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bio 3 review

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Crossing-over and synapsis occur during

a)

prophase I of meiosis only.

b)

prophase of mitosis only.

c)

prophase II of meiosis only.

d)

prophase I and prophase II of meiosis.

2.

Which one of the following does NOT apply to RNA?

a)

The sugar is deoxyribose.

b)

It contains the base uracil.

c)

It is involved in translation and transcription.

d)

It is a single strand.

3.

Scientists don't look at all the possible fragments when performing this technique but focus on differences found in pieces of DNA that form repeating patterns in the DNA.

a)

protein fingerprinting

b)

RNA sequencing

c)

amino acid sequencing

d)

DNA fingerprinting

4.

Oogenesis means

a)

place where the human race originated.

b)

egg formation.

c)

production of nondisjunctive cells.

d)

formation of the female child.

5.

The technique used to accomplish cloning in vertebrates is called

a)

somatic cell nuclear transfer.

b)

in vitro fertilization.

c)

recombinant technology.

d)

gametic cell nuclear transfer.

6.

Chromosomes first become visible during

a)

telophase I.

b)

metaphase I.

c)

anaphase I.

d)

prophase I.

7.

Which of the following statements is correct for both spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

a)

They each have two meiotic divisions.

b)

All of these statements are correct for both processes.

c)

They produce polar bodies.

d)

They function, approximately, on a twenty-eight day cycle.

8.

These are used as the basis of comparison when two samples of DNA are suspected of being from the same person.

a)

restriction fragments

b)

fingernail samples

c)

restriction enzymes

d)

variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)

9.

This procedure makes possible the synthesis of large quantities of proteins.

a)

recombinant DNA technology

b)

somatic cell transfer

c)

proteomics

d)

stem cell transfer

10.

A single-stranded, straight chain copy of a coding strand of DNA that comes from the process of transcription is

a)

DNA.

b)

mRNA.

c)

tRNA.

d)

rRNA.

11.

The structure in which meiosis occurs (which results in the formation of eggs) is the

a)

ovary.

b)

uterus.

c)

vagina.

d)

cervix.

12.

Egg cells are fertilized in the

a)

ovary.

b)

vagina.

c)

oviduct.

d)

cervix.

13.

In a DNA double helix, the phosphates are bonded to

a)

phosphates.

b)

ribose.

c)

uracil.

d)

deoxyribose.

14.

Chromosomes move toward the poles during

a)

interphase.

b)

metaphase.

c)

anaphase.

d)

telophase.

15.

DNA nucleotide sequences that indicate when RNA polymerase should finish making an RNA molecule are called

a)

enhancer sequences.

b)

termination sequences.

c)

genetic recombinant sequences.

d)

elongation sequences.

16.

When a DNA sequence is transferred into a host cell from another cell, the resulting new form of DNA is called

a)

a clone.

b)

plasmid.

c)

GM organism.

d)

recombinant DNA.

17.

In meiosis, centromeres split in

a)

telophase I.

b)

anaphase II.

c)

anaphase I.

d)

telophase II.

18.

The stimulus for contractions of the uterus to bring about birth is the hormone

a)

estrogen.

b)

luteotropic hormone.

c)

oxytocin.

d)

follicle stimulating hormone.

19.

In what mitotic stage does the cytoplasm divide?

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

20.

Bacterial cells pick up a recombinant DNA by taking it in through their outer cell boundaries using a process called

a)

plasmid transfer.

b)

transformation.

c)

transduction.

d)

cloning.

21.

This field of biotechnology involves inserting genes, deleting genes, or manipulating the action of genes in order to cure or lessen the effect of genetic diseases.

a)

DNA librarian

b)

genetic therapeutic medicine

c)

gene therapy

d)

genetic counseling

22.

DNA replication occurs during

a)

prophase of mitosis.

b)

gap 1 of interphase.

c)

S phase of interphase.

d)

metaphase of mitosis.

23.

Both a base and a phosphate are attached ____ in a nucleotide.

a)

to a sugar

b)

to each other

c)

to each other and to a sugar

d)

None of these answers is true because phosphate is not part of a nucleotide.

