wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

8th End of Year Exam Review

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In which kind of rock do we usually find a fossil?
a)
sedimentary  rock
b)
metamorphic rock
c)
igneous rock
2.
Where can the oldest layer be found?
a)
The top layer
b)
The middle layer
c)
They are all the same age
d)
The bottom layer
3.
How are fossils created?
a)
Traces of organisms get turned into stone.
b)
Dead organisms are quickly buried for millions of years.
c)
Animals get trapped.
d)
All of the above
4.
Which layer formed first?
a)
Rock Layer W
b)
Rock Layer X
c)
Rock Layer Y
d)
Rock Layer Z
5.
Several wooly mammoth fossils have been found. Mammoths, which lived hundreds of thousands of years ago, were covered with thick fur.  Based on the evidence, mammoth fossils tell us that the area in which they are found - 
a)
has too many humans 
b)
no longer has large animals 
c)
was, at one time, very cold
d)
receives more rain that it used to 
6.

Geologic processes that occur suddenly

a)

uniformitarism

b)

catastrophism

c)

geologic time scale

7.

Geologic processes that happened in the past can be explained by current processes

a)

Catastrophism

b)

Uniformitarianism

c)

Geologic Time Scale

8.

All of fossils discovered on Earth

a)

Mold

b)

Cast

c)

Fossil Record

d)

Trace Fossil

9.

Fossils in which minerals replace an organism's cells

a)

Trace Fossils

b)

Petrified Fossils

c)

Mold

d)

Cast

10.

Solid copy of the shape of an organism

a)

Cast

b)

Mold

c)

Trace Fossil

d)

Index Fossil

11.

Evidence of ancient organism such as a footprint

a)

Petrified Fossil

b)

Mold

c)

Cast

d)

Trace Fossil

12.

Breakdown of radioactive isotope to stable isotope

a)

Half-life

b)

Radioactive Decay

c)

Radiometric Dating

13.

Used to determine whether an object is older or younger than other objects

a)

Superposition

b)

Relative Dating

c)

Fossil

d)

Crosscutting

14.

States that younger rocks lie above older rocks if the layers have not been disturbed

a)

Law of crosscutting

b)

Law of superposition

c)

Relative Dating

d)

Absolute Dating

15.

An ordered arrangement of rock layers that is based on the relative ages of the rocks

a)

Superposition

b)

Crosscutting

c)

Layered

d)

Geologic Column

16.
How does the law of crosscutting explain the age of a fault?
a)
The fault is younger than the rocks above it.
b)
The fault is younger than the rocks it cuts through.
c)
The fault is older than the rocks above it.
d)
The fault is older than the rocks it cuts through.
17.
What are the relative ages of the features in order from oldest to youngest?
a)
Limestone, Basalt, Fault, Siltstone
b)
Siltstone, Fault, Basalt, Limestone
c)
Limestone, Fault, Basalt, Siltstone
d)
Limestone, Siltstone, Fault, Basalt
18.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
19.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
20.

Time needed for half of radioactive isotope to undergo radioactive decay to form daughter isotope

a)

Full-Life

b)

Half-Life

c)

Radioactive Life

21.
Scientists use radioactive decay to measure...
a)
relative time
b)
absolute time
c)
half-lives
d)
time of day
22.
The original element that undergoes radioactive decay is known as the...
a)
daughter element
b)
half-life
c)
parent element
d)
carbon-14
23.
The Earth is estimated to be how old?
a)
4.6 Million years old
b)
6,000 years old
c)
4.6 Billion years old
d)
Who knows
24.
Barium-122 has a half-life of 2 minutes. A fresh sample weighing 80 g was obtained. If it takes 10 minutes to set up an experiment using barium-122, how much barium-122 will be left when the experiment begins?
a)
0.25g
b)
2.5g
c)
25g
d)
80g
25.
The half-life of strontium-90 is 25 years. How much strontium-90 will remain after 100 years if the initial amount is 4.0 g?
a)
3.0g
b)
0.25mg
c)
0.3g
d)
0.25g
26.

