart

d)

total time required to contract the heart

20.

during isometric (static) exercise, what will occur to the systolic and diastolic blood pressure

a)

Systolic - increase, Diastolic - remain the same

b)

systolic - increase, diastolic - increase

c)

systolic - remain the same, diastolic - remain the same

d)

systolic - remain the same, diastolic - increase

21.

which is a response that describes the redistribution of blood during exercise

a)

toward skeletal muscle

b)

towards vital organs

c)

towards the brain

d)

towards the kidneys

22.

which of the following is not an expected adaptation resulting from the endurance exercise

a)

increased ventricular volume

b)

increased stroke volume

c)

increased capillarization

d)

increased atrial volume

23.

what is systolic blood pressure

a)

the pressure at the brachial artery when the ventricles relax

b)

the pressure at the branchial artery when the ventricles contract

c)

the pressure at the brachial artery when the atria aid the filling of the ventricles

d)

the relationship between stroke volume and heart volume

24.

which of the following causes an increase in cardiac output during exercise

a)

an increase in stroke volume and an increase in heart rate

b)

a decrease in stroke volume and an increase In heart rate

c)

a decrease in stroke volume and a decrease in heart rate

d)

an increase in stroke volume and a decrease in heart rate

25.

what long term changes to the cardiovascular system will occur as a result of sustained aerobic training

a)

increases resting heart rate

b)

increased blood volume

c)

increased risk of cardiovascular disease

d)

reduced ventricular volume

26.

which part of the heart can the SA node be found in

a)

right atrium

b)

left atrium

c)

right ventricle

d)

left ventricle

27.

how is the vital capacity of the lungs best defined

a)

the volume of air inspired and expired at rest

b)

the volume of air which is inspired or expired in one minute

c)

the maximum amount of air that a person can expel from the lungs from a position of full inspiration

d)

the volume of air that can still be expired following normal expirations at rest

28.

calculate the residual volume, in liters for a person with a total lung volume of 6.0 L, a vital capacity of 4.6 L and an expiratory reserve volume of 1.2 L

a)

1.4 L

b)

3.4 L

c)

4.8 L

d)

11.8 L

29.

during inspiration the thoracic cavity would have a

a)

large volume and high pressure

b)

large volume and low pressure

c)

small volume and high pressure

d)

small volume and low pressure

30.

the molecule which controls red blood cell production and the molecule which controls breathing rate are

a)

oxygen and carbon monoxide

b)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

carbon and oxygen

31.

what is not an attribute of the alveolar conditions that assist with gases exchange

a)

large surface areas

b)

large valves

c)

large capillary networks

d)

walls one cell thick

32.

during inhalation (breathing in), what is the correct pathway taken by oxygen molecule

a)

trachea - bronchus - bronchioles - alveoli

b)

trachea - bronchioles - bronchus - trachea

c)

trachea - bronchus - alveoli - bronchioles

d)

alveoli - bronchioles - bronchus - trachea

33.

what term is given to the volume of air remaining in the lungs after an individual has exhaled as much as possible

a)

inspiratory reserve volume

b)

tidal volume

c)

expiratory reserve volume

d)

residual volume

34.

what is the maximal oxygen consumption

a)

the maximum amount of oxygen that can be breathed in and out

b)

the maximum volume of the lungs

c)

the maximum amount of oxygen that the body can utilize

d)

the relationship between the tidal volume and the rate of breathing

35.

what is the function of the conducting airways

a)

cool and moisten the air

b)

high resistance for air flow

c)

warm and moisten the air

d)

gaseous exchange

36.

what are the principle structures of the ventilatory systems

a)

nose, pharynx, bronchioles, diaphragm

b)

nose, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli

c)

mouth, larynx, lungs, diaphragm

d)

mouth, trachea, alveoli, ribs

37.

what type of muscle contraction involves no change in the muscle length

a)

isokinetic

b)

isometric

c)

concentric

d)

eccentric

38.

movement that increases the angle between articulating elements opening the joint

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

inversion

d)

eversion

39.

making circular motions

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

circumduction

d)

flexion

40.

muscle that works opposite to return the joint to its original position

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

both

d)

neither

41.

pain and stiffness felt in muscles the next day after working out is caused from

a)

lactic acid

b)

tearing of the muscle fibers

42.

which of following treatment method would be best for DOMS

a)

rigorous exercise

b)

heat

c)

foam roller

d)

none of the above

43.

which type of muscle contraction type is rare in sport

a)

isometric

b)

eccentric

c)

isotonic

d)

isokinetic

44.

refers to muscle action in which the muscles force yields to the imposed load

a)

eccentric

b)

beccentric

c)

concentric

d)

decentric

45.

which describes the movement of depression

a)

a movement at a joint towards the midline of the body

b)

movement at a joint in an inferior direction

c)

movement at a joint away from the midline of the body

d)

movement at a joint that would increase it's angles

46.

what is the opposite of supination

a)

progression

b)

pronation

c)

exaggeration

d)

flexion

47.

what are the 4 types of bones

a)

long, short, flat, irregular

b)

long, short, compact, spongy

c)

compact, spongy, flat, irregular

d)

flat, irregular, long, spongy

48.

what are the ends and the shaft of the long bones called

a)

foramen and medullary

b)

epiphysis and diaphysis

c)

diaphysis and foramen

d)

epiphysis and medullary

49.

what. best describes synovial joints

a)

they permit no movement

b)

they are freely moveable

c)

they are tightly connected by cartilage

d)

they permit only slight movement

50.

which movement characteristics apply to cartilaginous joints

a)

no observable movement

b)

allow for expansion of skull

c)

allow for a wide range of movement types

d)

slight movements between intervertebral discs

51.