24.

The process of producing sex cells is

a)

ovulation.

b)

mitosis.

c)

fertilization.

d)

gametogenesis.

25.

During which of the following stages of meiosis is the cell haploid?

a)

anaphase II

b)

anaphase I

c)

metaphase I

d)

prophase I

26.

The molecule that contains an anticodon is

a)

DNA.

b)

mRNA.

c)

tRNA.

d)

rRNA.

27.

The structure that transports sperm cells from the epididymis to the urethra is the

a)

ductus arteriosus.

b)

prostate tubules.

c)

vas deferens.

d)

semen.

28.

Chromatids separate and move toward opposite poles during

a)

mitosis, and meiosis I and meiosis II.

b)

meiosis I and meiosis II.

c)

mitosis only.

d)

mitosis and meiosis II.

29.

The lining of the uterus is most vascularized (thick and filled with blood vessels)

a)

just before the follicle matures.

b)

at the time of ovulation.

c)

at the onset of menstruation.

d)

at the end of menses.

30.

Chromosomes align along the equator during

a)

anaphase.

b)

metaphase.

c)

prophase.

d)

telophase.

31.

The order in which the stages of mitosis proceed is

a)

anaphase, interphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase.

b)

interphase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase.

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase.

d)

interphase, telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase.

32.

The spindle begins to form in

a)

telophase II.

b)

interphase.

c)

prophase I.

d)

telophase I.

33.

The location of the placenta is

a)

in the uterus.

b)

in the vagina.

c)

at the cervix of the uterus.

d)

lining the oviduct.

34.

Two nuclei are formed during

a)

anaphase I.

b)

metaphase I.

c)

telophase I.

d)

prophase I.

35.

When a gene picks up nucleotides to build its noncoding strand, this is known as

a)

DNA translation.

b)

DNA replication.

c)

RNA transcription.

d)

RNA coverage.

36.

In humans, egg production (oogenesis) differs from sperm production (spermatogenesis) in that oogenesis

a)

usually results in fertilization.

b)

occurs for the majority of a person's life.

c)

produces many more cells than spermatogenesis.

d)

produces polar bodies.

37.

The molecule that carries the message of the gene from the nucleus to the ribosome is

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA.

c)

rRNA.

d)

DNA.

38.

Fertilization produces

a)

zygotes.

b)

gametes.

c)

eggs.

d)

haploid cells.

39.

During which stage do two tRNAs properly align their two amino acids so that they may be chemically attached to one another?

a)

transcription

b)

replication

c)

mutation

d)

translation

40.

Nondisjunction in humans can result in

a)

47 chromosomes.

b)

22 pairs of autosomes, and two X chromosomes.

c)

46 chromosomes.

d)

22 pairs of autosomes, an X chromosome and a Y chromosome.

41.

Chromosomes first become visible during

a)

telophase.

b)

anaphase.

c)

metaphase.

d)

prophase.

42.

If an organism proceeds through meiosis and produces sex cells with 32 chromosomes (e.g., a horse), the cells of the horse's brain will each contain ______ chromosomes.

a)

16

b)

32

c)

12

d)

64

43.

Centromeres separate allowing the chromatids to move toward the poles in

a)

Prophase I.

b)

Anaphase II.

c)

Anaphase I.

d)

Telophase II.

44.

Development of both the ovaries and testes are influenced by

a)

estrogens.

b)

oxytocin.

c)

follicle-stimulating hormone.

d)

progesterone.

45.

The molecule that carries the amino acid to the ribosome is

a)

tRNA.

b)

rRNA.

c)

DNA.

d)

mRNA.

46.

The settling of an embryo into the lining of the uterus is called

a)

fertilization.

b)

menses.

c)

cleavage.

d)

implantation.

47.

The gonads of females are

a)

eggs.

b)

testes.

c)

ovaries.

d)

semen.

48.

The centromere divides during

a)

metaphase II.

b)

anaphase II.

c)

telophase II.

d)

prophase II.

