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CP Biology Final Review

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The function of red blood cells is to carry oxygen from one place to another. What molecule is responsible for carrying oxygen?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Cilia

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Mitochondria

2.

A structure formed 5 days after conception with a distinctive our layer and inner layer is called

a)

A zygote

b)

A somatic cell

c)

An embryo

d)

A blastocyst

3.

Another term for a fertilized egg

a)

baby

b)

embryo

c)

stem cells

d)

fetus

4.

What is the process of cell specialization called?

a)

Proliferation

b)

Morula

c)

Differentiation

d)

Blastocyst

5.

The name of the part labelled “A” in the drawing of the blastocyst

a)

Blastocysts cavity

b)

Embryo

c)

Inner cell mass

d)

Somatic stem cells

6.

Where can scientists obtain stem cells?

a)

Only from an embryo

b)

Only from the brain

c)

Only from tissues in the body

d)

From an embryo or tissues in the body

7.

What is a stem cell?

a)

A cell only found in the stem of plants.

b)

An unspecialized cell with the ability to create specialized cells

c)

A specialized cell who can only generate cells of the same type

d)

A specialized cell like a red blood cell or neuron

8.

What is the relationship between nucleic acids and nucleotides?

a)

nucleic acids make up nucleotides

b)

nucleotides make up nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides are made up of a base, sugar, and phosphate group and nucleic acids are made up of a base, phosphate group, and DNA polymerase

d)

Nothing, they are the same thing

9.

The strong bonds that hold nucleotides together in the same strand of DNA are called

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic Bonds

c)

Hydrogen Bonds

d)

It is a combination of covalent and hydrogen bonds

10.

Which of the following could make up one nucleotide found in DNA?

a)

Base + phosphate group + thymine

b)

cytosine + phosphate group + guanine

c)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase

d)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + nitrogenous base

11.

During DNA replication, what enzyme unzips the DNA?

a)

Helicase

b)

Lactase

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

DNA Polymerase

12.

During DNA replication, what enzyme uses the old strand as a template to use base pairing and make a complementary strand?

a)

Helicase

b)

Lactase

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

DNA Polymerase

13.

DNA is antiparallel, what does that mean?

a)

It is made up of smaller units that bond together to make one large macromolecule

b)

They are not exact copies, but you can use one strand to make the other

c)

The strands run in opposite directions (the phosphate is up one side and down on the other)

d)

When the two strands bond together, they form a double helix

14.

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

a)

TCGAAC

b)

AGCTTG

c)

GATCCA

d)

GUACCA

15.

Using the Double Helix Model to the right,, what does number 11 represent?

a)

A base Pair

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

A phosphate Group

d)

A nucleotide

16.

Using the double helix model to the right, what does number 12 represent?

a)

A base pair

b)

Hydrogen Bond

c)

Covalent Bond

d)

A nucleotide

17.

What is produced during transcription?

a)

RNA molecules

b)

DNA molecules

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Proteins

18.

How many bases are used to form a codon?

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Hundreds

d)

Thousands

19.

Genes contain instructions for assembling

a)

nucleotides

b)

proteins

c)

phosphate groups

d)

amino acids

20.

What happens during translation?

a)

messenger RNA is made from a DNA code?

b)

the cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins

c)

transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code

d)

copies of DNA molecules are made

21.

Which molecules are involved during protein synthesis?

a)

transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens

b)

messenger RNA, introns, and ribosomal RNA

c)

ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mutagens

d)

messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA

22.

Cross-Pollination is a form of

a)

Self-pollination

b)

Asexual reproduction

c)

Sexual reproduction

d)

Differentiation

23.
If an individual shows a recessive phenotype then the only genotype they can be is....
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
heterozygous
c)
homozygous recessive
d)
you can't tell
24.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; physical appearance.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
25.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
26.
The passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
27.
An allele whose trait always shows up in the organism when the allele is present.
a)
recessive allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
hidden allele
d)
present allele
28.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
29.
A human usually has _____ total chromosomes.
a)
6
b)
22
c)
4
d)
46
30.
Having two of the same genes for the trait (TT, tt); Both dominant or both recessive.
a)
homozygous or purebred
b)
heterozygous or hybrid
c)
twin offspring
d)
pairs of chromosomes
31.
Which of the following is NOT a genotype?
a)
heterozygous
b)
a trait
c)
Bb
d)
homozygous recessive
32.

