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Chem Midterm

Total questions: 177

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1 mL=

a)

1 cm3

b)

1 mL3

c)

1 in3

d)

1 mm3

2.

Density of water

a)

1 g/mL

b)

1 g/cm

c)

1 g/L

d)

1 g/gal

3.

tera (T)=

a)

1012

b)

109

c)

10-12

d)

106

4.

giga (G)=

a)

109

b)

106

c)

10-6

d)

103

5.

mega (M)=

a)

106

b)

102

c)

103

d)

109

6.

kilo (k)=

a)

103

b)

102

c)

105

d)

10-1

7.

hecto (h)=

a)

102

b)

103

c)

10-2

d)

106

8.

deka (da)

a)

101

b)

10-1

c)

102

d)

10-3

9.

deci (d)=

a)

10-1

b)

101

c)

102

d)

10-6

10.

centi (c)=

a)

10-2

b)

102

c)

10-3

d)

10-1

11.

milli (m)=

a)

10-3

b)

103

c)

102

d)

106

12.

micro (μ)=

a)

10-6

b)

10-8

c)

10-9

d)

10-12

13.

nano (n)=

a)

10-9

b)

10-10

c)

10-12

d)

10-6

14.

pico (p)=

a)

10-12

b)

1010

c)

10-10

d)

109

15.

What is chemistry?

a)

Study of matter and its interactions

b)

Study of chemicals

c)

Study of precise measurements

d)

Study of reptiles

16.

Which temperature scale starts at the point called absolute zero?

a)

Kelvin

b)

Celsius

c)

Farenheight

d)

Metric

17.

0°C=

a)

30°F

b)

273 K

c)

270 K

d)

32 K

18.

Which is the formula to convert between Celsius and Kelvin?

a)

°C + 273.15 = K

b)

273.15(°C) = K

c)

°C - 273.15 = K

d)

(9/5)(°C) + 273.15 = K

19.

Which is the formula to convert between Fahrenheit and Celsius?

a)

°F = (9/5)(°C) + 273.15

b)

(9/5)(°C) + 32 = °F

c)

(5/9)(°C) + 32 = °F

d)

°C = (9/5)(°F) + 32

20.

25°C= ?K

a)

298.15 K

b)

273.15 K

c)

415 K

d)

-54.22 K

21.

-54°C= ?°F

a)

32°F

b)

-66°F

c)

-65.2°F

d)

-37°F

22.

The temperature scale also known as Systeme Internationale (SI) is

a)

Celsuis scale

b)

Kelvin scale

c)

Fahrenheit scale

d)

Metric scale

23.

What is the volume of a cube with an edge length of 0.563 nm in nm3?

a)

0.178 nm3

b)

0.180 nm3

c)

1.785 nm3

d)

1.79 nm3

24.

The length of a block is 2.54 in. Student B measures the length of the block 3 times and gets measurements of 2.96 in, 2.22 in, and 2.61 in. Student B gets measurements of 2.72 in, 2.68, and 2.69 in. Which student is more accurate?

a)

Student A

b)

Student B

c)

Neither of them

d)

They are equally accurate

25.

Calculate the volume of 65.0 g of liquid methanol if its density is 0.791 g/mL.

a)

82.2 mL

b)

82.2 g

c)

51.4 mL

d)

64.2 mL

26.

Will a substance with a mass of 39.73 g and a volume of 25.0 mL float on water?

a)

No

b)

Yes

27.

Which phase of matter has the least energy?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

28.

Which of the following is NOT a physical property?

a)

Color

b)

Mass

c)

Melting Point

d)

Flammability

29.

Which of the following is NOT a physical change?

a)

Breaking

b)

Phase change

c)

Dissolving

d)

Rusting

30.

Which of the following is NOT evidence of a chemical change?

a)

Color change

b)

Gas formation

c)

Precipitate formed

d)

Change in size

31.

A(n) ___________ property depends on the amount of matter in a sample

a)

Intensive

b)

Extensive

c)

Chemical

d)

Atomic

32.

Which of the following is NOT an extensive property?

a)

Density

b)

Mass

c)

Volume

d)

Height

33.

Which of the following is NOT an intensive property?

a)

Length

b)

Density

c)

Color

d)

Conductivity

34.

