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WorksheetsAnatomy Semester 1 Final Exam Review
Total questions: 143
Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Where is my pimple?
Look at the picture and decide which statement best describes the location of my pimple!
Look at the picture and decide which statement best describes the location of my pimple!
a)
Laying in a prone position with the pimple on the anterior half of the body.
b)
Supine position with the pimple superior to the humerus on the posterior of the body.
c)
Supine position with the pimple inferior to the tibia on the anterior of the body.
2.
Where is my pimple?
a)
Distal part of the humerus
b)
Inferior to the shoulder joint.
c)
Superior to the shoulder.
d)
Proximal part of the femur.
3.
Where is my pimple?
a)
Superior to the shoulders on the medial line of the cranium.
b)
Proximal aspect of the femur on the lateral side.
c)
Distal end of the humerus on the lateral aspect of the arm.
d)
On the medial line of the humerus, posterior side.
4.
Where is my pimple?
a)
On the anterior half of the body, inferior to the shoulders but superior to the hip on their right lateral side.
b)
On the posterior half of the body, inferior to the shoulders but superior to the hip on the medial line.
c)
On the distal aspect of the vertebrae on the anterior half of the body.
d)
Proximal to the vertebrae on the anterior portion of the body.
5.
Where is my pimple?
a)
Anterior portion of the body, distal to the patella on the lateral aspect of the bone.
b)
Posterior half of the body and proximal to the patella.
c)
Anterior aspect of the body, distal end of the tibia and is superficial.
6.
Adduction occurs along which plane of movement?
a)
Sagittal
b)
Frontal
c)
Transverse
7.
Flexion and extension occur along which plane?
a)
Sagittal
b)
Frontal
c)
Transverse
8.
Circumduction refers to
a)
the movement of a limb in a circular motion.
b)
the movement of a limb towards the midline (medial) or away from the body (lateral)
c)
-
9.
What movement occurs when you strike a football?
a)
Hip - Flexion, Knee - Extension and Ankle - Dorsi flexion
b)
Hip - hyper-exension, Knee - Extension and Ankle - extension
c)
Hip - Flexion, Knee - Extension and Ankle - Plantar flexion
d)
Hip - rotation, Knee - Flexion and Ankle Plantar flexion
10.
Match the term with the correct selection-
Supine
Supine
a)
Face downward
b)
Face upward
c)
erect
11.
Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feat)
a)
Medial Plane
b)
Sagittal
c)
Proximal
d)
Transverse Plane
12.
Towards the Front.
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
13.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
14.
Body is standing straight, facing forward, upper limbs at side and palms facing forward.
*right and left refer to "right" and "left" of the body in position.
*right and left refer to "right" and "left" of the body in position.
a)
Sagittal
b)
Anatomical Position
c)
Anterior Position
d)
Anatomical Plane
15.
Toward the back; opposite of Anterior
a)
Superior
b)
Posterior
c)
Inferior
d)
Lateral
16.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
17.
Which body cavity contains organs including the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
18.
Which body cavity is located above the diaphragm and is surrounded by the rib cage?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
19.
This body cavity is created by the bones of the skull to protect the brain.
a)
cranial
b)
spinal
c)
vertebral
20.
What is the term used to refer to the front of the body?
a)
cranial
b)
anterior/ventral
c)
posterior/dorsal
d)
proximal
21.
Which plane is this?
a)
sagittal
b)
transverse
c)
coronal / frontal
22.
What is this plane?
a)
sagittal
b)
transverse
c)
coronal / frontal
23.
A plane that divides the body into left and right halves.
a)
sagittal
b)
midsagittal
c)
transverse
d)
frontal
24.
A plane that divides the body into superior and inferior halves.
a)
sagittal
b)
midsagittal
c)
transverse
d)
frontal
25.
A plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
a)
sagittal
b)
midsagittal
c)
transverse
d)
frontal / coronal
26.
What body plane is shown here by the circle?
a)
Sagital
b)
Transverse
c)
Coronal
27.
What plane is shown by the circle?
a)
Transverse
b)
Coronal
c)
Sagital
28.
What body plane is shown by the circle?
a)
Sagital
b)
Coronal
c)
Transverse
29.
Which body plane is pictured?
a)
sagittal
b)
frontal (coronal)
c)
transverse
30.
Which body plane is pictured?
a)
sagittal
b)
frontal (coronal)
c)
transverse
31.
The thoracic cavity includes which organs?
a)
Heart, stomach, and lung
b)
Stomach, heart, and lung
c)
Stomach, intestines, liver
d)
Heart, lung, large blood vessels
32.
What divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
a)
Diafragm
b)
Diaphragm
c)
Skin
d)
Liver
33.
Your shoulder is ______________ to your elbow.
a)
superficial
b)
proximal
c)
distal
d)
deep
34.
