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Cellular Reproduction - AP Biology

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 2hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
If an organism reproduces asexually, its offspring will be
a)
Genetically different from each other
b)
Produced from specialized cells known as gametes
c)
Genetically identical to the parent
d)
Produced as a result of fertilization
2.
Asexual reproduction primarily involves the process of
a)
interpolation
b)
Mitosis
c)
pollination
d)
spermatogenesis
3.
Which of the following is NOT a type of asexual reproduction?
a)
fusion
b)
binary fission
c)
budding
d)
regeneration
4.
How many cells will be produced if 3 cells undergo mitosis?
a)
6
b)
3
c)
12
d)
can't tell
5.
What is the first phase of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
6.
Which of the following is NOT a part of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
7.
What is the second phase of mitosis, where the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)
telophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
8.
What is the final phase of mitosis, where the nucleus splits into two nuclei?
a)
telophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
9.
As mitosis ends, the cell will split into two identical cells. What is the name of that process?
a)
meiosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
10.
Mitosis results in
a)
Non-identical cells
b)
identical cells
c)
parent cells
d)
meiosis
11.
During mitosis in animal cells, at which phase do centrioles begin to move apart?
a)
prophase
b)
prometaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
12.
Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in animal cells?
a)
centromere
b)
centrosome
c)
centriole
d)
chromatid
13.
Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents
a)
nuclear envelope breakdown
b)
elongation of microtubules
c)
shortening of microtubules
d)
formation of a cleavage furrow
14.
Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle would the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?
a)
Go
b)
G1
c)
S
d)
G2
15.
At which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
16.
Diatoms and some yeasts are unicellular eukaryotes that have mechanisms of nuclear division that may resemble intermediate steps in the evolution of mitosis. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of nuclear division in these organisms?
a)
They have circular chromosomes that are segregated by attachment to the plasma membrane.
b)
They have circular chromosomes that are segregated by attachment to spindle microtubules.
c)
Chromosomes are not condensed during nuclear division.
d)
The nuclear envelope remains intact during division.
17.
Cells from advanced malignant tumors frequently have very abnormal chromosomes as well as an abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain the association between malignant tumors and chromosomal abnormalities?
a)
Cancer cells replicate chromosomes multiple times per cell cycle
b)
Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent
c)
Cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities
d)
Cells with abnormal chromosomes have increased metabolism
18.
Which is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle where a cell will be caused to exit the cycle if this point is not passed
a)
Go
b)
G1
c)
G2
d)
M
19.
The cell cycle is regulated at the molecular level by a set of proteins known as
a)
ATPases.
b)
separase proteins
c)
cohesions
d)
cyclins
20.
Besides the ability of some cancer cells to divide uncontrollably, what else could logically result in a tumor?
a)
enhanced anchorage dependence
b)
changes in the order of cell cycle stages
c)
lack of appropriate cell death
d)
inability to form spindles
21.
Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?
a)
They no longer have active nuclei
b)
They have been shunted into G0
c)
They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules
d)
They no longer produce cyclins
22.
For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?
a)
It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis
b)
It does not affect metabolically active cells
c)
It only attacks cells that are density dependent
d)
It targets only rapidly dividing cells
23.
Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely
a)
an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis
b)
a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis
c)
a bacterial cell dividing
d)
a plant cell in metaphase
24.
Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?
a)
condensation of the chromosomes
b)
replication of the DNA
c)
separation of sister chromatids
d)
spindle formation
25.
A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in
a)
G1
b)
G2
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
26.
A cell’s DNA has become damaged beyond repair, the cell undergoes which of the following processes?
a)
cytokinesis
b)
signal transduction pathways
c)
exocytosis
d)
apoptosis
27.
During what stage of the cell cycle would you expect to see the least amount of cellular growth and synthesis taking place?
a)
S
b)
G1
c)
G2
d)
M
28.
Which of the following describes cell activity during the G1 phase of the cell cycle?
a)
the cell undergoes mitosis
b)
the cell increases in size and produces new organelles
c)
DNA is replicated
d)
the cell is in a resting place
29.
One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
a)
are unable to synthesize DNA
b)
are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
c)
continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together
d)
are always in the M phase of the cell cycle
30.
In cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in
a)
cells with more than one nucleus
b)
cells lacking nuclei
c)
destruction of chromosomes
d)
cell cycles lacking an S phase
31.
The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is called a
a)
protein phosphatase
b)
protein kinase
c)
protein receptor
d)
protein transducer
32.
Cells are anchorage dependent.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
33.
Cell growth is not inhibited by contact with other cells.
a)
Regular cells
b)
Cancer cells
34.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the G2 phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
35.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the G1 phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
36.
Which description is true about cell cycle regulation?
a)
Changing concentrations of cdk result in binding to cyclin
b)
Changing concentrations of cyclin result in binding to cdk
c)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased cdk levels
d)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased cyclin levels
37.
When examining actively dividing cells under a microscope, in which stage will most of the cells be in?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Interphase
38.
Which one has the phases in sequential order?
a)
Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis, Prophase, Metaphase
c)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase
39.
What correctly describes the DNA content in the S phase?
a)
normal amount
b)
double amount
c)
increasing
d)
decreasing
40.
Division of the cytoplasm of the cell
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 1
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Anaphase
41.
Sister chromatids begin to separate
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 1
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Anaphase
42.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
43.
The cell cycle is regulated at the molecular level by a set of proteins known as
a)
ATPases.
b)
separase proteins
c)
cohesions
d)
cyclins
44.
The mitotic spindle is made out of: 
a)
centrioles
b)
centromeres 
c)
microtubules
d)
chromatin 
45.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
46.
Why do cells go through cell division
a)
Growth
b)
Reproduction
c)
Repair
d)
All of the above
47.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
48.
How does a bacteria reproduce?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokenesis
c)
Binary Fusion
d)
Binary Fission
49.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
50.

