Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Evolution

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The transitional fossil Archaeopteryx shows a combination of traits consistent with the hypothesis that is shared a common ancestor with

a)

dinosaurs and birds

b)

reptiles and birds

c)

dinosaurs and bats

d)

hippos and whales

2.

Anatomical features that show an underlying structural similarity even though their superficial structure is different are termed

a)

dependent

b)

homoplasic

c)

symplasic

d)

homologous

3.

Radioactive dating techniques have demonstrated that Earth was formed approximately how many years ago

a)

10 billion

b)

4.6 million

c)

4.6 billion

d)

46 million

4.

Large evolutionary changes that result in the placement of related organisms into different genera or higher level taxa occur via the process of

a)

macroevolution

b)

evolutionary differentiation

c)

independent evolution

d)

microevolution

e)

speciation

5.

The concept of uniformitarianism, articulated by James Hutton in the late 1700s, states that ________

a)

the genetic code is similar among all living and extinct species

b)

mutations accumulate at a constant rate in most organisms

c)

the rate of extinction has been constant throughout the time life has existed on Earth

d)

current geological processes on Earth operate in the same manner as those that operated in the past

6.

The coccyx, a tiny tailbone found in humans, is believed to be a ________ structure.

a)

terminated

b)

vestigial

c)

rudimentary

d)

redundant

7.

In response to environmental conditions, the average beak size in a population of birds may change between successive generations. This process of change is referred to as ________.

a)

speciation

b)

microevolution

c)

sequestration

d)

macroevolution

e)

coalescence

8.

After several generations of selectively breeding mice in a laboratory, Ted Garland and his colleagues established populations of mice that voluntarily chose to run great distances on exercise wheels. The process of establishing these populations of mice is termed ________.

a)

natural selection

b)

population selection

c)

random selection

d)

experimental selection

e)

artificial selection

9.

A useless or rudimentary body part that is thought to have been important in ancestral populations but no longer has the same function is termed a(n) ________.

a)

evolved structure

b)

terminal structure

c)

residual structure

d)

vestigial structure

10.

The amount of time it takes for a radioactive element to decay to 50% of its daughter isotope is called ________.

a)

decay rate

b)

partial decay

c)

conversion rate

d)

quarter-life

e)

half-life

11.

Evolution by natural selection was conceived and written about in the 1800s by ________.

a)

Alfred Russel Wallace

b)

Patrick Matthew

c)

W.C. Wells

d)

Charles Darwin

e)

All of the above

12.

Regarding the nature of natural selection, which of the following is NOT an accurate statement?

a)

Natural selection operates as a systematic, nonprogressive mechanism.

b)

Natural selection acts on the phenotypes of individuals, but evolution occurs with changes in allele frequencies in populations.

c)

Natural selection can and does produce features that are less than perfect adaptations.

d)

Populations evolve traits by natural selection that will be useful for future environmental changes.

13.

Darwin developed his theory of natural selection despite having an incomplete and/or inaccurate knowledge base from which to work. Which of the following were problems for Darwin?

a)

the source of variations in populations

b)

an understanding of inheritance patterns from one generation to the next

c)

The accepted age of the Earth was far too young to allow for the gradual changes Darwin envisioned.

d)

All of the above.

14.

When the Darwin/Wallace theory of natural selection is summarized, four central postulates emerge. Which of the following is NOT one of these four natural selection postulates?

a)

Variations exist in any given generation of a species.

b)

Those individuals whose variations confer an advantage are more likely to survive and reproduce.

c)

Variations in traits are produced by mutations.

d)

Variations are, at least in part, heritable.

15.

Natural selection ________.

a)

can work only on populations of genetically identical individuals

b)

works regardless of the amount of genetic variability in populations

c)

works on populations, but its long-term effect is rendered on individuals

d)

works on individuals, but its long-term effect is rendered on populations

16.

Evolution by natural selection ________.

a)

can be tested experimentally

b)

requires that multiple unverified assumptions are made before it can be considered a viable explanation

c)

can be tested observationally

d)

is only a theory and therefore not testable

e)

Both C and D.

17.

Which of the following statements best summarizes natural selection?

a)

Individuals who are most fit will survive.

b)

Organisms evolve in order to become better adapted to the environment.

c)

Traits that promote survival and reproduction become more frequent in species from one generation to the next.

d)

Organisms change in order to become adapted to new environments.

