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Earth Science semester 1 final study guide

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 23hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the Moh's Hardness Scale. What could a mineral with a hardness of 7 (like quartz) scratch?

a)

orthoclase feldspar, but cannot scratch talc

b)

calcite, but cannot scratch apatite.

c)

topaz, but cannot scratch fluorite

d)

gypsum, but cannot scratch corundum

2.

Density is calculated by:

a)

multiplying its mass by its volume.

b)

dividing its mass by its volume.

c)

dividing its volume by its mass.

d)

adding together its volume and its mass.

3.

Which type of wave is represented by A?

a)

Surface waves

b)

P waves

c)

S waves

4.

Which type of wave is represented by C?

a)

Surface waves

b)

P waves

c)

S waves

5.

The below seismogram represents the P wave and S wave from an earthquake. What would the S-P interval be?

a)

350mm

b)

35s

c)

240mm

d)

90s

6.

Read the attached nomogram. What would the Richter magnitude of this earthquake be?

a)

630

b)

7.1

c)

100

d)

3.0

7.

Which wind belts are prevailing winds that blow from east to west between 60° and 90° latitude in both hemispheres?

a)

trade winds

b)

doldrums

c)

westerlies

d)

polar easterlies

8.

Which two elements make up the tetrahedron which composes the structure of all silicate minerals?

a)

Si and O

b)

N and O

c)

Si and N

d)

C and O

9.

Referring to this image, what would be occurring at point A on this rock cycle chart?

a)

heat and pressure

b)

cooling

c)

weathering and erosion

d)

compaction and cementation

10.

Which one of these features would be the OLDEST?

a)

A

b)

L

c)

K

d)

F

11.

Which one of these features would be the OLDEST?

a)

A

b)

L

c)

K

d)

F

12.

Which one of these features would be the YOUNGEST?

a)

A

b)

L

c)

K

d)

F

13.

If you begin with 300 grams of your parent isotope, the isotope has a half-life of 8,500 years, and 17,000 years pass by, how many grams of the parent would you be left with?

a)

600

b)

300

c)

150

d)

75

14.

The scientific study of Earth’s oceans.

a)

Oceanography

b)

Geology

c)

Earth Science

d)

Meteorology

e)

Astronomy

15.

The scientific study of the origin, history, and structure of Earth.

a)

Oceanography

b)

Geology

c)

Earth Science

d)

Meteorology

e)

Astronomy

16.

The scientific study of Earth’s atmosphere.

a)

Oceanography

b)

Geology

c)

Earth Science

d)

Meteorology

e)

Astronomy

17.

The scientific study of the universe beyond Earth.

a)

Oceanography

b)

Geology

c)

Earth Science

d)

Meteorology

e)

Astronomy

18.

The scientific study of Earth and its universe.

a)

Oceanography

b)

Geology

c)

Earth Science

d)

Meteorology

e)

Astronomy

19.

The thin and solid outermost layer of the Earth above the mantle.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Crust

c)

Core

d)

Lithosphere

e)

Mantle

20.

The solid, outer layer of Earth that consists of the crust and the rigid upper part of the mantle.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Crust

c)

Core

d)

Lithosphere

e)

Mantle

21.

The strong, lower part of the mantle between the asthenosphere and the outer core.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Crust

c)

Core

d)

Lithosphere

e)

Mantle

22.

The layer of rock between Earth’s crust and core.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Crust

c)

Core

d)

Lithosphere

e)

Mantle

23.

The central part of the Earth below the mantle.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Crust

c)

Core

d)

Lithosphere

e)

Mantle

24.

Any circle that runs east and west around the Earth.

a)

Meridian

b)

Parallel

c)

Latitude

d)

Longitude

e)

Great Circle

25.

Semicircle that runs pole to pole, measures how far north or south of equator you are.

a)

Meridian

b)

Parallel

c)

Latitude

d)

Longitude

e)

Great Circle

26.

Angular distance north or south of the equator.

a)

Meridian

b)

Parallel

c)

Latitude

d)

Longitude

e)

Great Circle

27.

A circle that divides the globe in half or marks its circumference.

a)

Meridian

b)

Parallel

c)

Latitude

d)

Longitude

e)

Great Circle

28.

Angular distance east or west of the prime meridian.

a)

Meridian

b)

Parallel

c)

Latitude

d)

Longitude

e)

Great Circle

29.

Negatively charged subatomic particle.

a)

Physical Properties

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Chemical Properties

e)

Neutron

30.

Characteristics that describe how a substance reacts with other substances to form new substances.

a)

Physical Properties

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Chemical Properties

e)

Neutron

31.