Phase change solid to liquid

a)

Melting

b)

Freezing

c)

Sublimation

d)

Boiling

35.

Phase change liquid to gas

a)

Evaporation

b)

Sublimation

c)

Deposition

d)

Melting

36.

Phase change gas to solid

a)

Deposition

b)

Sublimation

c)

Freezing

d)

Condensation

37.

Phase change solid to gas

a)

Sublimation

b)

Deposition

c)

Evaporation

d)

Condensation

38.

Phase change gas to liquid

a)

Condensation

b)

Deposition

c)

Melting

d)

Sublimation

39.

Phase change liquid to solid

a)

Freezing

b)

Deposition

c)

Melting

d)

Condensation

40.

Which phase of matter does NOT have a fixed volume?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

41.

Salad dressing is an example of a

a)

Suspension

b)

Colloid

c)

Solution

d)

Homogenous Mixture

42.

Salt water is an example of a

a)

Homogenous mixture

b)

Heterogeneous mixture

c)

Compound

d)

Alloy

43.

Water is an example of a

a)

Solvent

b)

Allotrope

c)

Colloid

d)

Solute

44.

Forms of an element with different structures and properties

a)

Allotropes

b)

Isomers

c)

Alloys

d)

Compounds

45.

2 or more compounds with the same formula but different structures

a)

Isomers

b)

Allotropes

c)

Alloys

d)

Colloids

46.

Mixture where particles don't scatter light

a)

Colloid

b)

Suspension

c)

Compound

d)

Solvent

47.

Which of the following can be separated by physical changes?

a)

Mixtures

b)

Compounds

c)

Nuclei

d)

Diatomic molecules

48.

Compounds have __________ properties, but mixtures don't.

a)

New

b)

Physical

c)

Chemical

d)

Radioactive

49.

Who published the first periodic table?

a)

Mendeleev

b)

Moseley

c)

Bohr

d)

Chadwick

50.

What was Dmitri Mendeleev's periodic table organized by?

a)

Atomic mass

b)

Atomic number

c)

Charge as an ion

d)

Electronegativity

51.

Who created the modern periodic table organized by atomic number?

a)

Moseley

b)

Mendeleev

c)

Rutherford

d)

Moore

52.

What are the rows on the periodic table called?

a)

Periods

b)

Families

c)

Groups

d)

Blocks

53.

The columns on the periodic table are called _____________ or _____________.

a)

families; groups

b)

families; periods

c)

groups; periods

d)

blocks; periods

54.

Electrons in the same group on the periodic table have similar properties because they have the same number of ____________.

a)

valence electrons

b)

isotopes

c)

electrons

d)

isomers

55.

What is the name of group 1 on the periodic table?

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Alkaline Earth Metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Alkanes

56.

What is the name of group 2 on the periodic table?

a)

Alkaline Earth Metals

b)

Alkanes

c)

Alkenes

d)

Alkali Metals

57.

What is the name of groups 3-12 on the periodic table?

a)

Transition Metals

b)

Metalloids

c)

Halogens

d)

Alkali Metals

58.

What is the name of group 17 on the periodic table?

a)

Halogens

b)

Noble Gases

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Oxygen Family

59.

What is the name of group 18 on the periodic table?

a)

Halogens

b)

Noble Gases

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Royal Gases

60.

Which group on the periodic table contains soft, highly reactive metals?

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Alkaline Earth Metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Alkanes

61.

Which of the following is NOT a solid at room temperature?

a)

K

b)

P

c)

Br

d)

I

62.

What is the mnemonic to remember the diatomic molecules?

a)

HOFBrINCl

b)

HOFBrICK

c)

BrONCl

d)

HeFBrINCl

63.

What does the Z in Zeff stand for?

a)

Number of protons

b)

Shielding

c)

Number of energy levels

d)

Number of electrons

64.

What is the general trend across a period on the periodic table (left to right)?

a)

More protons; higher Zeff

b)

More energy levels; higher Zeff

c)

Less energy levels; lower Zeff

d)

More protons; lower Zeff

65.

What is the general trend down a group on the periodic table?

a)

More energy levels; lower Zeff

b)

More energy levels; higher Zeff

c)

Less energy levels; lower Zeff

d)

More protons; higher Zeff

66.

Ability to attract electrons in a chemical bond

a)

Electronegativity

b)

Electron affinity

c)

Nuclear charge

d)

Ionization energy

67.

