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7th Grade Final Quiz

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 3hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Newton's 2nd law of motion?

a)

"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."

b)

"Apples hurt when they fall on your head."

c)

"A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless it is acted upon by an external force."

d)

"The force acting on an object is equal to the mass of that object times its acceleration."

2.

This is velocity divided by time:

a)

Your mouth

b)

speed

c)

distance

d)

acceleration

3.

This is speed plus direction?

a)

Velocity

b)

Acceleration

c)

Rate of motion

d)

Quickness

4.

Gravity's effect on mass is called:

a)

Fatness

b)

Weight

c)

Mass Effect

d)

Rejection

5.

If you apply the same amount of force to two objects with different masses, the bigger object will accelerate faster or slower?

a)

Faster

b)

Slower

c)

The same

d)

It won't move

6.

If an object is accelerating, what forces are acting on it?

a)

Darkside forces

b)

Balanced forces

c)

Unbalanced forces

d)

Lightside forces

7.

What is Newton's 3rd law of motion?

a)

"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."

b)

"Apples hurt when they fall on your head."

c)

"A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless it is acted upon by an external force."

d)

"The force acting on an object is equal to the mass of that object times its acceleration."

8.

What is magnetic force?

a)

A force exerted by electrically charged particles

b)

A force exerted by magnets that can be felt by objects near a magnet

c)

A force exerted by magnets that makes an object become electrically charged

d)

A force exerted by a magnet only when it physically touches an object

9.

What is a magnetic material?

a)

A material that becomes positively charged when a magnet is brought near it.

b)

A material that produces a magnetic force.

c)

A material that becomes negatively charged when a magnet is brought near it.

d)

A material that is attracted or repelled by a magnet.

10.

Why is Earth's magnetosphere important?

a)

It deflects dangerous solar wind from the sun

b)

It keeps us in orbit around the sun

c)

it keeps the moon in orbit around the earth

d)

it prevents extraterrestrial objects from crashing into earth

11.

What happens if you cut a magnet in half?

a)

Nothing

b)

The magnets repel

c)

There will be two magnets

12.

Which is not a way to strengthen an electromagnet? Select all that apply.

a)

Use a bigger power source

b)

Use a plastic wire

c)

Use a bigger magnetic material

d)

Wrap the wire around the magnetic material more times.

13.
the process of sediment being glued together
a)
compaction
b)
weathering
c)
erosion
d)
cementation
14.

Rocks formed under great pressure but no heat are _____.

a)

igneous

b)

metamorphic

c)

sedimentary

d)

sediment

15.
Which type of rock forms from extreme heat and pressure?
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Organic
d)
Metamorphic
16.
A metamorphic rock changes into an igneous rock by what two processes?
a)
Melting and cooling
b)
Extreme heat and pressure
c)
Compaction and cementation
d)
Weathering and erosion
17.
The process by which sediment is moved from one place to another.   Can be caused by water, wind, ice, and gravity.
a)
Rock Cycle
b)
Uplift
c)
Deposition
d)
Erosion
18.

The best answer for section "A" in the diagram

a)

metamorphic/melting

b)

compaction/cementation

c)

weathering/erosion

d)

heat/pressure

19.

The best answer for section "C" in the diagram

a)

metamorphic/melting

b)

compaction/cementation

c)

weathering/erosion

d)

heat/pressure

20.

The best answer for section "B" in the diagram.

a)

metamorphic/melting

b)

compaction/cementation

c)

weathering/erosion

d)

heat/pressure

21.
this type of fossil provides evidence of the activities of ancient organisms; examples include marks left by footprints or tails
a)
mold
b)
carbon film
c)
trace
d)
cast
22.
Which item below would INCREASE the chances of making a fossil?
a)
Soft body parts
b)
Buried Right Away
c)
Left Exposed
d)
Lots of Scavenger Activity
23.
In undisturbed rock layers, the oldest layer is at the bottom and the youngest layer is at the top.
a)
Original Horizontality
b)
Cross-Cutting Relationships
c)
Unconformities
d)
Superposition
24.
Which is the youngest layer in this model
a)
H
b)
R
c)
M
d)
B
25.
Which is the second youngest layer in this model?
a)
H
b)
R
c)
M
d)
B
26.
Which layer formed before N?
a)
D
b)
K
c)
A
27.
The fault or crack represented by the letter H happened before which layer was deposited.
a)
D
b)
A
c)
M
28.