Which of these may be assessed by various proteins during a "checkpoint"? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Ensure that all chromosomes have lined up in the center of the cell before sister chromatids separate

b)

Ensure that spindle fibers have attached to all centromeres before cell division

c)

Ensure that DNA has been replicated properly

51.
How does the concentration of cyclin dependent kinases (Cdk) change as the cell proceeds through the cell cycle?
a)
Cdk concentration remains constant.
b)
Cdk concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cdk concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cdk concentration correlates directly with MPF concentration.
52.
How does the concentration of cyclin change as a cell goes through the cell cycle?
a)
Cyclin concentration remains constant.
b)
Cyclin concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cyclin concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cyclin concentration is inversely related to MPF concentrations.
53.
Once a cell completes mitosis, what happens to MPF? 
a)
It is completely degraded
b)
it is exported from the cell
c)
the cyclin component of MPF is degraded
d)
the Cdk component of MPF is degraded
54.
The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is 
a)
to produce growth signals
b)
to code for proteins that inhibit, or slow, cell division
c)
to cause the cell to move faster through the cell cycle
d)
to attack cancer cells in the body
55.

Oncogenes

a)

are mutated forms of tumor suppressor genes

b)

are mutated forms of genes that code for proteins that normally assist in apoptosis

c)

are mutated genes the inhibit the cell cycle

d)

are mutated genes that code for proteins which activate cell division too often or at the improper time

56.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
57.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
58.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
59.
What phase of the cell cycle is shown
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
60.
Compared to most prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells typically have
a)
more DNA molecules and larger genomes
b)
the same number of DNA molecules but larger genomes
c)
the same number of DNA molecules and similarly sized genomes
d)
fewer DNA molecules and smaller genomes
61.

If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain

a)

48

b)

24

c)

12

62.

The diploid number for this cells shown is 4. Identify the phase of cell division.

a)

Anaphase of mitosis

b)

Anaphase I of meiosis

c)

Anaphase II of meioisis

63.

During what phase does the process shown occur?

a)

Prophase of mitosis

b)

Prophase I of meiosis

c)

Prophase II of meiosis

d)

This is a form of non-disjunction and not a normal process in cell division

64.

The chromosomes that pair up at the beginning of meiosis, are called __________

a)

sister chromatids

b)

diploid pairs

c)

homologous chromosomes

65.

What phase is represented in the picture?

a)

metaphase I of meiosis

b)

metaphase II of meiosis

c)

metaphase of mitosis

66.

What phase is represented?

a)

Metaphase I of meiosis

b)

Metaphase II of meiosis

c)

Metaphase of mitosis

67.