49.

Identical twins

a)

do not usually have the same DNA.

b)

are the result of one fertilized egg dividing to become two individuals.

c)

result from two eggs being fertilized by one sperm.

d)

result from one egg being fertilized by two sperms.

50.

Which of the following combinations of chromosomes would be typical of a human male?

a)

two X-chromosomes

b)

None of these is correct.

c)

2 Y-chromosomes

d)

an X-and a Y-chromosome

51.

Which of the following is necessary for DNA to make copies of itself?

a)

Chromosomes must be synapsed.

b)

The cell must have an abundant supply of RNA nucleotides.

c)

Ribosomes must be present.

d)

The two strands of the DNA molecule must separate.

52.

Chromosome number reduces during

a)

interphase.

b)

meiosis II.

c)

meiosis I.

d)

mitosis.

53.

Which one of the following is necessary for messenger RNA to be formed in the nucleus?

a)

Ribosomes must be present.

b)

Chromosomes must be synapsed.

c)

The cell must have an abundant supply of DNA nucleotides.

d)

RNA polymerase must be present and functioning.

54.

Which of the following does NOT belong in DNA?

a)

ribose

b)

phosphate

c)

thymine

d)

nucleotides

55.

This process uses an electrical current to move DNA through a gel matrix based on size.

a)

PCR

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

translocation

d)

gel transformation

56.

An excess number of chromosomes in a gamete results from

a)

nondisjunction.

b)

fertilization.

c)

mutation.

d)

crossing-over.

57.

A molecule that is a component of a ribosome is

a)

tRNA.

b)

rRNA.

c)

DNA.

d)

mRNA.

58.

The embryo develops into a fetus while it is within the

a)

cervix.

b)

uterus.

c)

ovary.

d)

vagina.

59.

This circular piece of DNA is an example of a vector that is used to carry DNA into bacterial cells.

a)

library

b)

plasmid

c)

variable number tandem repeat

d)

restriction fragment

60.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the male human reproductive system?

a)

penis

b)

vas deferens

c)

seminiferous tubules

d)

cervix

61.

During which of the following stages of meiosis does the cell contain the LEAST amount of DNA?

a)

prophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

telophase II

d)

prophase II

62.

Spindles disappear during

a)

prophase I.

b)

anaphase II.

c)

telophase II.

d)

metaphase I.

63.

____ is not part of interphase.

a)

Gap 2

b)

DNA synthesis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Gap 1

64.

During which stage does cytokinesis happen?

a)

telophase I

b)

metaphase II

c)

anaphase I

d)

prophase I

65.

Oogenesis normally produces ____ gamete(s) from one germ cell.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

four

d)

three

66.

If a body cell has 8 chromosomes (e.g., fruit fly), how many pairs will form during Prophase II?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

None of these is correct.

d)

8

67.

The beginning codon of an mRNA strand to produce a protein is a(n)

a)

anticodon.

b)

terminator/stop codon.

c)

codon.

d)

initiator/start codon.

68.

There has been great success in using genetically modified bacteria to clean up oil spills and toxic waste dumps called

a)

transcriptomics.

b)

bioremediation.

c)

gene cloning.

d)

biological amplification.

69.

The separation of homologous chromosomes is called

a)

segregation.

b)

mitosis.

c)

synapsis.

d)

fertilization.

70.

The laboratory procedure for copying selected segments of DNA is

a)

jumping genes.

b)

the polymerase chain reaction.

c)

translation.

d)

a point mutation.

71.

What is the term used to describe segments of eukaryotic pre-mRNA that are removed in the final synthesis of mature mRNA?

a)

exons

b)

promoters

c)

terminator

d)

introns

72.

Equivalent segments of DNA are exchanged between chromosomes as a result of

a)

crossing-over.

b)

segregation.

c)

fertilization.

d)

independent assortment.

73.

Chromosomes move toward the poles during

a)

prophase II.

b)

anaphase II.

c)

metaphase II.

d)

telophase II.

74.

Daughter cells are formed during

a)

prophase.

b)

metaphase.

c)

telophase.

d)

anaphase.