What is NOT a way for fossils to be preserved?

a)

Amber

b)

Frozen

c)

Buried in sedimentary rock

d)

Buried in igneous rock

27.

As a tree grows, it forms a ring on the trunk. If the tree ring is thick, that indicates the tree grew well due to

a)

lack of precipitation

b)

plenty of precipitation

c)

more birds living in trees

d)

more squirrels living in tree

28.

What is NOT a characteristic of an index fossil?

a)

lived during short geologic time span

b)

found in large area

c)

unique features

d)

uncommon

29.

An eon is the largest unit of time on the geologic time scale. It is divided into eras which are divided into _______.

a)

periods

b)

epochs

30.

What division of time was the longest ?

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Cenozoic

d)

Precambrian

31.

What era did dinosaurs go extinct ?

a)

Paleozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Cenozoic

32.

What is the geological time scale ?

a)

A clock

b)

A calendar

c)

Something that divides Earths history into groups

33.

Put the ERAs of the Phanerozoic EON in the correct order(oldest to youngest):

a)

Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic

b)

Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Cenozoic

34.

Where is DNA found in eukaryotic cell?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Chloroplast

35.

What is a molecule in a cell that contains information a cell needs to live and function and traits an organism inherits?

a)

Nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

Allele

d)

Punnett Square

36.

What is chromatin organized in specific lengths that are rod shaped or X shaped?

a)

Gene

b)

Allele

c)

Pedigree

d)

Chromosome

37.

What holds together two chromatids?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Pedigree

c)

Gene

d)

Centromere

38.

What stage of the cell cycle does a cell spend most time in?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

39.

Which of the following is the order of the mitosis phases?

a)

Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase

b)

Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase

40.

What phase of mitosis is described: duplicated chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

41.

What phase of mitosis is described: nuclear membranes form around each complete set of chromosomes?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

42.

What phase of mitosis is described: duplicated chromosomes condense to be two chromatids held together by a centromere?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

43.

What phase of mitosis is described: chromatids from duplicated chromosomes and are pulled to opposite sides of cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

44.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
45.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
46.
Structure (c) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
47.
a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

48.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
49.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
50.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
51.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
52.
_____ chromosomes are in a human body cell. 
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
53.
A __________ cell has a full set of chromosomes. 
a)
haploid
b)
diploid
54.
In a cell, where are chromosomes located?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cell Membrane
d)
Nucleus
55.
Of the 46 chromosomes in a human body cell, they make up ______ pairs. 
a)
5
b)
12
c)
22
d)
23
56.
Of the 23 chromosome pairs, _______ pairs are homologous. 
a)
2
b)
8
c)
18
d)
22
57.
What are sex chromosomes named?
a)
A and B
b)
M and F
c)
B and P
d)
X and Y
58.
What is the arrangement of the sex chromosomes for a male?
a)
XX
b)
XY
59.
What is the only sex chromosome a female can give?
a)
X
b)
Y
60.
Based on the body cell pictured, how many chromosomes does this cell contain?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
8
61.
Based on the body cell pictured, how many chromosomes would be in this organism's sex cell?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
8
62.
___________ is a cell division that produces haploid cells.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
63.
During meiosis _____, the two cells are divided into four haploid cells. 
a)
I
b)
II
64.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
65.
How are your chromosomes inherited?
a)
most of your chromosomes from your mother
b)
most of your chromosomes from your father
c)
a random number of chromosomes from each parent
d)
half your chromosomes from your mother and half from your father.
66.

What allele is represented by a capital letter?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

67.

A _______________ allele will only show in an organism's phenotype if they are two present.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

68.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
69.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
70.

Classify the following genotype: FF

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

71.

Classify the following genotype: rr

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous Recessive

c)

Homozygous Dominant

72.

Classify the following genotype: Ee

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

73.

The following genotype BB is classified as a _____________.

a)

purebred

b)

hybrid

74.

