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Extra Credit - 8th Science STAAR Review = 2 points

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 7hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which situation causes organisms in populations to increase competition?

a)

Abundance of resources

b)

Increased food availability

c)

Scarce resources

d)

Ecosystem in equilibrium

2.

Which location has the greatest biodiversity?

a)

Tundra

b)

Desert

c)

Rain Forest

d)

Taiga

3.

Which statement is NOT a component of the cell theory?

a)

All living organisms are composed of cells

b)

Cells are made from other cells

c)

All cells have a defined nucleus

d)

Cells are the basic units of life.

4.

Organisms reproduce both sexually and asexually. Sexual reproduction produces offspring with cells from two parents. Asexual reproduction produces offspring with cells from one parent. Sexual reproduction has an advantage over asexual reproduction due to all the following EXCEPT

a)

Organisms that reproduce sexually are more diverse and varied in cellular composition

b)

Variations in organisms allow for greater success in a changing environment

c)

Offspring from asexual reproduction have strong cells due to less variation

d)

Offspring are able to share genetic characteristics of both parents

5.

What kind of ecological succession would occur after a forest fire?

a)

Primary succession

b)

Intermediate succession

c)

Climax succession

d)

Secondary succession

6.
a)

A long-term environmental change where only offspring of current organisms survive

b)

A long-term environmental change where producers survive and reestablish themselves in the newly exposed soil

c)

A short-term environmental change where trees no longer anchor soil

d)

A short-term environmental change where disease destroys organisms that are stressed from the landslide

7.
a)

Line A, because primary succession takes longer than secondary succession

b)

Line A, because secondary succession takes longer than primary succession

c)

Line B, because primary succession takes longer than secondary succession

d)

Line B, because secondary succession takes longer than primary succession

8.
a)

Endocrine system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Reproductive system

d)

Excretory system

9.
a)

Part W

b)

Part X

c)

Part Y

d)

Part Z

10.
a)

To breakdown and absorb nutrients necessary for growth

b)

To relay signals through the body and control behavior, movement, and processes

c)

To produce hormones the body uses to maintain balance

d)

To filter out cellular wastes, toxins, and excess water or nutrients

11.
a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Mitochondria

12.

Which item identifies a difference between plant and animal cells?

a)

The presence of cytoplasm

b)

The presence of a cell membrane

c)

The presence of a nucleus

d)

The presence of chloroplasts

13.
a)

excretory system

b)

muscular system

c)

digestive system

d)

reproductive system

14.

Students learned that the job of one body system is to filter out cellular wastes, toxins, and excess water or nutrients. Which body system has this function?

a)

Excretory system

b)

Muscular system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Skeletal system

15.

Which is NOT an example of how humans depend on ocean systems?

a)

Climate regulation

b)

Source for natural resources

c)

Excess carbon dioxide production

d)

Transportation

16.
a)

Water

b)

Soil composition

c)

Sunlight

d)

Wind to spread seeds

17.

What s the best description of the forces acting on the cylinder?

a)

The cylinder will move to the left with a force of 192 N

b)

The cylinder will move to the right with a force of 61 N

c)

The cylinder will move to the right with a net force of 192 N

d)

The cylinder will not move, with forces on both sides of 61 N

18.

What statement accurately reflects the relationship between speed and velocity?

a)

Speed and velocity are the same

b)

Speed and velocity are not related

c)

Velocity is speed plus direction

d)

Speed is velocity plus direction

19.

A golfer hit a ball 230 m from the tee to the green. The ball traveled south and anded on the green in 4 seconds. What was the ball's speed?

a)

57.5 m/s south

b)

57.5 m/s north

c)

57.5 m/s

d)

Not here

20.

Which situation best explains Newton's first law of motion?

a)

Seat belts keep passengers restrained during a car wreck

b)

Carbon dioxide gas pushes up on a canister lid while the canister lid pushes down on the gas, causing an Alka-Seltzer rocket to launch

c)

Tectonic plates push against each other

d)

A baseball player hits the ball with enough force to score a home run

21.
a)
b)
c)
d)
22.

Which of the following describes the energy changes during photosynthesis?

a)

Mechanical energy to thermal energy

b)

Light energy to mechanical energy

c)

Chemical energy to thermal energy

d)

Light energy to chemical energy

23.
a)

Point W

b)

Point X

c)

Point Y

d)

Point Z

24.
a)

The object is returning to start

b)

The object is decreasing speed

c)

The object is not moving

d)

The object is traveling at constant speed

25.