Physiology is the study of
a)
study of the tissues
b)
functions of the body
35.
Superior (cranial) is:
a)
away from the head end of toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below
b)
toward or at the fron of the body; in front of
c)
toward the head end or upper part of a structure or body; above
d)
none of the above
36.
Dorsal is posterior
a)
true
b)
false
37.
Ventral is anterior
a)
true
b)
false
38.
What is encases the brain?
a)
vertebral cavity
b)
cranial cavity
c)
thoracic cavity
d)
abdominopelvic cavity
39.
What cavity houses the bladder?
a)
abdominal cavity
b)
thoracic cavity
c)
pelvic cavity
d)
mediastinum
40.
________________ is used to maintain homeostasis and achieve set point within a system
a)
Osmosis
b)
Negative feedback mechanisms
c)
Benefit
41.
Which is an example of the negative feedback mechanism?
a)
Blood sugar levels being controlled by negative feedback loop (food being consumed and digested causes blood level glucose to rise)
b)
Temperature
c)
Controlling the amount of water lost through the excretory system
d)
Osmoregulation (regulating amount of water reabsorbed from glomerular filtrate in kidney tubes, etc.)
42.
True or False are we losing heat continuously to the environment?
a)
False
b)
True
c)
Probably
43.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
44.
As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump. Your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to normal level.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
45.
Feedback loops are important because they allow organisms and the environment to
a)
change based on new inputs
b)
fall apart
c)
change based on new outputs
d)
maintain balance
46.
Which of the following is an example of positive feedback to indirectly maintain homeostasis?
a)
the chemical reactions involved in blood clotting
b)
your blood vessels dilate and you begin to sweat in response to elevated body temperature
c)
your blood vessels constrict and you begin to shiver in response to low body temperature
d)
your coach compliments you on your performance in practice
47.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
48.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
49.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
50.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
it does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
51.
The concentration of water is higher in the soil than in plant root cells. Water moves into root cells of a plant by...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
52.
Due to the higher concentration of oxygen in the air than your blood, oxygen goes from the lungs into the red blood cells by....
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
53.
In a nerve cell, ATP energy is used to pump sodium (Na) out of the cell and potassium (K) into the cell. This is an example of...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
54.
Waste products are moved out of the cell by ______________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
diffusion
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
55.
This cell organelle helps organisms maintain homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells.
a)
vacuole
b)
nucleus
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall
56.
The dispersal of ink in a breaker of water is an example of
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
active transport
57.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
58.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
59.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
60.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
61.
The powerhouse of the cell is the...
a)
Mitochondrion
b)
Golgi body
c)
Nucleus
d)
Ribosomes
62.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondrion
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
63.
What makes the endoplasmic reticulum rough?
a)
Vessicles
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Chromosomes
64.
Cell membranes are found in
a)
Only animal cells
b)
Only plant cells
c)
Some plant and animal cells
d)
All plant and animal cells
65.
The ______________ is the brain of the cell.
a)
Vacuole
b)
Nucleus
c)
Chromosomes
d)
60 W light bulb
66.
packages proteins for delivery
a)
Endoplasmic reticulum
b)
ribosomes
c)
golgi apparatus
d)
lysosomes
67.
break down (digest) worn out cell parts, mostly in animal cells
a)
cytoplasm
b)
lysosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
68.
Transportation network for the cell, moves materials around in the cell
a)
Lysosome
b)
Nuclear Membrane
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Centriole
69.
Interphase is when a cell is growing, replicating its DNA, and carrying out cell processes. Which of these is correct regarding its occurence?
a)
It occurs once before mitosis and once before meiosis.
b)
It occurs once before mitosis and twice before meiosis.
c)
It occurs once before mitosis and does not occur before meiosis.
d)
It does not occur before mitosis and occurs once before meiosis.
70.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
71.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
72.
Meiosis produces different types of cells than mitosis. If there was a "meiosis club," all of these cells could be included EXCEPT
(Which cell type is not produced in meiosis?)
(Which cell type is not produced in meiosis?)
a)
gametes
b)
body cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
egg cells
73.
In meiosis, crossing over occurs in prophase 1. What is the significance of this event?
a)
This process ensures that chromosomes are evenly divided into daughter cells.
b)
This process can lead to genetic variation in daughter cells.
c)
This process can create gaps in the chromosome DNA for RNA to bind.
d)
This process allows for spindles to connect to the chromosomes in order to pull chromosomes apart.
74.
Mitosis is useful for the creation of new cells which is important for all of the following EXCEPT
a)
organism growth.
b)
repair of damage.
c)
replacement of worn out cells.
d)
generation of gametes.
75.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
76.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
77.
Have you ever heard of a skin graft? Skin cells can be harvested from one area and be grown in order to help burn victims or other skin injuries. Which process would result in the development of more skin cells in this treatment?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Crossing Over
d)
Interphase
78.