Mendel’s idea that some alleles are dominant and others are recessive is called

a)

Differentiation

b)

Principle of dominance

c)

Fertilization

d)

Law of Segregation

33.

If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents?

a)

Both parents were tall

b)

Both parents were short

c)

Both parents contributed a recessive allele

d)

Both parents contributed a dominant allele

34.

Different forms of a gene distributed to offspring through a process called

a)

Differentiation

b)

Principle of Dominance

c)

Fertilization

d)

Law of Segregation

35.

What happens to chromosome number during meiosis?

a)

it doubles

b)

it halves

c)

it stays the same

d)

it becomes diploid

36.

A cell that contains 1 set of chromosomes (n) is called

a)

Diploid

b)

haploid

c)

allele

d)

singular

37.

Chromosomes that control the same inherited traits are called

a)

homozygous chromosomes

b)

homologous chromosomes

c)

heterozygous chromosomes

d)

heterologous chromosomes

38.

A human body cell is

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

allele

d)

singular

39.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

polygenic traits

d)

multiple alleles

40.

What is being shown in Figure 11 - 1?

a)

independent assortment

b)

diploid homozygous chromosomes

c)

Crossing-over

d)

Law of segregation

41.

What is formed at the end of meiosis?

a)

two identical diploid cells

b)

two identical haploid cells

c)

four non-identical haploid cells

d)

four non-identical diploid cells

42.

The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the

a)

more likely they are to be inherited together

b)

more likely they are to be separated by crossing over and be linked

c)

less likely they are to assort independently

d)

less likely they are to be separated by crossing over

43.

A true-breeding red flower is crossed with a true-breeding white flower. All offspring appear pink. This is an example of

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Polygenic trait

44.

DNA that is created by joining together of DNA molecules from two different species is called

a)

Clone

b)

Recombinant DNA

c)

Therapeutic DNA

d)

Zombie DNA

45.

Figure 14.1 Human Chromosomes, is called a(n)

a)

Autosome

b)

Hybrid

c)

Karyotype

d)

Chromosome

46.

how many chromosomes are in your body (somatic) cells?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

23

d)

46

47.

how many chromosomes are in human gametes?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

23

d)

46

48.

A homozygous black chicken is crossed with a homozygous white chicken. All offspring a speckled black and white chickens. This is an example of

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Codominance

d)

Polygenic trait

49.

There are more than three versions of the human blood gene, A, B, and O. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Polygenic trait

50.

What gamete possibilities could come from a parent with the genotype AaBB?

a)

AB, AB, aB, aB

b)

Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab

c)

Ab, AB, Ab, ab

d)

AB, aB, ab, aB

51.

If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?

a)

codominant trait

b)

sex-linked trait

c)

polygenic trait

d)

incomplete dominance

52.

Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because the allele for colorblindness is

a)

dominant and located on the X chromosome

b)

recessive and located on the Y chromosome.

c)

recessive and located on the X chromosome.

d)

recessive and located on the Y chromosome.

53.

In a pedigree, such as the one in Figure 14–4, a circle represents a(an)

a)

male

b)

child

c)

female

d)

adult

54.

Recessive traits, like that shown in Figure 14-4,

a)

Show up much more frequently in males

b)

Show up more frequently in females

c)

Show up in every generation

d)

Often skip generations

55.

What do the half circles in recessive pedigrees, like the one shown in Figure 14-4 represent?

a)

People who are homozygous dominant

b)

People who are homozygous recessive and have the trait being followed

c)

People who do not have the trait being followed but carry the allele for it

d)

People who do have the trait being followed

56.

he trait in pedigree in Figure 14–5 has two alleles: P (dominant) and p (recessive). The black symbols show the dominant phenotype, and the white symbols show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of individual number 1?

a)

Pp

b)

PP

c)

P

d)

p

57.

How many generations are shown in the pedigree in Figure 14–5?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

58.

Dominant traits, like that shown in Figure 14-5,

a)

Show up more frequently in males

b)

Show up more frequently in females

c)

Show up in every generation

d)

Often skip generations

59.