Characteristics that can be observed without changing the composition of the substance.

a)

Physical Properties

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Chemical Properties

e)

Neutron

32.

Subatomic particle without charge.

a)

Physical Properties

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Chemical Properties

e)

Neutron

33.

Positively charged subatomic particle.

a)

Physical Properties

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Chemical Properties

e)

Neutron

34.

The tendency of a mineral to break into irregular, uneven surfaces.

a)

Fracture

b)

Hardness

c)

Cleavage

d)

Luster

e)

Streak

35.

The tendency of a mineral to split to form smooth, flat surfaces.

a)

Fracture

b)

Hardness

c)

Cleavage

d)

Luster

e)

Streak

36.

The way a mineral’s surface reflects light.

a)

Fracture

b)

Hardness

c)

Cleavage

d)

Luster

e)

Streak

37.

The color of a mineral in powdered form.

a)

Fracture

b)

Hardness

c)

Cleavage

d)

Luster

e)

Streak

38.

The measure of the ability of a mineral to resist scratching.

a)

Fracture

b)

Hardness

c)

Cleavage

d)

Luster

e)

Streak

39.

Rock that forms when existing rock is altered by heat and pressure.

a)

Rock Cycle

b)

Sedimentary Rock

c)

Bowen’s Reaction Series

d)

Igneous Rock

e)

Metamorphic Rock

40.

Rock that forms when magma or molten rock cools and hardens.

a)

Rock Cycle

b)

Sedimentary Rock

c)

Bowen’s Reaction Series

d)

Igneous Rock

e)

Metamorphic Rock

41.

The series of processes in which rock forms, changes from one type to another, is destroyed, and forms again by geological processes.

a)

Rock Cycle

b)

Sedimentary Rock

c)

Bowen’s Reaction Series

d)

Igneous Rock

e)

Metamorphic Rock

42.

Rock that forms when deposits of dirt and rock are compacted and cemented.

a)

Rock Cycle

b)

Sedimentary Rock

c)

Bowen’s Reaction Series

d)

Igneous Rock

e)

Metamorphic Rock

43.

Plant material and other organic matter used as an energy source.

a)

Biomass

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Energy

d)

Wind Energy

e)

Solar Energy

44.

Electrical energy produced by the movement of air over Earth’s surface.

a)

Biomass

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Energy

d)

Wind Energy

e)

Solar Energy

45.

Energy received by Earth from the sun in the form of radiation.

a)

Biomass

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Energy

d)

Wind Energy

e)

Solar Energy

46.

Electrical energy produced by the flow of water.

a)

Biomass

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Energy

d)

Wind Energy

e)

Solar Energy

47.

Energy produced by heat within Earth.

a)

Biomass

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Hydroelectric Energy

d)

Wind Energy

e)

Solar Energy

48.

Two protons and two neutrons emitted by the nucleus.

a)

Varve

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radiocarbon Dating

d)

Alpha Decay

e)

Radiometric Dating

49.

Determining age through comparison of isotopes.

a)

Varve

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radiocarbon Dating

d)

Alpha Decay

e)

Radiometric Dating

50.

The time it takes for half of a sample of radioactive isotope to decay.

a)

Varve

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radiocarbon Dating

d)

Alpha Decay

e)

Radiometric Dating

51.

Using organic remains (the remains of carbon-based lifeforms) to date objects.

a)

Varve

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radiocarbon Dating

d)

Alpha Decay

e)

Radiometric Dating

52.

Banded layers of sediment deposited annually.

a)

Varve

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radiocarbon Dating

d)

Alpha Decay

e)

Radiometric Dating

53.

Magnetic field that points south.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

c)

Reversed Polarity

d)

Continental Drift

e)

Sea-Floor Spreading

54.

Hypothesis that continents were once joined and then broke apart.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

c)

Reversed Polarity

d)

Continental Drift

e)

Sea-Floor Spreading

55.

Process by which new ocean lithosphere forms.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

c)

Reversed Polarity

d)

Continental Drift

e)

Sea-Floor Spreading

56.

Single landmass once formed by the continents.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

c)

Reversed Polarity

d)

Continental Drift

e)

Sea-Floor Spreading

57.

Displays earthquake motion recorded by a seismograph.

a)

Richter Scale

b)

Seismograph

c)

Moment Magnitude

d)

Seismogram

e)

Modified Mercalli Scale

58.

Measures intensity.

a)

Richter Scale

b)

Seismograph

c)

Moment Magnitude

d)

Seismogram

e)

Modified Mercalli Scale

59.