In meiosis, the four resulting cells are
a)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
d)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
79.
Functions in filtration, diffusion, osmosis, and surface coverings
a)
simple squamous
b)
stratified columnar
c)
pseudostratified columnar
d)
stratified cuboidal
80.
Functions in secretion and absorption
a)
simple squamous
b)
stratified squamous
c)
pseudostratified columnar
d)
simple cuboidal
81.
Found in the walls of capillaries and in air sacs of lungs
a)
simple squamous
b)
stratified columnar
c)
pseudostratified columnar
d)
stratified cuboidal
82.
Type of tissue
a)
simple squamous
b)
simple cuboidal
c)
stratified cuboidal
d)
simple columnar
83.
Mucous is moved through the respiratory passages by
a)
simple cuboidal
b)
simple squamous
c)
pseudostratified columnar
d)
stratified columnar
84.
d represents
a)
cilia
b)
a basement membrane
c)
a nucleus
d)
a lumen
85.
Fat Cells (Storage of)...
a)
Adipose Cells
b)
Mast Cells
c)
Mesenchymal Cells
d)
Lymphocyte Cells
86.
The 'non-cellular' filling of CT is known as...
a)
The Matrix
b)
The Plasma
c)
The Mesenchyme
d)
The Surachia
87.
A cartilage cell is called a...
a)
Chondrocyte
b)
Cartilagoblast
c)
Cartilagocyte
d)
Chondroclast
88.
This tissue carries nutrients, waste, respiratory gases, and many other substances throughout the body.
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
89.
From most rigid to softest; these three connective tissues should be ordered
a)
bone, blood, cartilage
b)
blood, loose tissue, bone
c)
bone, cartilage, blood
d)
bone, blood, dense tissue
90.
What type of connective tissue are tendons and ligaments?
a)
Dense Connective Tissue
b)
Bone
c)
Loose Connective Tissue
d)
Cartilage
91.
A mature bone cell is called a _________.
a)
osteon
b)
osteocyte
c)
osteoclast
d)
osteoblast
92.
An osteocyte "lives" in __.
a)
lacunae
b)
lamellae
c)
Haversian canals
d)
Volkmann's canals
93.
Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of tissue?
a)
epithelial
b)
connective
c)
muscle
d)
avascular
94.
Which of the following is the most abundant tissue in the body?
a)
epithelial
b)
connective
c)
muscle
d)
nervous
95.
Adipose tissue is mainly composed of which of the following materials?
a)
blood
b)
cartilage
c)
bone
d)
fat
96.
Which epithelial tissue has more than one layer of flattened cells?
a)
simple squamous
b)
stratified squamous
c)
transistional
d)
simple columnar
97.
Which of the following represents the reason that cartilage repairs itself so slowly?
a)
it is never damaged
b)
it is vascular
c)
it is avascular
d)
hormones are present
98.
Which of the following muscle cells is considered voluntary?
a)
cardiac
b)
skeletal
c)
smooth
99.
If you were examining some cells and observed the presence of intercalated discs, the type of muscle cells you would be looking at would be __________.
a)
cardiac
b)
skeletal
c)
smooth
100.
Our blood vessels are lined with muscles that allow for automatic dilation and constriction based on environmental situations. What kind of muscles lines the blood vessels?
a)
cardiac
b)
skeletal
c)
smooth
101.
What is the purpose of muscle tissue
a)
Transforms chemical energy (ATP) to directed mechanical energy - exerts force
b)
sensory input, integration, control of muscles and glands, homeostasis, and mental activity.
102.
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue
a)
Skeletal,Cardiac,Smooth
b)
Blood,Bone,Cartilage
103.
What are the important functions of muscles
a)
Movement of bones or fluids (e.g., blood)
b)
Maintaining posture and body position
c)
Stabilizing joints
d)
All of the above
104.
Skeletal muscles is
a)
Striated (striped)
b)
Voluntary (i.e., conscious control)
c)
Organs attached to bones and skin
d)
All the above
105.
what is the location of skeletal muscle?
a)
skeleton
b)
Blood
106.
what is the function of skeletal muscle?
a)
movement, heat, posture
b)
removes wastes
c)
Produce protein
d)
give us energy
107.
Cardiac muscle is
a)
Striated/Involuntary
b)
unstriated/voluntary
108.
Smooth muscle is
a)
Not striated/Involuntary
b)
Striated/voluntary
109.
The special characteristics of muscle tissue are
excitability, contractility, extensibility, elasticity
a)
True
b)
False
110.
The nerve cells that generate and conduct nerve impulses are called:
a)
dendrites
b)
axons
c)
myalin
d)
neuron
111.