What is one of the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

a)

there is less of an energy cost for the organism

b)

a more rapid life cycle

c)

genetic variation allows for adaptability in the population over time

d)

genetically identical offspring means there is less chance of mutation

68.

What happens during meiosis I (check ALL that apply!)

a)

sister chromatids are separated

b)

homologous chromosomes are separated

c)

diploid daughter cells are produced

d)

haploid daughter cells are produced

e)

genes are rearranged

69.

In which type of cell division does this occur:

DNA is replicated (sister chromatids form) before the process starts

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

both mitosis and meiosis

d)

neither mitosis or meiosis

70.

What does this process accomplish?

a)

This process reduces the number of chromatids per chromosome

b)

This creates new combinations of genes on a single chromosome; resulting in genetic variation

c)

This process reduces the chromosome number (diploid to haploid)

d)

This is a form of non-disjunction and not a normal process in cell division

71.

In what form are the daughter cells and chromosomes just after meiosis II has finished?

a)

haploid, tetrads (homologs w/ sister chromatids) are joined

b)

diploid, sister chromatids have separated

c)

haploid, sister chromatids have separated

d)

diploid, tetrads (homologs w/ sister chromatids) are joined

72.

What is the key difference between metaphase in Meiosis I versus metaphase in mitosis?

a)

chromosomes line up single-file in the middle in meiosis I

b)

chromosomes line up double-file in the middle in meiosis I

73.

What does "random orientation (independent assortment) of homologs" refer to

a)

how one set of homologous chromosomes is lined up compared to another set during metaphase I

b)

the random exchange of cenetic info between pieces of homologous chromsomes

c)

the fact that there are different alleles on the homologous pairs

d)

the randomness of which particular sperm will fertilize an egg

74.

Which of the following are sources of genetic diversity? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

mutation

b)

crossing over

c)

independent assortment of homologous pairs

d)

mitosis

e)

formation of sister chromatids

75.

What is one disadvantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

Only one parent is needed

b)

Offspring are exact copies of parents

c)

Energy, time and a little bit of luck needed to find and fuse with another gamete

d)

Genetic diversity in the next generation

76.
This produces 2 identical cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
77.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
78.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
79.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
80.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
81.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
82.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
83.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
84.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
85.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
86.
Meiosis I separates ________, while Meiosis II separates ________.
a)
sister chromatids; tetrads
b)
homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
c)
homologous chromosomes; tetrads
d)
tetrads; homologous chromosomes
87.
When you start with 1 cell, at the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
88.
The process on the left is:
The process on the right is:
a)
Left: meiosis
Right: meiosis
b)
Left: meiosis
Right: cloning
c)
Left: mitosis
Right: meiosis
d)
Left: mitosis
Right: mitosis
89.
forms haploid cells
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
both
90.
If a cell starts with 46 chromosomes and goes through mitosis. How many chromosomes will the daughter cells have? 
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
91.

When homologous chromosomes cross over, what occurs?

a)

Specific proteins break the two strands of nonsister chromatids and re-join them.

b)

Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA.

c)

Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA.

d)

Maternal alleles are "corrected" to be like paternal alleles, and vice versa.

92.

Two sister chromatids are joined at the centromere prior to meiosis. Which statement is correct?

a)

Barring mutation, the two sister chromatids must be identical.

b)

The cell that contains these sister chromatids must be haploid.

c)

The cell that contains these sister chromatids must be haploid.

d)

They have to be the chromatids of identical ttriplets or quadruplets.

93.

Which is the smallest unit containing the entire human genome?

a)

one human gene

b)

one human chromosome

c)

one human somatic cell

d)

one human chromosome

94.

A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a one X chromosome is

a)

an egg

b)

a sperm

c)

a zygote

d)

a female somatic cell

95.

If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?

a)

Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.

b)

Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.

c)

Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.

d)

Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.

96.

Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during

a)

meiosis I.

b)

mitosis.

c)

meiosis II.

d)

binary fission

97.

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?

a)

They must be removed before meiosis can begin.

b)

They must persist throughout the cell cycle.

c)

They must be intact for nuclear envelope re-formation.

d)

They must be removed before sister chromatids or homologous chromosomes can separate.

98.