Energy change when an electron is added to an atom

a)

Electronegativity

b)

Electron affinity

c)

Ionization energy

d)

Zeff

68.

What is the formula for electron affinity?

a)

X(g) + e- --> X-1(g)

b)

Z minus shielding

c)

X(g) --> e- + X(g)+1

d)

X+1(g) --> e- + X+2(g)

69.

What is the formula for first ionization energy?

a)

X(g) --> e- + X+1(g)

b)

X+1(g) --> e- + X+2(g)

c)

X(g) + e- --> X-1(g)

d)

2n + 2

70.

Which element has the smallest atomic radius?

a)

H

b)

He

c)

Fr

d)

Li

71.

Which corner of the periodic table has the most negative electron affinity?

a)

Top right

b)

Top left

c)

Bottom right

d)

Bottom left

72.

Amount of energy required to remove the highest energy electron from an atom

a)

Ionization energy

b)

Electronegativity

c)

Electron affinity

d)

Zeff

73.

Which group has a positive electron affinity (energy is required)?

a)

Noble gases

b)

Transition metals

c)

Alkali metals

d)

Non-metals

74.

What is the structure of ionic compounds?

a)

Crystal lattice

b)

"Sea of electrons"

c)

Molecules

d)

Rings

75.

What type of bond is made by a metal and a non-metal?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Metallic bond

d)

Hydrogen bond

76.

In an ionic bond, the metal is the ________

a)

cation

b)

anion

c)

electron reciever

d)

larger atom

77.

A covalent bond is created when the electronegativity difference is ____ 1.7

a)

<

b)

>

c)

≤

d)

≥

78.

Which type of compound is the most brittle?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

d)

Hydrogen

79.

What is a formula unit (ionic bonds)?

a)

Ratio of ions

b)

Elements involved in the compound

c)

Size of the crystal lattice

d)

Charge of the compound

80.

Which type of compound is formed by a "sea of electrons"?

a)

Metallic bond

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Covalent bond

d)

Electronegative bond

81.

When writing the formula of a covalent compound, you write the ____________ first.

a)

least electronegative

b)

most electronegative

c)

largest

d)

smallest

82.

What is bond order?

a)

The number of pairs of electrons in the bond

b)

The number of valence electrons needed for an element to have a full valence shell

c)

The number of resonance structures

d)

The average formal charge in all of the resonance structures

83.

How many valence electrons does Be need to have a full shell?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

2

d)

8

84.

How many valence electrons does B need to have a full shell?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

2

d)

8

85.

How many valence electrons does Ba need to have a full shell?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

7

d)

8

86.

Which sections on the periodic table can hold more than 8 valence electrons?

a)

Periods 3-7

b)

Groups 13-18

c)

Noble Gases

d)

Periods 1-3

87.

What happens if there are an odd number of electrons in a covalent compound?

a)

The less electronegative element will end up with 7 valence electrons

b)

The more electronegative element will end up with 7 valence electrons

c)

These compounds do not form in nature

d)

Two atoms will form an extra double bond

88.

You want the formal charges in a compound to be as close to _____ as possible.

a)

0

b)

8

c)

4

d)

-4

89.

_____________ generally only make single bonds.

a)

Halogens

b)

Noble gases

c)

Alkali metals

d)

Transition metals

90.

What is the steric number of a molecule?

a)

Number of bonded atoms + number of lone pairs

b)

Number of bonded atoms - number of lone pairs

c)

Number of lone pairs/number of bonded atoms

d)

Number of double bonds

91.

What is the shape of a molecule with 4 bonded atoms, 0 lone pairs?

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Trigonal planar

d)

Octahedral

92.

What is the shape of a molecule with 2 bonded atoms, 2 lone pairs?

a)

Bent

b)

See-saw

c)

Linear

d)

T-shape

93.

What is the shape of a molecule with 4 bonded atoms, 1 lone pair?

a)

See-saw

b)

T-shape

c)

Square pyramidal

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

94.

What is the shape of a molecule with 5 bonded atoms, 1 lone pair?

a)

Square pyramidal

b)

Square bipyramidal

c)

See-saw

d)

T-shape

95.

What is the shape of a molecule with 3 bonded atoms, 2 lone pairs?

a)

T-shape

b)

Bent

c)

See-saw

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

96.