What do neuroglia do?
a)
Release neurotransmitters
b)
Support and nourish neurons
c)
Release calcium to activate neurons
d)
Absorb nutrients from neurons
112.
Which of the following is NOT part of the central nervous system?
a)
The brain
b)
The spinal cord
c)
The brain stem
d)
Spinal nerves
113.
The part of the nerve that sends or relays messages.
a)
Synapse
b)
Dendrite
c)
Neuron
d)
Axon
114.
The part of the nerve cell that receives a message.
a)
Nerve
b)
Brain
c)
Dendrite
d)
Axon
115.
is the part of the nervous system that consists of the nerves and ganglia on the outside of the brain and spinal cord
a)
Autonomic Nervous System
b)
Peripheral Nervous System
c)
Sympathetic Nervous System
d)
Dendrites
116.
Part of the nervous system made of the nerves that are not part of the brain or spinal cord.
a)
central nervous system
b)
peripheral nervous system
117.
extensions of a neuron through which impulses are sent away from the cell body to other neurons, glands or muscles
a)
nerve fibers
b)
efferent nerves
c)
axon, axon terminal
d)
reflex
118.
neurons have a nucleus.
a)
true
b)
false
119.
Embryonic stem cells come from an embryo in which stage
a)
Zygote
b)
Bone Marrow
c)
Blastocyst
120.
A mother is told by her doctor that the embryo inside her has started to develop different types of cells with different jobs, what part of development is the embryo experiencing?
a)
Fertilization
b)
Implantation
c)
Gastrulation
d)
Differentiation
121.
The inner germ layer in a blastocyst gives rise to the digestive tract, this layer is called the...
a)
Endoderm
b)
Mesoderm
c)
Ectoderm
122.
While examining an ultrasound, a doctor sees that a baby's heart isn't developing correctly, this could mean that there was a problem in the development of what germ layer?
a)
Endoderm
b)
Mesoderm
c)
Ectoderm
123.
Embryology is...
a)
the study of living things
b)
the study of the formation and early development of living things
c)
the study of energy conversions of living things
d)
the study of non-living things
124.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?
a)
provide nutrients to the embryo
b)
means of gas exchange for the embryo
c)
provides embryo with stem cells
125.
During a visit to the doctor, a woman is told that the embryo she is carrying did not carry out implantation correctly, what does this mean?
a)
Embryonic stem cells have not developed correctly
b)
A sperm cell never met up with an egg cell
c)
The embryo did not attach to the uterus correctly
d)
One of the germ layers of the embryo did not develop correctly
126.
Which of the following is put in the correct order from first to last?
a)
Blastula >>> Zygote >>> Morula
b)
Morula >>> Blastula >>> Zygote
c)
Zygote >>> Morula >>> Blastula
127.
Which of the following is another word for cell divisions early in development?
a)
Cleavage
b)
Fission
c)
Cloning
128.
If a human has been developing for 9 full weeks, it is considered a embryo.
a)
True
b)
False, because it is considered a zygote
c)
False, because it is considered a fetus
129.
The joining of a male sperm cell and a female egg cell to form a human life.
a)
Reproduction
b)
Menstruation
c)
Ovulation
d)
Fertilization
130.
Newly formed cell which has 46 chromosomes
a)
Zygote
b)
Fetus
c)
Baby
d)
Newborn
131.
Series of continuous, progressive contractions of the uterus which help the cervix to open (dilate) and to thin (efface), allowing the fetus to move through the birth canal
a)
Conception
b)
Prenatal care
c)
Labor
d)
Apgar scale
132.
Where does fertilization occur?
a)
The vagina
b)
The ovary
c)
The fallopian tube
d)
The opening of the cervix
133.
When does implantation of the blastocyst occur?
a)
approximate 1 day after fertilization
b)
approximately 7 days after fertilization
c)
approximately 14 days after fertilization
d)
approximately 21 days after fertilization
134.
Which of the following step in conception involves the release/ejection of a mature egg from the ovary?
a)
Implantation
b)
Fertilization
c)
Ovulation
135.
Pregnancy is divided into how many trimesters?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
1
136.
Each Trimester lasts approximately how many months?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
137.
"Full term" is used when the fetus is how many weeks into the pregnancy?
a)
35
b)
36
c)
38
d)
42
138.
All of the body systems are fully formed by the end of the 1st trimester
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
139.
What is the organ that attaches to the uterus and allows for oxygen and nutrients to pass from mother to fetus?
a)
ovary
b)
cervix
c)
placenta
d)
fallopian tube
140.
At what age are you more at risk for having a child with Down Syndrome?
a)
18
b)
25
c)
35
d)
40
141.
What is the purpose / function of the skin?
a)
protection
b)
temperature maintenance
c)
excretion and sensory reception
d)
all of the choices
142.
Which is the thin, most superficial layer of skin?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Hypodermis
143.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
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