75.

This field is a collection of techniques that result in the ability to directly manipulate the genetic information of an organism.

a)

proteonomics.

b)

genetics.

c)

genomics.

d)

biotechnology.

76.

These enzymes have the ability to cut DNA at places where specific sequences of nucleotides occur.

a)

ligases

b)

ligases

c)

polymerases

d)

restriction

77.

An organelle found in animals and involved in cell division is the

a)

lysosome.

b)

Golgi apparatus.

c)

centriole.

d)

mitochondrion.

78.

The process of translation can be broken down into three basic steps. Which of the following is NOT one of these?

a)

translocation

b)

termination

c)

elongation

d)

initiation

79.

This enzyme drives the DNA replication process during the PCR.

a)

phosphorylase

b)

ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

helicases

80.

During which of the following stages of meiosis is the cell diploid?

a)

prophase II

b)

anaphase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

metaphase II

81.

When the egg leaves the oviduct, it normally passes directly into the

a)

vas deferens.

b)

ovary.

c)

abdominal cavity.

d)

uterus.

82.

Fibers extending from cell pole to cell pole are called the

a)

cell equator.

b)

cleavage furrow.

c)

spindle.

d)

cell plate.

83.

During transcription, free nucleotides of RNA bond with ____ nucleotides.

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

rRNA

d)

other tRNA

84.

The job of the placenta is primarily associated with

a)

separation of the layers of embryonic tissue.

b)

development of the outermost tissue of the embryo.

c)

nourishment and waste removal.

d)

protection of the fetus from infection.

85.

The union of a sperm and egg is called

a)

implantation.

b)

mitosis.

c)

cleavage.

d)

fertilization.

86.

When homologous chromosomes are at the equator of the cell, it is in

a)

metaphase II.

b)

telophase.

c)

metaphase I.

d)

Any of these stages.

87.

"Since every cell in this patient's body has the same genetic change, it is most likely that . . ."

a)

he acquired this change from one of his parents.

b)

he was exposed to mutagenic agents.

c)

his mother was the only source of the mutant gene.

d)

All of the choices are true.

88.

When a DNA sequence is transferred into a host cell from another cell, the resulting new form of DNA is called

a)

recombinant DNA.

b)

plasmid.

c)

a clone.

d)

GM organism.

89.

This procedure is a technique used to generate large quantities of DNA from minute amounts for analysis.

a)

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

polymerization reaction

d)

variable number tandem repeat reaction (VNTR)

90.

The discharge of blood during the human female's period indicates that the

a)

ovarian follicles have developed into the corpus luteum.

b)

corpus luteum has developed into the ovarian follicle.

c)

egg is being released from the ovary.

d)

lining of the uterus is being shed.

91.

Two chromatids are connected by a

a)

chromosome.

b)

centriole.

c)

centromere.

d)

spindle.

92.

When the chromosomes have moved around so that they all lie on a plane in the middle of the cell, the stage is called

a)

prophase.

b)

metaphase.

c)

telophase.

d)

anaphase.

93.

If a bacterial protein contains 5 amino acids, the messenger RNA that would direct its manufacture would have at least ___________ nucleotides.

a)

15

b)

10

c)

1

d)

5

94.

The process of making a DNA copy of a DNA molecule is

a)

transcription.

b)

replication.

c)

protein synthesis.

d)

translation.

95.

This term describes how cells display their genetic characteristics.

a)

transcription

b)

gene phrasing

c)

translation

d)

gene expression

96.

During which of the following stages of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?

a)

interphase

b)

telophase

c)

prophase

d)

anaphase

97.

The exchange of chromosome parts may occur during

a)

metaphase II.

b)

prophase I.

c)

telophase II.

d)

anaphase II.

98.

The structure that carries the egg cell from where it is produced to the uterus is the

a)

oviduct.

b)

uterine canal.

c)

vagina.

d)

ductus ovalis.

99.

If the haploid number for an organism is 20, the number of chromosomes in each gamete will be

a)

40

b)

20

c)

5

d)

10

100.