What is the shape of a molecule with 2 bonded atoms, 4 lone pairs?

a)

Linear

b)

Bent

c)

See-saw

d)

Octahedral

97.

What is the strongest intermolecular force?

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

Dipole-dipole interactions

c)

London dispersion forces

d)

Crystal lattice

98.

What is the weakest intermolecular force?

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

Dipole-dipole interactions

c)

London dispersion forces

d)

Crystal lattice

99.

If a molecule is completely symmetrical, it is ___________

a)

polar

b)

non-polar

c)

tetrahedral

d)

able to make hydrogen bonds

100.

Non-polar molecules man only interact with other molecules by ________________.

a)

london dispersion forces

b)

hydrogen bonding

c)

dipole-dipole interactions

d)

it can't

101.

What type of radioactive decay is used when an atom has too many neutrons?

a)

β-particle production

b)

positron production

c)

electron capture

d)

α-particle production

102.

What type of radioactive decay is used when an atom has too many protons?

a)

β-particle production

b)

positron production

c)

electron capture

d)

α-particle production

103.

Which type of radioactive decay is represented by: ¹⁵₈O + ⁰₋₁e --> ¹⁵₇N

a)

Electron capture

b)

Positron production

c)

β-particle production

d)

Gamma ray production

104.

Which type of radioactive decay is represented by: ²⁴²₉₄Pu --> ⁴₂He + ²³⁸₉₂U

a)

Alpha particle production

b)

Beta particle production

c)

Gamma ray production

d)

Positron production

105.

Which type of radioactive decay does not involve transmutation?

a)

α-particle production

b)

β-particle production

c)

γ-ray production

d)

electron capture

106.

Physical or chemical property: malleability

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

107.

Physical or chemical property: luster

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

108.

Physical or chemical property: magnetism

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

109.

Physical or chemical property: supports combustion

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

110.

Physical or chemical property: an apple turns brown when its skin is broken

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

111.

Physical or chemical change: solid sodium hydroxide dissolves in water

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

112.

Physical or chemical change: wood is rotting

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

113.

Physical or chemical change: grass is growing on a lawn

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

114.

Which mixture separation technique is used to separate compounds based on boiling points?

a)

Distillation

b)

Filtration

c)

Chromatography

d)

Centrifugation

115.

Chromatography is used to separate

a)

Compounds based on polarity

b)

Insoluble solids vs. solution

c)

Compounds based on boiling points

d)

Atoms by nuclear fusion

116.

Which two separation techniques are used to separated insoluble solids from a solution? (ex. mud from water)

a)

Filtration, Distillation

b)

Filtration, Centrifugation

c)

Centrifugation, Distillation

d)

Distillation, Chromatography

117.

Which mixture separation technique would you use to separate blue and red food coloring?

a)

Distillation

b)

Chromatography

c)

Centrifugation

d)

Filtration

118.

What is vapor pressure?

a)

The pressure exerted by gas in equilibrium with a liquid in a closed system

b)

The amount of energy required for a chemical change to occur

c)

The pressure exerted by electrons in equilibrium with protons in an atom

d)

The temperature of a pot of boiling water

119.

The equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid ___________ as temperature ____________.

a)

increases; increases

b)

increases; decreases

c)

decreases; increases

d)

decreases; decreases

120.

The boiling point of a substance at ______________ is called the "normal boiling point" of the substance

a)

1 atm

b)

100 atm

c)

120 °C

d)

100 °F

121.

Name the element: Br

a)

Bromine

b)

Boron

c)

Barium

d)

Beryllium

122.

Name the element: Cr

a)

Chromium

b)

Cobalt

c)

Chromine

d)

Chlorine

123.

Name the element: Ar

a)

Gold

b)

Argon

c)

Arsenic

d)

Silver

124.

Name the element: Si

a)

Silicon

b)

Sulfur

c)

Strontium

d)

Selenium

125.

Name the element: Sb

a)

Antimony

b)

Tin

c)

Strontium

d)

Bismuth

126.

Name the symbol: Mercury

a)

Hg

b)

He

c)

Sb

d)

Sg

127.

Name the symbol: Manganese

a)

Mn

b)

Mg

c)

Na

d)

Me

128.