In a tectonic plate demonstration during class, Mrs. Smith

pushes two pieces of modeling clay together. What kind of

plate boundary was the teacher demonstrating?

a)

Convergent

b)

Earthquake

c)

Equator

d)

Divergent

29.

Where does magma rise to the top to become new crust?

a)

one plate splits into two distinct plates

b)

one plate grinds against another plate

c)

two plates separate and move apart from one

another.

d)

two plates meet and collide with one another.

30.

When crust is neither created nor destroyed, what boundary is it formed along?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

collisional

d)

transform

31.

Where do most volcanoes occur? Choose all that apply.

a)

convergent boundaries

b)

in deserts

c)

on coastal plains

d)

divergent boundaries

32.

When tectonic plates of more density and less density collide, what happens?

a)

The plate that is more dense fractures.

b)

The plate that is more dense rises.

c)

The plate that is less dense subducts(Goes under).

d)

The more dense plate subducts(Goes under).

33.

Continents to continent plate boundaries produce what feature when they collide?

a)

Rift Valleys

b)

Mid-ocean ridges

c)

Tall mountain ranges

d)

Deep-sea trenches

34.

Where do volcanoes and earthquakes occur?

a)

Under the flat surface of plates

b)

Above the flat surface of the plates

c)

Along plate boundaries

d)

At the center of plate

35.

Alfred Wegener proposed the Theory of Continental Drift. Which one of these does NOT support the theory Wegener proposed?

a)

Fossils that were similar were found on different continents.

b)

Bacteria was found all over the world.

c)

Shape of continents fit together to form a supercontinent called Pangea

d)

Climate seen as glacial or ice sharring are found all over the world.

36.

Rift Valley is a feature of what plate boundary?

a)

Obtrusive

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

Convergent

37.

Why does the Ring of Fire around the Pacific Ocean have the most volcanoes?

a)

boundary plates

b)

divergent plate

c)

convergent plates

d)

transform plates

38.

fossilized mark that is formed in soft sediment by the movement or actions of an animal.

a)

Petrified

b)

Mold

c)

Cast

d)

Index

e)

Trace Fossil

39.

As a part of an investigation, some scientists excavated rocky layers in an area. They found some rock samples with ancient fossils embedded in them.

What tool would help the scientists view the fossilized rock in more detail?

a)

a color filter

b)

a magnifying glass

c)

a meter stick

d)

a triple-beam balance

40.

Saying you are older than your sister is an example of?

a)

Absolute age dating

b)

Relative age dating

c)

Fossils

d)

Radioactive dating

41.

What does absolute age tell us about a rock layer or fossil?

a)

The 'exact' age of a fossil determined by radiometric dating

b)

The relative age of a fossil determined by radiometric dating

c)

Younger rock layers sit on top of older rock layers

d)

Older rock layers sit on top of younger rock layers

42.

Which fossil would make the best index fossil?

a)

Beetle

b)

Flower

c)

Frog

d)

Fish

43.

Use relative age dating to put the rock layers in correct order from oldest to youngest.

a)

B, D, A, E, C

b)

C, E, D, A, B

c)

A, C, E, D, B

d)

C, E, D, B, A

44.

Which of the fossils is the oldest?

a)

Dinosaur

b)

Bird

c)

Shell

d)

Ammonite

45.

The relative age of rock is _________

a)

Its age compared to the age of other rocks

b)

Less than the age of the fossils the rock contains

c)

The number of years since the rock formed

d)

Its age based on how much Carbon-14 the rock contains

46.

The geologic time scale is a record of _________

a)

the thickness of sedimentary rock layers

b)

The rate of fossil formation

c)

The life forms and geological events of Earth's history

d)

The time since the evolution of dinosaurs

47.

What does absolute age tell us about fossils and rock strata?

a)

the actual age in numbers

b)

a comparison age (1 thing is older than another thing)

c)

what should be used as an "index fossil"

d)

how the rock strata was formed

48.

When rock strata are placed in order of their formation based on layers, it is called ...

a)

absolute age

b)

radiometric dating

c)

relative age

d)

stacking

49.