The genotype Cc is classified as ____________.

a)

purebred

b)

hybrid

75.

What are the possibilities of the phenotypes for the offspring? (A=brown hair and a=blond hair)

a)

50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair

b)

25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair

c)

75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair

d)

0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair

76.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
77.

_________________ are useful to trace sex-linked disorders associated with alleles on sex chromosomes.

a)

Punnett squares

b)

Pedigrees

78.

Who developed the theory of evolution?

a)

Darwin

b)

Mendel

c)

Newton

d)

Einstein

79.

What is a trait that increases an organism's ability to survive and reproduce?

a)

homologous

b)

vestigial

c)

variation

d)

adaptation

80.
When all of the organisms of a species have died it is called
a)
evolution
b)
extinction
c)
adaptation
d)
natural selection
81.

What is this an example of?

a)

homologous structures

b)

variation

c)

unused structures

d)

DNA similarties

82.

What is this an example of?

a)

unused structures

b)

patterns of early development

c)

homologous structures

d)

fossil record

83.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light 
b)
dark
84.

The cause of artificial selection is…

a)

the environment

b)

humans

c)

variations

d)

adaptations

85.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
86.

Which term refers to the process by which individuals that inherit advantageous traits survive and reproduce more successfully than other organisms?

a)

Evolution

b)

Variation

c)

Adaptation

d)

Natural Selection

87.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
88.

Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?

a)

naturalist

b)

population

c)

species

d)

fossil

89.

Change over time...

a)

Evolution

b)

Naturalist

c)

Extinction

d)

Overproduction

90.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers 
b)
Genotypes 
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
91.

The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________

a)

Species

b)

Evolution

c)

Adaptation

d)

Variation

92.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
93.

The opossum and kangaroo both incubate their young in a pouch. This provides evidence that they

a)

are descended from a common ancestor

b)

have very similar skeletal structures

c)

belong to the same species

d)

must travel great distances to eat

94.

Which terms describes all of the fossils that have been discovered?

a)

Common Ancestor

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Evolution

d)

Fossil Record

95.

The following image is a mammoth. Which trait most suggests that the mammoth was adapted to live in a cold climate?

a)

Long, flexible trunk

b)

Sharp, curved tusks

c)

Broad, powerful body

d)

Thick, furry coat

96.

At which point does the ball has the greatest gravitational potential energy (GPE)?

a)

A

b)

G

c)

D

d)

C

e)

G

97.

Which of the following is the correct equation for calculating an object's gravitational potential energy?

a)

GPE = mgh

b)

GPE = mg / h

c)

GPE = mg + h

d)

GPE = gh

98.

What is the value of the Earth's acceleration due to gravity (g)?

a)

9.8 m/s2

b)

100 m/s2

c)

25 m/s2

d)

3.14 m/s2

99.

What is the gravitational potential energy (GPE) of a 1 kilogram book that is 1 meter above the ground?

a)

9.8 Joules

b)

1.0 Joule

c)

0.10 Joule

d)

11.8 m/s2

100.
Calculate the KE of a moving 4 kilogram object traveling at a velocity of 3 m/s.
a)
18 J
b)
36 J
c)
12 J
d)
6 J
101.

A rubber band is an example of _______________ potential energy.

a)

gravitational

b)

elastic

c)

chemical

102.

Food is an example of ___________ potential energy.

a)

chemical

b)

gravitational

c)

elastic

103.

Combination of all forces acting on object

a)

force

b)

contact forcef

c)

field

d)

net force

104.

Push or pull

a)

field

b)

force

c)

gravity

d)

drag

105.

Forces on object produce a net force that is 0 N, no motion

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

106.

Forces on object produce a net force that is not 0 N, results in motion

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

107.

Area in which object experiences a force at a distance

a)

force

b)

drag

c)

field

d)

friction

108.