Name the symbol: Tin

a)

Sn

b)

Sb

c)

Ti

d)

Tn

129.

Name the symbol: Tungsten

a)

T

b)

W

c)

Tu

d)

Ti

130.

What is the formula for the mass number of an element?

a)

protons + neutrons

b)

protons - neutrons

c)

neutrons - protons

d)

protons - electrons

131.

Which of the following is NOT part of the theories of Niels Bohr?

a)

Quantized energy levels

b)

Charge of an electron = 1.602 x 10-19C

c)

Planetary model

d)

Atoms can absorb photons

132.

What was Chadwick's discovery?

a)

the neutron

b)

the proton

c)

alpha particles

d)

atoms can absorb photons

133.

Who proposed the planetary model of atoms?

a)

Bohr

b)

Lewis

c)

Dalton

d)

Rutherford

134.

Who proposed the planetary model of atoms?

a)

Bohr

b)

Lewis

c)

Dalton

d)

Rutherford

135.

Which of the following is NOT part of Dalton's theories?

a)

Matter is made up of atoms

b)

Atoms of the same element are identical

c)

Plum pudding model

d)

In chemical reactions atoms are rearranged

136.

Which of the following parts of Dalton's theories have been disproven?

a)

Matter is made up of atoms

b)

Atoms join in simple ratios to form compounds

c)

Atoms can't be subdivided, created, or destroyed

d)

In chemical reactions atoms are rearranged

137.

Who proposed the plum pudding model of atoms?

a)

JJ Thomson

b)

John Dalton

c)

Robert Millikan

d)

James Chadwick

138.

Who discovered the electron?

a)

JJ Thomson

b)

Robert Millikan

c)

Democritus

d)

Niels Bohr

139.

Who performed the "oil drop experiment" to find the charge of an electron?

a)

JJ Thomson

b)

Niels Bohr

c)

Robert Millikan

d)

Ernest Rutherford

140.

Who performed the "gold foil experiment"?

a)

Ernest Rutherford

b)

JJ Thomson

c)

Robert Millikan

d)

Albert Einstein

141.

What were the results of the gold foil experiment?

a)

Discovered that atoms are made up of a dense nucleus surrounded by empty space with electrons

b)

Discovered the neutron

c)

Discovered the charge of an electron

d)

Discovered electron energy levels

142.

Which statement says that you can't know the exact position and velocity of an electron at the same time?

a)

Heisenberg's uncertainty principle

b)

Schrodinger's law

c)

Schrodinger's uncertainty principle

d)

Electron spin theory

143.

Modern atomic theory states that an electron can act as a ___________ or _____________

a)

wave; particle

b)

particle; energy

c)

wave; energy

d)

frequency; photon

144.

The principle quantum number (n) can range from 1 to _____

a)

7

b)

5

c)

9

d)

½

145.

The angular momentum quantum number (l) can range from 1 to _____

a)

n - 1

b)

n + 1

c)

½n

d)

2n

146.

The magnetic quantum number (ml) can range from

a)

1 to n-1

b)

-l to l

c)

-n to n

d)

-½l to ½l

147.

What would be the magnetic quantum number (ml) for an electron in the s orbital

a)

0

b)

-1

c)

1

d)

½

148.

Which of the following is a possible electron spin quantum number (ms)?

a)

-½

b)

¼

c)

1

d)

2

149.

Which of the following is a possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 3d orbital?

a)

3, 2, -1, -½

b)

3, 1, -2, ½

c)

2, 2, 0, ½

d)

2, 1, -1, ¼

150.

Which of the following is a possible set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 4p orbital?

a)

4, 2, 1, ½

b)

4, 3, 1, ½

c)

4, 2, 3, -½

d)

3, 2, 1, ½

151.

Which angular momentum quantum number (l) represents a d orbital?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

152.

What letter represents the most complex orbital shape?

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

153.

Which of the following is the Aufbau principle?

a)

Lowest energy orbitals are filled first

b)

Orbitals can contain a maximum of 2 electrons

c)

Each electron in an orbital has a different spin

d)

Electrons prefer to be unpaired when in orbitals with equal energy

154.

Which of the following is NOT part of the Pauli exclusion principle?

a)

Orbitals can contain a maximum of 2 electrons

b)

Each electron in an orbital has a different spin

c)

Each electron has a unique set of quantum numbers

d)

Electrons prefer to be unpaired when in orbitals with equal energy

155.