The law of superposition states that, in horizontal layers of sedimentary rock, each layer is _____.

a)

younger than the layer above it and older than the layer below it

b)

neither older nor younger than the other layers

c)

older than the layer above it and younger than the layer below it

d)

always older than any vertical layers

50.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?
a)
a.  Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
b)
a.  Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism
c)
a.  Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
a.  Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
51.
A group of similar cells that come together to perform a specific function is a/an
a)
organ
b)
organism
c)
organ system
d)
tissue
52.
Tissue that works together to perform a function
a)
organ
b)
cell
c)
organ system
d)
organism
53.
This is a example of ........
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ 
d)
organ system
54.
Created the first cell theory
a)
Theodore Roosevelt
b)
Schleiden and Schwann
c)
Robert Hooke
d)
Ezekial Hall
55.
Examples include epithelial, connective, muscular, and nerve
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
56.
Examples include kidney, liver, heart, brain, stomach, bladder, intestines
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
57.

Which structures are unique only to plant cells?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

58.

Which cell organelle helps break down food to release energy?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Vacuole

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

59.

Which three statements are part of the cell theory?

a)

Cells are the smallest unit of living things that can perform the processes necessary for life.

b)

The basic components of life consist of a nucleus, cell membrane, and mitochondrion.

c)

All living things are composed of cells

d)

Living cells come only from other living cells

e)

Atoms are composed of cells

60.

Which organelle is much larger in plant cells than animal cells and is used to store food and waste?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Vacuole

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Chloroplasts

61.

What are organelles?

a)

Parts that come together to make an organ system.

b)

A group of similar cells that perform similar functions.

c)

A group of organs that perform similar functions

d)

Tiny structures within a cell that allow the cell to live, grow, and reproduce.

62.

When compared to a prokaryotic cell, a eukaryotic cell ...

a)

does not have a nucleus

b)

has DNA that is circular

c)

has more types of organelles

d)

stores it's DNA in a nucleus rather than in the cytoplasm

63.

There are 3 main differences between a plant and an animal cell. Plant cells contain .....

a)

a cell membrane

b)

a cell wall

c)

a nucleus

d)

a larger vacuole

e)

chloroplasts

64.

Some unicellular organisms are similar to __________ because they have the ability to __________.

a)

reptiles, lay eggs

b)

birds, fly

c)

plants, produce sound

d)

animals, move

65.

The ______________ is a membrane bound organelle that contains an organism’s genetic material and helps control and regulate cellular processes.

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

66.

Which of the following is shared by ALL cells and organisms?

a)

made of many cells

b)

needs oxygen

c)

made of a single cell

d)

ability to reproduce

67.

Bacteria, protists, fungi, and animals are all types of living things. Which of the following must be true about all these organisms?

a)

they can all move

b)

they are made up of one or more cells

c)

they can make their own food

d)

they all need oxygen

68.

A cell that has a nucleus and organelles is called a

a)

prokaryotic cell

b)

eukaryotic cell

c)

bacterial cell

d)

cytoplasmic cell

69.

Cells can divide to make more cells like themselves. What is this process called?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

development

c)

growth

d)

reproduction

70.

Which statement about cells is part of cell theory?

a)

cells are found in most living things

b)

cells with cell walls are plant cells

c)

all cells capture energy from sunlight

d)

all cells come from other living cells

71.

The part of a flower that contains the pollen

a)

stigma

b)

style

c)

anther

d)

filament

72.

Type of asexual reproduction that produces two identical cells

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

binary fission

c)

budding

d)

regeneration

73.

Type of asexual reproduction where the offspring grows out of the parent organism

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

binary fission

c)

budding

d)

regeneration

74.

Type of asexual reproduction when one plant grows new plants

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

budding

c)

regeneration

d)

binary fission

75.

Identify three animal behaviors that increase their odds of reproduction

a)

nest building

b)

bright flowers

c)

colorful feathers

d)

herding

76.

Identify three animal behaviors that help plants increase their odds of reproduction

a)

transfer seeds

b)

pollinate flowers

c)

animal waste provides fertilizer

d)

herding

77.

Identify three specialized plant structures and/or characteristics that help increase heir odds of reproduction

a)

vocalization

b)

seeds with wings that catch the wind

c)

flower odor

d)

bright colored petals

78.

Pair of genes where one is dominant and he other is recessive

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

79.

Both genes are the same

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

80.

Actual gene make-up (bb,Bb)

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

81.

Physical appearance (brown hair, blue eyes)

a)

heterogeneous

b)

homogeneous

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

82.

Some students are observing the behavior of a male bird in the schoolyard. Which of the following observed behaviors might increase the probability of reproductive success?

a)

Made a chirping sound

b)

Flew from a tree to the ground

c)

Flew away when a cat appeared

d)

Hopped along a tree branch

83.