If a drug interferes with the activities of transfer RNA, which one of the following is likely to occur?

a)

Mutations will occur to the DNA.

b)

DNA will not be able to make copies of itself.

c)

Proteins will not be produced.

d)

Messenger RNA will not be manufactured.

101.

This occurs when insertions or deletions cause the ribosome to read the wrong sets of three nucleotides.

a)

frameshift

b)

transcription

c)

point mutation

d)

translocation

102.

This is the more technical term used by scientists to describe the carrier DNA molecule used when cloning genes.

a)

plasmid

b)

vector

c)

restriction fragment

d)

plastic

103.

During prophase ____ are formed.

a)

nucleoli

b)

spindles

c)

new chromosomes

d)

centromeres

104.

In humans, egg production (oogenesis) differs from sperm production (spermatogenesis) in that spermatogenesis

a)

produces many more cells than oogenesis.

b)

occurs for a short period of a person's life.

c)

occurs on a monthly cycle.

d)

produces polar bodies.

105.

The cells that become eggs that a woman ovulates at age 40 were initially produced

a)

when she was a fetus.

b)

at her birth.

c)

about a month before ovulation.

d)

at puberty.

106.

Which of the following is NOT needed for transcription?

a)

ribosomes

b)

DNA

c)

RNA nucleotides

d)

enzymes

107.

Homologous chromosomes separate during

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase II.

c)

anaphase I.

d)

anaphase.

108.

Spermatogenesis

a)

involves one cell dividing into 4 by mitosis.

b)

produces a few hundred cells per day.

c)

begins at birth.

d)

occurs in the seminiferous tubules.

109.

This is the process a cell goes through to become a particular cell type, based on the proteins that it expresses and is more-or-less a permanent condition.

a)

discrimination

b)

somatic cell transfer

c)

determination

d)

differentiation

110.

Sperm cells are moved out of the testes in the

a)

seminiferous tubules.

b)

fallopian tubes.

c)

vas deferens.

d)

cervical canal.

111.

The process of manufacturing RNA from template DNA is

a)

translation.

b)

protein synthesis.

c)

replication.

d)

transcription.

112.

Sperm cells are produced in the

a)

testes.

b)

vas deferens.

c)

penis.

d)

urinary bladder.

113.

If the haploid number of an organism is 6, the diploid number will be

a)

12.

b)

6.

c)

9.

d)

3.

114.

Which of the following contains a coded message of how to construct a protein?

a)

ATP

b)

tRNA

c)

ribosome

d)

mRNA

115.

During which of the following stages of meiosis does the cell contain the greatest amount of DNA?

a)

prophase II

b)

telophase II

c)

anaphase II

d)

prophase I

116.

The male gametes are

a)

semen.

b)

testes.

c)

sperm.

d)

zygotes.

117.

DNA that contains "foreign" genes from another organism

a)

can no longer function as a genetic blueprint.

b)

has experienced a point mutation.

c)

is called RNA.

d)

is called recombinant DNA.

118.

Which of these results in the production of only one gamete as a result of meiosis?

a)

Neither of these are correct.

b)

Both of these are correct.

c)

spermatogenesis

d)

oogenesis

119.

Which of the following most closely describes the cervix?

a)

an opening from the vagina to the outside

b)

a neck-like area of the ovary

c)

a region between the uterus and vagina

d)

a narrowed opening from the prostate gland

120.

This is the process a cell goes through to select which genes it will express.

a)

discrimination

b)

somatic cell transfer

c)

determination

d)

differentiation

121.

In a human, the 46 chromosomes would be at the equator during

a)

anaphase.

b)

metaphase.

c)

interphase.

d)

prophase.

122.

These cells have not yet completed determination or differentiation. They have the potential to develop into many different cell types.

a)

germinal cells

b)

stem cells

c)

red marrow cells

d)

core cells

123.

The most important applications of this technology involves the insertion of genes the make a crop plant

a)

produce alcohol for fuel.

b)

resistant to herbicides.

c)

produce medicines.

d)

generate more cells.