18.

Varieties produced under domestication via artificial selection most generally have traits that ________.

a)

would continue to be perpetuated in the wild as well as, or better than, those produced by natural selection

b)

are based only on variations that already exist in populations

c)

are not typically well adapted in a wild setting

d)

are based only on new mutations that have arisen recently in domesticated varieties

19.

A trait that confers a greater level of fitness, relative to those who lack it, is called a(n) ________.

a)

allele

b)

adaptation

c)

variation

d)

mutation

e)

None of the above

20.

Darwin studied and wrote extensively about the mechanism known as artificial selection. Artificial selection is similar to natural selection, except that ________.

a)

natural selection works toward a specific goal

b)

artificial selection relies on preexisting variations in populations; natural selection does not

c)

artificial selection relies on preexisting variations in populations; natural selection does not

d)

artificial selection relies on preexisting variations in populations; natural selection does not

21.

In determining the evolutionary relationships of current species, one needs to ________.

a)

read along the tree tips: Species shown at the tips are arranged in patterns reflecting which groups evolved from others

b)

read "back" to nodes connecting species to determine common ancestry

c)

read along the tree tips: Species closer to each other are always more closely related

d)

read along the tree tips: Species closer to each other are always more closely related

22.

A preexisting, ancestral character is also known as a(n) ________.

a)

apomorphy

b)

pleisiomorphy

c)

synapomorphy

d)

clade

23.

The wings of bats and birds and the streamlined body form of sharks and whales represent examples of ________.

a)

a clade

b)

outgroups

c)

convergence

d)

reversal

24.

A group consisting of a common ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants is known as a ________ group.

a)

paraphyletic

b)

monophyletic

c)

polyphyletic

d)

polytomy

25.

Phylogenetic trees can always be regarded as ________ about evolutionary relationships.

a)

guesses

b)

hypothesis

c)

facts

d)

none of the above

26.

An ancestor and all of its descendants are known as a monophyletic group or a(n) ________.

a)

clade

b)

apodomorphy

c)

plesiomorphy

d)

synapomorphy

27.

A novel, derived character is also referred to as a(n) ________.

a)

apomorphy

b)

plesimorphy

c)

synapomorphy

d)

clade

28.

Every node in a phylogenetic tree represents a(n) ________.

a)

common ancestor

b)

transitional form

c)

extinction event

d)

sister species

29.

Estimating the uncertainty of phylogenetic trees using computer-generated replicates from an original data set is known as ________.

a)

bootstrapping

b)

bayesian inference

c)

a heuristic search

d)

the likelihood scenario

30.

In constructing phylogenetic trees, it is useful to think of monophyletic groups as being defined by ________.

a)

clades

b)

synapomorphies

c)

apomorphies

d)

plesiomorphoes

31.

Which of the following can produce linkage disequilibrium?

a)

selection on genotypes of more than one locus

b)

genetic drift

c)

mixing two disparate populations, each of which is in linkage equilibrium

d)

All of these choices can create linkage disequilibrium.

32.

Which of the following choices is NOT a potential disadvantage to sexual reproduction?

a)

Copulation may not produce offspring.

b)

Sexual reproduction reduces linkage disequilibrium.

c)

Finding a mate is energetically expensive.

d)

Finding a mate may increase the risk of predation.

e)

None of the above

33.

According to the accompanying figure, we can conclude that ________.

a)

the rate of decline in disequilibrium occurs more slowly with a lower rate of recombination

b)

the rate of decline in linkage disequilibrium is inversely proportional to the rate of recombination between them

c)

the rate of decline in disequilibrium occurs more quickly with a lower rate of recombination

d)

None of these is an accurate statement.

34.

When genotypes at one locus of a chromosome are nonrandomly associated with the genotypes at another locus of the same chromosome, the two loci are ________.

a)

in linkage disequilibrium

b)

in linkage equilibrium

c)

nonrandomly associated

d)

None of the above.

35.

Which of the following reduces linkage disequilibrium by disrupting overrepresented haplotypes and by generating new ones?

a)

crossing over

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

genetic recombination

d)

All of the above.

36.