which statement describes flat bones

a)

complex and varied in shape, such as the vertebrae

b)

the type of bones found in the skull and the shoulder blade

c)

bones that are longer than they are wide

d)

bones found in the wrist and ankle

52.

what fluid filled sacs are associated with certain synovial joints

a)

ligaments

b)

bursae

c)

articular capsule

d)

synovial membrane

53.

what types of joint is in the knee

a)

saddle joint

b)

pivot joint

c)

hinge joint

d)

gliding joint

54.

which of the following bones has the movement of the body as its main function

a)

fibula

b)

skull

c)

coccyx

d)

sternum

55.

what is the main function of the knee joint ligament

a)

to secrete synovial fluid

b)

to absorb shock

c)

to help with joint stability

d)

to provide a friction free environment

56.

what term is used for the point of attachment of the muscle tendon to stationary bone

a)

myofibril

b)

sarcomere

c)

origin

d)

insertion

57.

which of the following are characteristics of cardiac muscles

l. striated

ll. involuntary

lll. voluntary

a)

l and ll

b)

l and lll

c)

ll and lll

d)

l, ll and lll

58.

what is the function of the axial skeleton

a)

movement

b)

support

c)

protection

d)

B and C only

59.

ensuring a test does what it is suppose to is a measurement of

a)

accuracy

b)

specificity

c)

reliability

d)

validity

60.

a substance that mirrors the real substance under investigation and makes people believe they are taking the real thing best illustrates which aspect of experimental design

a)

control

b)

placebo

c)

randomization

d)

blind

61.

a subject has a variable level of motivation while completing multiple tests of the Cooper 12 min run. which aspect of experimental design is affected during the tests

a)

randomization

b)

blinding

c)

specificity

d)

reliability

62.

which describes the purpose of a physical activity readiness questionnaire

a)

to determine the intensity of the exercise

b)

to determine perceived exertion

c)

to determine readiness to engage in physical activity

d)

to determine attitude to exercise

63.

which of the following would be valid test for muscular endurance

a)

1 minute sit ups

b)

400 meter run

c)

standing board jump

d)

Harvard step test

64.

identify the fitness test designed to measure muscular power

a)

vertical jump

b)

Illinois

c)

hand ball toss

d)

plyometrics

65.

which fitness component is best described by the following definition: the ability to use strength quickly

a)

speed

b)

agility

c)

strength

d)

power

66.

not using a muscle group resulting in atrophy would be considered

a)

overload

b)

specificity

c)

periodization

d)

reversibility

67.

how is the Karvonen method best described

a)

a rating of perceived exertion

b)

a technique determining oxygen uptake

c)

an overload technique

d)

a way of monitoring exercise intensity

68.

what percentage of values is normally distributed within +-1 standard deviation of the mean

a)

65%

b)

98%

c)

95%

d)

68%

69.

what do error bars on a graph represent

a)

range

b)

variability

c)

coefficient

d)

significance

70.

100 athletes were timed running 800m. how many would be within the +- 2 standard deviations of the mean time

a)

68

b)

95

c)

65

d)

99

71.

what do error bars represent

a)

the value of the group mean

b)

a correlation between two variables

c)

the independent variable

d)

the standard deviation

72.

the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean expressed as a percentage is called

a)

coefficient of variation

b)

coefficient of deviation

c)

standard deviation

d)

standard coefficient

73.

which kind of test would you use to compare 1st hours test scores with 2nd hours test scores

a)

paired B test

b)

paired T test

c)

unpaired/independent T test

d)

unpaired/independent B best

74.

what is another name for the mean score

a)

average

b)

standard deviation

c)

mode

d)

middle

75.

a large error bar would represent what

a)

a small standard deviation

b)

a large standard deviation

c)

a small mean

d)

a large mean

76.

students of different grades were given the same test to measure cognitive awareness for concussion protocol. cognitive awareness was measured. what is the independent variable

a)

students

b)

cognitive awareness

c)

grade

d)

concussion protocol

77.

what pulls the actin filaments inwards to shorten a muscle

a)

ATP

b)

calcium ions

c)

myosin

d)

phosphate

78.

which part of the motor neuron is nearest to the muscle fibre it stimulates

a)

axon

b)

dendrite

c)

motor unit

d)

motor end plate

79.

An action potential travels through the muscle fibers down the T-tubules, and stimulates the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release what

a)

potassium

b)

sodium

c)

calcium

d)

ATP

80.

shortening/lengthening of sarcomere. Z lines move closer, I band, H zone decreases

a)

contraction

b)

extension

c)

isokinetic

d)

contradiction

81.

Attached to the myosin heads are a chemical called ________ that allows for the head to bend

a)

calcium

b)

sodium

c)

ATP

d)

Acetylcholine

82.

the neurotransmitters in the vesicle of the motor end plate that creates and "bridge" between the neuron and the muscle fiber (across the synapse) the chemical that initiates a muscle contraction opens channels in the t-tubules

a)

acetylcholine

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcolemma

d)

cholinesterase

83.

Carries message from the central nervous system to the muscle fiber

a)

cholinesterase

b)

axon

c)

H zone

d)

actin

84.

The area where there is both actin/myosin

a)

A band

b)

Z line

c)

H zone

d)

T line

85.

due to high concentrations of calcium, Ca+ binds to ________ and causes a shift of tropomyosin which prevents the blocking action of tropomyosin

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

troponin

d)

actin

86.

baseball and tennis reply mostly on this type of muscle fiber

a)

slow twitch

b)

fast twitch

c)

both

d)

neither