A science teacher states if two ice skaters with approximately the same mass push against one another with the same force, they will move away from one another at the same speed and same distance. What scientific evidence supports the teacher as correct?

a)

Newton's first law of motion

b)

Newton's second law of motion

c)

Newton's third law of motion

d)

Newton's fourth law of motion

26.
a)

80 kg

b)

5 kg

c)

10 kg

d)

Not here

27.

Which statement best describes the energy of the pitcher?

a)

Position A is mostly potential, Position B is some potential, but mostly kinetic, and Position C is mostly kinetic

b)

Position A is mostly kinetic, Position B is some potential, but mostly kinetic, and Position C is mostly potential

c)

Position A is mostly kinetic, Position B is mostly potential, and Position C is some potential, but mostly kinetic

d)

Position A is mostly potential, position B is mostly kinetic, and Position C is some potential, but mostly kinetic

28.

A student calculates the density of a lead fishing weight to be 11.4. According to the International System of Units (SI), what is the appropriate unit to designate the calculated value as density?

a)

g/cm3

b)

g/mL

c)

m/s

d)

m/s2

29.

Which characteristic of an atom is NOT used to determine the number of neutrons in an atom?

a)

Protons

b)

Atomic number

c)

Atomic mass

d)

Electric charge

30.

How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of camphor? C10H16O

a)

16

b)

10

c)

26

d)

27

31.

Which model has properties most similar to chlorine?

a)

Model A

b)

Model B

c)

Model C

d)

Model D

32.

Two students complete a lab using two unknown substances in a chemical reaction. Which sign is NOT an indication of a chemical reaction?

a)

Shape change

b)

Bubbles

c)

Temperature

d)

Odor change

33.

Which example describes a chemical change that occurs during the digestion of food?

a)

Saliva breaking down the starch in potatoes into simpler sugars

b)

Teeth grinding cookie into smaller pieces

c)

Esophagus moving food particles from the mouth to the stomach

d)

Large intestine absorbing water from waste to be removed from the body

34.
a)

Aluminum

b)

Silicon

c)

Magnesium

d)

Iron

35.
a)

Slightly reactive

b)

Nonreactive

c)

Very reactive

d)

Reactivity cannot be determined from the information provided

36.
a)

Substances I and III

b)

Substances II and III

c)

Substances I and IV

d)

Substances I,II, and IV

37.

Based on information provided in the periodic table, which statement correctly describes the reactivity of elements?

a)

Silicon is more reactive than aluminum and has properties similar to phosphorus

b)

Calcium is more reactive than arsenic and has properties similar to radium

c)

Xenon is nonreactive and has properties similar to iodine

d)

Cesium is nonreactive and has properties similar to francium

38.
a)

Sulfur, Carbon, Iron

b)

Carbon, Aluminum, Graphite

c)

Carbon, Sulfur, Graphite

d)

Iron, Aluminum, Graphite

39.

A scientist determines an unknown metallic sample to have 77 protons and 77 electrons with a mass number of 192. How many neutrons does one metal atom contain?

a)

115

b)

154

c)

346

d)

77

40.

Dissolving sugar in water is an example of what type of change?

a)

Digestive change

b)

Physical change

c)

Chemical change

d)

Physical and Chemical change

41.

Which element is best described by the information in the table?

a)

Helium (He)

b)

Strontium (Sr)

c)

Tin (Sn)

d)

Radium (Ra)

42.

How many oxygen atoms are in the following chemical formula? Al2(CO3)3

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

18

43.
a)

Highly reactive gas

b)

Manmade radioactive substance

c)

Nonreactive nonmetal

d)

Metallic solid

44.

a)

Area 1

b)

Area 2

c)

Area 3

d)

Area 4

45.

What element contains 7 protons and 5 valence electrons?

a)

Boron

b)

Vanadium

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Lithium

46.

An element has 27 protons, 27 electrons, and 32 neutrons. Calculate the atomic mass of this element.

a)

59

b)

27

c)

32

d)

86

47.

If an atom has 12 protons, 13 neutrons, and 12 electrons, what is the charge of the nucleus?

a)

+12

b)

-13

c)

-12

d)

+13

48.