Male widow birds (Euplectus progne) have very long tail feathers. What evidence would support the claim that these tails are used by the birds to attract mates and lead to reproductive success?

a)

In every generation, the small number of males with the longest tail feathers produce the greatest number of offspring.

b)

Even though the wingspan of males does not exceed 15 centimeters, some males have tail feathers 50 centimeters long.

c)

Only the males of the species have long tail feathers, and the females always have much shorter tail feathers.

d)

The males with the longest tail feathers are the easier to locate in their habitat than those with shorter tail feathers.

84.

Which of the following plant adaptations allows plants to use animals to transport their seeds to new locations?

a)

strong stems

b)

sweet fruit

c)

deep roots

d)

large leaves

85.

The offspring of sexually reproducing organisms can be distinguished from the offspring of asexually reproducing organisms by studying which of the following?

a)

The extent of variety in the genetic information in the population of offspring

b)

The diet and habitat requirements for each individual organism

c)

The average amount of time involved between fertilization and birth of the offspring

d)

The relative sizes in height of the organisms when they reach adulthood

86.
Which is a characteristic of a dog that is most likely a result of its environment? 
a)
its color 
b)
its length of ears 
c)
its food preference
d)
its ability to see in the dark 
87.

How will natural selection most likely produce changes?

a)

the most attractive organisms will live and reproduce

b)

the organisms that reproduce the most will survive through generations

c)

the organisms that reproduce earlier to avoid the winter will live longer

d)

the organisms that reproduce during winter will live longest

88.
The formation of any fossil is a common event
a)
True
b)
False
89.
In what way can scientists determine the ages of fossils?
a)
relative dating
b)
radioactive dating
c)
law of superposition
d)
All of the above
90.
Scientists use unstable elements that decay, called _________ elements, to determine the actual age of a fossil.
a)
radioactive
b)
cation
c)
anion
d)
petrified 
91.
What is a mass extinction?
a)
the extinction of all of Earth's species at ones time
b)
the extinction of many types of organisms at the same time
c)
the end of days
d)
the creation of many species at one time
92.
How do fossils provide evidence that evolution has happened on Earth?
a)
Fossils show how the sizes of certain animals has changed drastically over millions of years
b)
Fossils show that some species have gone extinct
c)
Fossils show how life forms present today are different than those from the past
d)
Different sedimentary rock layers provide evidence for how the environment has changed over time
93.
Which statement best describes a relationship between these organisms?
a)
Organism A was probably more primitive than Organisms B and C
b)
Organism A was probably more complex than organism B and C
c)
All of these organisms probably lived at the same time
94.
A chart or family tree that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait or disease.
a)
Carrier
b)
Karyotype
c)
Pedigree
d)
Genome
95.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
96.
The evolution of dogs from wolves is due to:
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Sexual Selection
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Vestigial Structures
97.
Which term refers to a farmer choosing the best corn from this year to plant next year?
a)
natural selection
b)
selective breeding
c)
genetic engineering
d)
genetic transformation
98.
Why aren't more scientists using gene modification?
a)
Because they are poor
b)
Because they are lazy
c)
Because of ethics and morality
d)
Because of how long it takes
99.

Mutations can be negative because

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its environment.

d)

They can affect offspring.

100.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

101.

A Dominant trait is...

a)

A trait that shows in a person's phenotype when present.

b)

The capital letter in a punnet square

c)

All of the Above

102.

A recessive trait is...

a)

A trait that shows in a person's phenotype when a dominant trait is not present

b)

The lowercase letter in a punnet square

c)

All of the Above

103.

Shows the traits that separate organisms

a)

cladogram

b)

phylogenetic tree

c)

evolutionary origin

d)

common ancestor

104.
In stage 2 (middle row) fish embryos _________
a)
are very different bird and mammal embryos.
b)
are still very similar to bird and mammal embryos.
c)
show arm and leg buds.
d)
are the only embryos with tails.
105.
In the the third embryonic stage (bottom row), mammal embryos _____
a)
have more characteristics in common with each other than with reptiles or birds.
b)
are still hard to tell from reptiles and birds.
c)
have the same features as fish, reptiles, and birds.
d)
do not have tails.
106.
Humans and bats having similar looking forelimbs is which type of evolutionary evidence?
a)
anatomical
b)
biochemical
c)
embryological
d)
geographical