Measures magnitude using ground motion.

a)

Richter Scale

b)

Seismograph

c)

Moment Magnitude

d)

Seismogram

e)

Modified Mercalli Scale

60.

Machine or instrument which records ground vibrations.

a)

Richter Scale

b)

Seismograph

c)

Moment Magnitude

d)

Seismogram

e)

Modified Mercalli Scale

61.

Unit of measurement that equals approximately 150 million km.

a)

Light-Year

b)

Astronomical Unit

c)

Big Bang

d)

Reflecting Telescope

e)

Refracting Telescope

62.

Instrument used by Galileo to see craters on the moon for the first time, uses only lenses.

a)

Light-Year

b)

Astronomical Unit

c)

Big Bang

d)

Reflecting Telescope

e)

Refracting Telescope

63.

Event with which the universe began.

a)

Light-Year

b)

Astronomical Unit

c)

Big Bang

d)

Reflecting Telescope

e)

Refracting Telescope

64.

Unit that equals 9.4607 × 1012 km, the distance that light travels in one year.

a)

Light-Year

b)

Astronomical Unit

c)

Big Bang

d)

Reflecting Telescope

e)

Refracting Telescope

65.

Instrument invented by Isaac Newton to solve the problem of color separation, also uses mirrors.

a)

Light-Year

b)

Astronomical Unit

c)

Big Bang

d)

Reflecting Telescope

e)

Refracting Telescope

66.

The process that caused early Earth to form three distinct layers.

a)

Solar Nebula

b)

Planetesimal

c)

Differentiation

d)

Outgassing

67.

A small body from which a planet originated in the solar system’s early development.

a)

Solar Nebula

b)

Planetesimal

c)

Differentiation

d)

Outgassing

68.

A rotating cloud of gas and dust that gave rise to Earth’s solar system.

a)

Solar Nebula

b)

Planetesimal

c)

Differentiation

d)

Outgassing

69.

The process responsible for forming Earth’s early atmosphere.

a)

Solar Nebula

b)

Planetesimal

c)

Differentiation

d)

Outgassing

70.

The balance point of the Earth-moon system.

a)

Barycenter

b)

Lunar Eclipse

c)

Solar Eclipse

d)

Apogee

e)

Perigee

71.

The point at which a satellite is nearest to Earth in its orbit around Earth.

a)

Barycenter

b)

Lunar Eclipse

c)

Solar Eclipse

d)

Apogee

e)

Perigee

72.

An event in which the moon’s shadow falls on Earth when the moon passes between Earth and the sun.

a)

Barycenter

b)

Lunar Eclipse

c)

Solar Eclipse

d)

Apogee

e)

Perigee

73.

The point at which a satellite is farthest from Earth in its orbit around Earth.

a)

Barycenter

b)

Lunar Eclipse

c)

Solar Eclipse

d)

Apogee

e)

Perigee

74.

The passing of the moon through Earth’s shadow at full moon.

a)

Barycenter

b)

Lunar Eclipse

c)

Solar Eclipse

d)

Apogee

e)

Perigee

75.

This bullseye is:

a)

accurate

b)

precise

c)

accurate and precise

d)

neither

76.

This bullseye is:

a)

accurate

b)

precise

c)

accurate and precise

d)

neither

77.

This bullseye is:

a)

accurate

b)

precise

c)

accurate and precise

d)

neither

78.

This location is at which letter? (Type the letter only, upper or lowercase.) 15°N, 45°W

(a)  

79.

This location is at which letter? (Type the letter only, upper or lowercase.) 60°S, 120°W

(a)  

80.

This location is at which letter? (Type the letter only, upper or lowercase.) 30°S, 0°E

(a)  

81.

Would MgO, magnesium oxide, which is made of magnesium and oxygen, have an ionic or covalent bond?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

82.

Which particle(s) are in the atom are in the NUCLEUS? (Select ALL that apply.)

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

83.

How many PROTONS would this atom of beryllium have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

2

84.

How many NEUTRONS would this atom of beryllium have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

2

85.

How many ELECTRONS would this atom of beryllium have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

2

86.

How many PROTONS would this atom of chlorine have?

a)

18

b)

17

c)

19

d)

-1

87.

How many NEUTRONS would this atom of chlorine have?

a)

18

b)

17

c)

19

d)

-1

88.

How many ELECTRONS would this atom of chlorine have?

a)

18

b)

17

c)

19

d)

-1

89.

How many valence electrons would lithium (Li) have?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

8

d)

1

90.

How many valence electrons would neon (Ne) have?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

8

d)

1