Force exerted during contact between objects

a)

distance force

b)

contact force

c)

gravitational force

d)

friction

109.
Find the net force: 15 N to the right, and another 15 newtons to the right.
a)
0 N Right
b)
0 N Left
c)
30 N Left
d)
30 N Right
110.
8 N to the left , and 4 N to the right. Find the net force. Is this balanced 
a)
12 N Right  No
b)
4 N Left  No
c)
12 N Right  Yes
d)
4 N Left  Yes
111.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
112.

If a 10 kilogram object accelerates suddenly at 15 m/s2, how much force was applied to the object?

a)

150 Newtons

b)

15 Newtons

c)

150 kilograms

d)

100 kilograms

113.

If a force of 500 Newtons was applied to an object with a mass of 50 kilograms, what will the object's acceleration be?

a)

10 m/s2

b)

100 m/s

c)

100 m/s2

d)

1 m/s2

114.

If an object was accelerating at 10 m/s2, and a force of 10 newtons was required to accelerate it, what was the object's mass?

a)

1 kilogram

b)

10 kilograms

c)

2 kilograms

d)

5 kilograms

115.

What is the force of a falling object that has a mass of 40 kg?

a)

9.8 N

b)

40 N

c)

392 N

d)

39.2 N

116.
The Law of Inertia
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
117.
F=ma
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
118.
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
119.
The harder you hit a baseball, the faster it accelerates.
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
120.
As the fuel in a rocket ignites, the force of gas expansion and explosion pushes out the back of the rocket and pushes the rocket forward.
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
121.

If two chairs with different masses are dropped out of a window and air resistance is ignored, then

a)

the heavier chair will hit the ground first

b)

the lighter chair will hit the ground first

c)

neither chair will hit the ground and they will float

d)

they will hit the ground at the same time

122.

Which of the following would have the most inertia, thus the most tendency to resist a change in motion?

a)

feather

b)

tablet

c)

a dog

d)

semi-truck

123.

Why don't action/reaction forces not cancel when part of the 3rd law of motion?

a)

They do cancel; net force is balanced.

b)

They act on the same object.

c)

They act on different objects.

d)

Gravity prevents them from cancelling.

124.
Magnetism is a type of ____________
a)
force
b)
book
c)
plant
d)
animal
125.
A north pole and a south pole will attract.
a)
True
b)
False
126.
How is a permanent magnet DIFFERENT from a temporary magnet?
a)
A permanent magnet attracts materials made of iron.
b)
A permanent magnet has poles.
c)
A permanent magnet has a magnetic field.
d)
A permanent magnet keeps its magnetism for a long time.
127.
Where is the force of attraction the strongest on a magnet?
a)
at the poles
b)
in the middle
c)
above the magnet
d)
below the magnet
128.

Why does a compass needle point north?

a)

The compass is a bar magnet

b)

Because north is up

c)

Because it's magic

d)

It lines up with the Earth's magnetic field and is attracted to south magnetic pole

129.

What are the lines around the magnet called?

a)

Electric field lines

b)

Magnetic field lines

c)

North pole field lines

d)

South pole field lines

130.

Both magnetic forces and electric forces are ___________.

a)

contact forces

b)

forces that act at a distance

131.
Electric charges that are different _______ each other.
a)
Attract
b)
Repel
132.
What charge does a proton have?
a)
negative (-)
b)
positive (+)
c)
neutral or no charge (0)
133.
What charge does an electron have?
a)
negative (-)
b)
positive (+)
c)
neutral or no charge (0)
134.
The accumulation of excess electric charge on an object is called
a)
Static electricity 
b)
Electric discharge
c)
Resistance
d)
Circuit 
135.

What is the meaning of conduction ?

a)

Having to objects TOUCH each other and transfer protons from one object to the next.

b)

Having to objects touch each other and transfer electrons from one object to the next.

c)

Having to objects touch each other and seperate protons from one object to the next.

d)

None of the above

136.

An electric ____________ is the fundamental property of matter that leads to electromagnetic interactions between particles that make up matter.

a)

field

b)

charge

c)

force

137.