For the pedigree in Figure 14–6, shaded symbols represent afflicted people. Males are squares; women are circles. If the trait is a sex-linked trait carried on the X chromosome, what is true about the mother represented by circle 1?

a)

She has two alleles for the disorder.

b)

She has one allele for the disorder.

c)

She has no alleles for the disorder.

d)

She has the genotype XXY.

60.

Sex linked traits, like the one shown in Figure 14-6. Appear more frequently in

a)

females

b)

males

c)

children

d)

the first generation

61.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection?

a)

competition for food and space

b)

variation among species

c)

inheritance of acquired characteristics

d)

survival and reproduction

62.

The variation of coat color in rodents is an example of

a)

genetic diversity

b)

selective pressure

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

Increased chance of survival

63.

When farmers breed organisms for traits they like best, like sweetest fruit and fastest horses, this is known as

a)

Fitness

b)

Survival of the fittest

c)

Artificial selection

d)

Genetic Engineering

64.

Antibiotics are powerful medicines that help fight

a)

Viruses

b)

Fungus

c)

Bacteria

d)

All microbes

65.

Two organisms that are closely related would have

a)

very similar DNA sequence

b)

no proteins in common

c)

exactly the same DNA sequences

d)

completely different DNA sequence

66.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a)

Variation between individuals in the population

b)

Traits are passed down from parents to offspring

c)

The largest and fastest organisms survive

d)

More organisms are born than can survive

67.

According to the theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a)

Characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse

b)

Characteristics that plant and animal breeders value

c)

The greatest number of offspring

d)

Variations best suited for environmental conditions

68.

How does natural selection contribute to the theory of evolution?

a)

Over time, natural selection results

b)

Natural selection selects for the same animals every time

c)

Over time, natural selection changes the frequency of certain variations in the population

d)

Natural selection gives organisms what they need, so they can survive and evolve

69.

A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?

a)

Behavioral isolation

b)

Gametic isolation

c)

Temporal isolation

d)

Geographic isolation

70.

The fossil record shows

a)

Most species have not evolved

b)

Some species are “in between” major groups of organisms

c)

All species are today just as they were when they were created

d)

A complete record of all life that has ever existed on Earth

71.

Molecular evidence in support of natural selection includes

a)

The nearly universal genetic code

b)

The presence of vestigial structures

c)

A tendency toward perfect, unchanging DNA in various species

d)

The transmission of acquired characteristics by DNA

72.

What part of the brain connects the nervous system to the endocrine system?

a)

Adrenal Gland

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Pituitary gland

73.

What are hormones?

a)

electrical signals that go between glands

b)

chemical signals that go between neurons

c)

chemical messengers in the blood

d)

chemicals involved in DNA replication and transcription

74.

What is blood pressure?

a)

The amount of times the heart beats in one minute

b)

The force of blood on the veins

c)

The force of blood on the arteries

d)

The force of blood on the heart

75.

Why are feedback mechanisms important to the human body?

a)

Maintain homeostasis

b)

Regulate the shape of molecules involved in cellular communication

c)

Increase nutrient absorption

d)

Decrease heart and breathing rates

76.

Cortisol exerts a negative feedback on the HPA-axis because

a)

It causes a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure, which is the opposite effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

It causes the adrenal glands to produce more epinephrine, which causes the HPA axis to increase

c)

It tells the nervous system to stop producing hormones and thus stops the HPA axis.

d)

It causes the hypothalamus to stop producing corticotropin releasing hormone, thus stopping the HPA axis

77.

The process of replacing missing or defective genes with healthy ones to cure disease

a)

Differentation

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Transgenic

78.

An organism who has DNA from two different organisms in it

a)

Transgenic

b)

Homozygous

c)

Recessive

d)

Speciation

79.

Choose all that apply to Meiosis

a)

makes gametes

b)

form of asexual reproduction

c)

has 2 cell divisions

d)

makes 2 cells

e)

crossover occurs

80.

Choose all that apply to meiosis

a)

starts diploid

b)

ends haploid

c)

ends with genetically identical daughter cells

d)

makes body cells

81.

Choose all that apply to mitosis

a)

starts diploid

b)

ends haploid

c)

ends with genetically identical daughter cells

d)

makes body cells

82.

Choose all that apply to Mitosis

a)

makes gametes

b)

form of asexual reproduction

c)

has 2 cell divisions

d)

makes 2 cells

e)

crossover occurs