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of

a)

the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.

b)

the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II.

c)

the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.

99.

How are sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes different from each other?

a)

Homologous chromosomes contain the same gene loci but may have different alleles of a particular gene. Sister chromatids are identical copies of each other produced during DNA replication.

b)

They are not different. Homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids are both identical copies of each other.

c)

Homologous chromosomes are closely associated with each other in both mitosis and meiosis. Sister chromatids are only associated with each other during mitosis.

100.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
101.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
102.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
103.
If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
104.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
105.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase II
106.
How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis ?
a)
10
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
107.
Name the growth phase of the cell cycle for both Mitosis and Meiosis.
a)
metaphase
b)
telophase
c)
interphase
d)
anaophase
108.
How many cells are produced during telophase I ?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
2
d)
0
109.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)
segregation of sister chromatids
b)
condensation and segregation of alleles
c)
mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered
d)
crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged
110.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
111.
When a cell is not actively dividing, it is in what phase?
a)
interphase
b)
anaphase
c)
prophase
d)
telophase
112.
What portion of the cell cycle involves the actual dividing?
a)
interphase
b)
mitosis
c)
Gap 1
d)
Gap 2
113.
Another name for a sex cell is a:
a)
gamete
b)
embryo
c)
bone cell
d)
muscle cell
114.
Which phase is shown in the diagram
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
115.
Meiosis is considered this type of reproduction
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
116.
Mitosis is considered this type of reproduction
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
117.
This produces cells for growth and repair.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
118.
a)
This karyotype shows Trisomy 21
b)
This karyotype has no abnormality
c)
This karyotype is missing a sex chromosome (monosomy x)
d)
This karyotype is from a gamete
119.
Based on the Karyotype shown, at which chromosome pair can we identify a genetic disorder? 
a)
Chromosome pair 5
b)
sex chromosomes
c)
Chromosome pair 21
d)
There are no chromosomal disorders
120.
Which statement is NOT true about Karyotypes
a)
Chromosomes (pairs 1-22) are arranged by size
b)
Sex chromosomes are found at the end
c)
A normal karyotype has 46 chromosomes or 23 pairs
d)
Having missing or extra chromosomes does not indicate a disorder
121.
What is the chromosomal condition of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Monosomy X (Turner's Syndrome)
b)
Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome)
c)
Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
d)
Trisomy 18 (Edwards's Syndrome)
122.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
123.
Nondisjunction can result in 
a)
trisomy conditions
b)
monosomy conditions
c)
additional sex chromosomes
d)
all of these
124.
When chromosomes fail to separate correctly during anaphase of meiosis, what can occur?
a)
extra chromosomes are found in the sex cell
b)
chromosomes of the sex cell are doubled
c)
chromosomes of the sex cell are halved
d)
meiosis never completes
125.
Down's syndrome occurs because of a(n)
a)
missing sex chromosome
b)
extra sex chromosome
c)
additional 21st chromosome
d)
additional 18th chromosome
126.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
127.

What would you call the failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally during meiosis?

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

128.

Each identical side of a chromosome is a sister chromatid

a)

centromere

b)

chromatin

c)

centriole

d)

chromatid

129.
The cell cycle is regulated by...
a)
cyclins
b)
cyclin dependent kinases
c)
histones
d)
cyclin dependent kinases & cyclins
130.
Which phase?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
131.
What phase is illustrated?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
132.
What phase is illustrated?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
133.
What phase is illustrated?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
134.
What is the only condition we studied that is a monosomal disorder?
a)
Klinefelters 
b)
Down's
c)
Turners
d)
XYY
135.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
136.
a)
This karyotype shows Trisomy 21
b)
This karyotype has no abnormality
c)
This karyotype is missing a sex chromosome (monosomy x)
d)
This karyotype is from a gamete
137.

Nondisjunction can cause which of the following? (select all that apply)

a)

polyploidy

b)

monosomy

c)

trisomy

d)

aneuploidy

138.

The 23rd set of chromosomes are known as

a)

Gametes

b)

Autobots

c)

Sex Chromosomes

d)

Autosomes

139.
_______ organisms (having 4 sets of chromosomes) are common in plants but rare in animals. 
a)
tetraploid 
b)
grapes
c)
polyploid 
d)
aneuploids 

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