An electric _________ surrounds a charged object when an electric force is exerted another charged object.

a)

force

b)

field

c)

charge

138.

An electric ___________ occurs between charged objects.

a)

charge

b)

field

c)

force

139.

the path that an electric current takes

a)

electrical circuit

b)

static electricty

c)

electric force

d)

electric current

140.

a complete loop without any breaks in it through which electric current flows

a)

open circuit

b)

closed circuit

141.

a material in which electric charge cannot easily flow

a)

conductor

b)

insulator

142.

a material through which electric charge can easily flow

a)

conductor

b)

insulator

143.
The actual flow of electrons is called _______.
a)
Molecule
b)
Magnetism
c)
Current
d)
Electrica
144.

Battery is

a)

AC source

b)

DC source

c)

none of the above

d)

all of the above

145.
What is the type of circuit that stops working when one bulb goes out?
a)
A broken circuit
b)
Parallel Circuit
c)
Series Circuit
d)
A metal circuit
146.
What type of circuit is used in your house?
a)
Light Circuits
b)
The best circuits
c)
Series Circuits
d)
Parallel Circuits
147.

What are the 3 basic components of a circuit?

a)

voltage difference, conductors, device using electrical energy

b)

Battery, voltage difference, conductors

c)

Battery, Wire, conductors

d)

ALL of them

148.

What is the power source in this circuit?

a)

Bulb

b)

Switch

c)

Wire

d)

Battery

149.
What kind of circuit is this?
a)
Series
b)
Consecutive
c)
Parallel
d)
Training
150.

What type of circuit is shown?

a)

Parallel

b)

Series

c)

Open

151.
a)
Series circuit - Bulbs are lit
b)
Series circuit - Bulbs are off
c)
Parallel circuit - Bulbs are lit
d)
Parallel circuit - Bulbs are off
152.

This circuit does not work because…

a)

the bulbs are not connected properly

b)

the two batteries are not powerful enough

c)

there is a break in the circuit

d)

the two batteries are not arranged correctly

153.
What will happen if one light bulb is removed from this circuit?
a)
The other bulbs will go out.
b)
The other bulbs will stay on
c)
The other bulbs will get dimmer.
d)
The battery will become stronger.
154.
What is an electromagnet?
a)
a temporary magnet made from current carrying wire around a magnetic metal core.
b)
a permanent magnet with a north and south pole
155.
How are electromagnets different from magnets?
a)
magnets can be turned on/off
b)
you can turn an electromagnet on/off
c)
magnets are more powerful
d)
magnets have a North and South pole
156.

_____________ is the relationship between electricity and magnetism.

a)

Magnetismelectro

b)

Electricity

c)

Electromagnetism

d)

Solenoid

157.

Coil of wire with current

a)

Solenoid

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Electrical Insulator

159.

Solenoid with a ferromagnetic core

a)

Electrical insulator

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Magnet

159.

Solenoid with a ferromagnetic core

a)

Electrical insulator

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Magnet

160.

Converts mechanical energy to electrical energy

a)

Electric Motor

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Generator

161.

Who was the physicist who discovered that electric current produces a magnetic field?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Hans Christian Oersted

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Isaac Newton

162.

Electrical companies use generators to produce electricity. It is then transmitted over long distances at high voltages using a step-up _______________.

a)

motor

b)

generator

c)

electromagnet

d)

transformer

Similar Resources on Wayground

Enrichment 4/12 - 8th Science STAAR Review

164 questions

Enrichment 4/12 - 8th Science STAAR Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Year 8 end of year practice quiz

161 questions

Year 8 end of year practice quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 8th Grade

FSA Review

164 questions

FSA Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Fall EOC Quizziz Review

158 questions

Fall EOC Quizziz Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

SEL-IZAM

167 questions

SEL-IZAM

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

SAM-IS-4TH QUARTER

160 questions

SAM-IS-4TH QUARTER

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 9th Grade