When genotypes at one locus of a chromosome are independent of genotypes at another locus of the same chromosome, the two loci are ________.

a)

nonrandomly associated

b)

in linkage disequilibrium

c)

in linkage equilibrium

d)

None of the above.

37.

The creation of new combinations of alleles, as a consequence of sexual reproduction with meiosis, is called ________.

a)

outcrossing

b)

linkage disequilibrium

c)

genetic drift

d)

genetic recombination

38.

An advantage to studying linkage disequilibrium is that ________.

a)

it provides another tool enabling the reconstruction of the history of genes and populations

b)

it provides clear evidence of speciation events

c)

it can be used to identify alleles that have been recently selected by natural selection

d)

Both A and C.

39.

Traits that are conditioned by one locus are most appropriately termed ________.

a)

continuously variable traits

b)

quantitative traits

c)

environmentally conditioned traits

d)

qualitative traits

40.

To learn the location of and determine the role that QTLs have on phenotypes, researchers look for associations between a marker locus genotype and phenotype. Examples of research focusing on such methods have been conducted on ________.

a)

human diseases such as Crohn's disease

b)

the speed of thoroughbred race horses

c)

human personality traits

d)

All of the above.

41.

Determining the slope of the best-fit line for a data set of midparent versus midoffspring values by utilizing least-squares linear regression generates an estimate of heritability known as the ________.

a)

phenotypic variation

b)

broad-sense heritability

c)

environmental variation

d)

narrow-sense heritability

42.

Heritability measures ________.

a)

the degree of influence that the sum of the environmental and genetic factors have on a trait

b)

the difference between the environmental and genetic influences on a heritable trait of an individual

c)

the portion of the total variation in a trait that is due to variation in genes

d)

the distribution of the phenotypes of the individuals in a normally distributed population

43.

The total variation in a trait is known as the ________.

a)

phenotypic variation

b)

genetic variation

c)

environmental variation

d)

broad-sense heritability

e)

narrow-sense heritability

44.

Variation among individuals that is due to factors other than genetic factors is called ________.

a)

phenotypic variation

b)

environmental variation

c)

broad-sense heritability

d)

narrow-sense heritability

45.

In cases where selection consistently favors a higher (or lower) value of a trait or phenotype, the result over time is a change in the average value of a trait in the population. This mode of selection is known as ________.

a)

disruptive selection

b)

directional selection

c)

selection gradient

d)

stabilizing selection

46.

Traits that are conditioned by multiple loci and form continuously variable phenotypes that are conditioned by both the genotypes and environmental influences are most appropriately termed ________.

a)

discrete categorical traits

b)

qualitative traits

c)

Mendelian traits

d)

quantitative traits

47.

When Clausen and colleagues grew genetically identical individuals of the yarrow plant at different elevations, the results are shown in the accompanying figure. This observation verifies that ________.

a)

yarrow plants mutate quickly when grown in different environments

b)

yarrow plants grow taller at lower elevations and shorter at higher elevations regardless of their genotype

c)

the genotypes of yarrow plants has nothing to do with how tall these plants grow

d)

the genotypes of yarrow plants interacts with environmental influences to produce the phenotype

48.

Variation among individuals that is due to variation in factors other than environmental influences is called ________.

a)

phenotypic variation

b)

genetic variation

c)

broad-sense heritability

d)

narrow-sense heritability

49.

Darwin called differential reproductive success due to variation among individuals in success at getting mates ________.

a)

dimorphic selection

b)

reproductive selection

c)

sexual selection

d)

sexual success ratio

50.

Small, nonterritorial male marine iguanas typically have their mating interrupted by larger males prior to ejaculation. What alternative mating strategy have these small males developed to compensate for this?

a)

Small males have developed sperm that are more efficient at fertilization than the sperm of larger males.

b)

Small males induce ejaculation prior to copulation, and store the ejaculate in their cloacal pouches.

c)

Small males form coalitions and distract larger males to allow enough time for copulation.

d)

Small males have developed the ability to induce ejaculation much more quickly than large males.

51.

Selection for the ability to successfully compete with members of their own sex to mate with opposite sex is termed ________.

a)

intersexual selection

b)

mating selection

c)

competitive selection

d)

intrasexual selection

52.