Which rule includes that electrons prefer to be unpaired when in orbitals with equal energy?

a)

Aufbau

b)

Hund's

c)

Pauli

d)

Heisenberg

156.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for sodium?

a)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1

b)

1s2, 2p6, 2s2, 3p1

c)

1s2, 2s2,2p6,3s2, 3p4

d)

1s2, 2s2, 2p5, 3s2

157.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for copper?

a)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d10

b)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d9

c)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10

d)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 4p6, 3d3

158.

Complete the electron configuration exception: When transition metals form ions, they lose electrons from ___________ first.

a)

the last s-orbital

b)

the largest orbital

c)

the smallest orbital

d)

the first s-orbital

159.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a +2 ion of iron?

a)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6

b)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d4

c)

2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6

d)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6

160.

Which of the following is the correct noble gas notation electron configuration for nickel?

a)

[Ar] 4s2, 3d8

b)

[Ar] 1s2, 2s2, 2p6

c)

[Ne] 4s2, 3d8

d)

[Ni] 4s2, 3d8

161.

A diamagnetic atom has _____________.

a)

unpaired electrons

b)

all paired electrons

c)

less than 4 valence electrons

d)

more than 4 valence electrons

162.

A paramagnetic atom has _____________.

a)

unpaired electrons

b)

all paired electrons

c)

less than 4 valence electrons

d)

more than 4 valence electrons

163.

Which law states that a chemical compound always contains the same proportion of elements by mass?

a)

Law of definite proportions

b)

Law of multiple proportions

c)

Law of conservation of mass

d)

Law of massive proportions

164.

Which law states that if 2 elements form more than 1 compound then the ratios of elements will be small whole numbers?

a)

Law of definite proportions

b)

Law of multiple proportions

c)

Law of conservation of mass

d)

Law of proportions of mass

165.

Which law states that matter cannot be created or destroyed during a physical or chemical reaction?

a)

Law of conservation of mass

b)

Law of definite proportions

c)

Schrodinger's law

d)

Law of massive proportions

166.

The number of ____________ is always different in the isotopes of Uranium.

a)

ions

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

electrons

167.

The number of ___________ in the nucleus determines an atom's atomic number.

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

electrons

d)

ions

168.

What is nuclear fusion?

a)

When 2 light nuclei combine to make one more stable, heavier nucleus

b)

When 1 heavy nucleus splits to form lighter nuclei and electrons

c)

When an trigonal bipyramidal molecule splits into two trigonal pyramidals

d)

When a radioactive element reaches it's half life so it is split into decayed and undecayed portions

169.

What is nuclear fission?

a)

When 2 light nuclei combine to make one more stable, heavier nucleus

b)

When 1 heavy nucleus splits to form lighter nuclei and electrons

c)

When an trigonal bipyramidal molecule splits into two trigonal pyramidals

d)

When a radioactive element reaches it's half life so it is split into decayed and undecayed portions

170.

What is a half-life?

a)

Amount of time that it takes for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay

b)

Amount of time it takes for half of an atom to decay

c)

They amount of time it takes for carbon-14 to decay

d)

Half of an element's lifespan

171.

Which of the following is NOT a use of nuclear chemistry?

a)

Power plants

b)

Radioactive tracers

c)

Carbon dating

d)

Forming diamonds

172.

What does the m in E=mc2 represent?

a)

Energy

b)

Mass

c)

Mass defect

d)

Speed of light

173.

What does the c in E=mc2 represent?

a)

Speed of light

b)

Mass defect

c)

Energy

d)

Amount of carbon decayed

174.

What is the mass defect in a nuclear reaction?

a)

Amount of mass that is converted to energy

b)

Amount of energy that is converted to mass

c)

Mass of the products

d)

Mass of the reactants

175.

Energy in a nuclear reaction is measured in

a)

Joules

b)

Kilograms

c)

Gamma rays

d)

Meters/seconds

176.

An ion that ends with -ide is a(n)

a)

binary anion

b)

polyatomic ion

c)

oxyacid

d)

binary cation

177.

Which transition metal can form two different ions (not just different charges)?

a)

Mercury

b)

Iron

c)

Cobalt

d)

Copper

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