The differences between males and females of a species are called ________.

a)

sexual dimorphism

b)

sexual morphism

c)

male/female dimorphism

d)

sexual differentiation

53.

In general, when sexual selection is strong for one sex and weak for the other, we can predict that members of the sex subject to strong sexual selection will be ________, and members of the sex subject to weak sexual selection will be ________.

a)

competitive; choosy

b)

choosy; competitive

c)

competitive; showy

d)

aggressive; passive

54.

A mating system in which at least some females mate with more than one male is termed ________.

a)

polygyny

b)

polygamy

c)

polyandry

d)

vivapary

55.

John Hoogland (1998) studied Gunnison's prairie dogs ( Cynomys gunnisoni) and observed that an increase in litter size was observed when females ________.

a)

established a large territory for mating

b)

mated with more than one male

c)

extended the time of copulation with individual males

d)

chose males that were the largest in the colony

56.

Experiments by Steve Tanner and colleagues (2000) with gray tree frogs demonstrated that female frogs preferentially mated with male frogs exhibiting ________.

a)

trilling calls over constant calls

b)

longer calls rather than shorter calls

c)

many short, repetitive calls over single long calls

d)

louder calls over softer calls

57.

In studies on the pipefish Nerophis ophidion, females are larger than males and appear to be under greater sexual selection pressure than males. The females have two traits that male pipefish of the species lack. What are these two traits?

a)

dark blue stripes and skin folds on their bellies

b)

lateral spines and skin folds on their bellies

c)

dark blue stripes and lateral spines

d)

bright orange stripes and skin folds on their bellies

58.

"Robust australopithecines," now classified in the genus Paranthropus, are distinctive as compared to other hominins because of their ________.

a)

huge teeth, faces, jaws, and jaw muscles

b)

knuckle-walking ability

c)

unusually large brains

d)

great height

59.

Which of the following organisms is NOT considered a great ape?

a)

baboon

b)

gorilla

c)

human

d)

orangutang

e)

bonobo

60.

Judging by the nature of modern humans, chimpanzees, and bonobos, which of these traits did the last common ancestor of all three probably NOT show?

a)

tool use to get and process food

b)

some form of culture

c)

a broad diet including plenty of fruit

d)

some degree of hunting

e)

strictly heterosexual mating patterns

61.

Modern humans have lost the system of air sacs that other great apes have. Whatever the reason for this loss, one resulting effect on human behavior was ________.

a)

restriction of modern humans to low altitudes

b)

increase in the sizes of Broca's and Wernecke's areas

c)

the ability to pronounce sounds more clearly

d)

loss of the ability to make loud calls

e)

improved ability to swallow

62.

Although attempts to date the divergence between humans and chimpanzees using molecular sequence data do not perfectly agree, a rough consensus from multiple analyses would place the divergence date at ________.

a)

6,000 years ago

b)

175,000 years ago

c)

65 million years ago

d)

5 to 7 million years ago

63.

The fossil Sahelanthropus tchadensis from the Djurab Desert of Chad, dated at 6 to 7 million years ago, may be a hominin (i.e., share more recent common ancestry with humans than with any other ape because of ________.

a)

the shape of its thighbones

b)

fossil footprints showing bipedal locomotion

c)

its sophisticated use of stone tools

d)

its relatively flat face

64.

Which genus or genera of hominin is/are most consistently associated with stone tools?

a)

Sahelanthropus

b)

Australopithecus

c)

Homo

d)

Paranthropus

65.

All non-African humans today show evidence of a limited amount of past interbreeding with ________.

a)

Denisovans

b)

Homo ergaster

c)

Australopithecus sediba

d)

Neandertals

66.

All of the following traits are shared by all great apes, except ________.

a)

increased flexibility of hips and ankles

b)

spoken language

c)

increased flexibility of the wrist and thumb

d)

relatively large brains

e)

absence of a tail

67.

The accompanying figure shows the percentage of pairwise genetic comparisons within sample populations of living hominids, graphed against the percentage of sequence divergence for each pair. We can conclude from the figure that ________.

a)

hominid species do not differ significantly in levels of genetic diversity

b)

humans share a more recent common ancestor with bonobos than gorillas

c)

any randomly selected pair of humans in the world should differ in their mitochondrial DNA sequences by less than 6%

d)

humans are more genetically diverse than Western chimpanzees