Where would the sun appear in the diagram below if A is experiencing winter?

a)

Location W

b)

Location X

c)

Location Y

d)

Location Z

49.
a)

The moon was a waning crescent on the 19th and gradually became a third quarter moon.

b)

The moon was waning and gradually became a full moon

c)

There was a first quarter moon on the 24th, and there will be a full moon on the 27th

d)

The moon was a waxing crescent on the 19th and gradually became a first quarter moon.

50.

The wave used to determine the elemental composition of a star is classified as which type of wave on the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

Gamma

b)

Ultraviolet

c)

Visible

d)

X-ray

51.

When the parts of the model are positioned as shown, the model demonstrates?

a)

neap tide

b)

fall tide

c)

spring tide

d)

winter tide

52.

Which of the following points is the correct location of our sun?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

53.

Convergent boundaries are areas where plates move toward each other and collide, causing uplift in the crust. Which crustal feature formation is related to this process?

a)

Oceanic ridges

b)

Strike-slip fault

c)

Rift zones

d)

Mountain ranges on land

54.

How does temperature affect deep ocean currents?

a)

The sun warms water near the surface, which is less dense than cold water

b)

The sun warms water near the surface, which is more dense than cold water

c)

The sun warms water deep in the ocean, which is less dense than cold water

d)

The sun warms water deep in the ocean, which is more dense than cold water

55.
a)

The animals were carried on boats as people moved to new areas

b)

The animals migrated across the ocean in search of food

c)

The continents were once connected

d)

There were no oceans during the time these animals lived

56.

How does acid rain impact water sources?

a)

Polluted rain enters surface water sources

b)

Acid rain removes pollutants from water

c)

Acid rain improves soil to filter water

d)

Polluted rain decreases runoff by harming plants

57.

Which moon phase will be seen by a person in North America when the moon is in position 3?

a)

New moon

b)

Waning crescent

c)

Full moon

d)

Waxing gibbous

58.

During which moon phases are tides the lowest?

a)

Waxing and waning gibbous

b)

First and third quarter

c)

New and full

d)

Waxing and waning crescent

59.
a)

The sun is much larger than other stars in the sky

b)

The sun is the closest star to Earth so it looks much larger

c)

The sun emits more energy than other stars

d)

The sun is thousand times larger than Earth

60.

A student makes a hurricane in a bottle using a 2-liter soda bottle. The model demonstrates hurricane formation. What factors should be included for how a hurricane forms?

a)

Hot and dry air

b)

Warm ocean water and low pressure

c)

Cold and salty water

d)

Warm and salty water

61.

According to the data shown above, approximately where would the sun be located on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?

a)

Location W

b)

Location X

c)

Location Y

d)

Location Z

62.

A group of students models crustal movement to understand stress caused by plate movement. The students demonstrate compression by squeezing a piece of aluminum foil with equal pressure from both hands. What type of crustal feature is the group most likely forming?

a)

A divergent boundary that forms an ocean ridge

b)

A convergent boundary that forms a volcano

c)

A transform boundary that forms a fault line

d)

A divergent boundary that forms a volcano

63.
a)

Warm front

b)

Occluded front

c)

Cold front

d)

Stationary front

64.
a)

Melting glaciers

b)

Rivers

c)

Watershed

d)

All of the above

65.

Seafloor spreading causes the continents of South America and Africa to move farther apart each year. What type of plate boundary causes this crustal feature?

a)

Subduction Zone

b)

Transform boundary

c)

Convergent boundary

d)

Divergent boundary

66.

What type of stars would be found along line A?

a)

White dwarfs

b)

Main sequence

c)

Supergiants

d)

Red giants

67.

Which phase at the beginning of a star's life can be described as an interstellar cloud of dust with hydrogen and helium gases?

a)

Mian sequence

b)

Black hole

c)

Protostar

d)

Nebula

68.

What lunar phase appears prior to the phase shown below?

a)

First quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

Waxing crescent

d)

Waning gibbous

69.

Which moon phase occurred on January 5?

a)

Waxing crescent

b)

Waxing gibbous

c)

Full moon

d)

First quarter moon

70.

In the diagram above, the Northern Hemisphere would be in what season at position A?

a)

Fall

b)

Spring

c)

Summer

d)

Winter

71.
(8.7A) Which of these locations on Earth experiences the least change in the number of daylight hours throughout the year?
a)
Equator
b)
North Pole
c)
Tropic of Cancer
d)
Tropic of Capricorn
72.
(8.7A) Earth would not have seasons if it-
a)
no longer tilted on its axis
b)
stopped rotating on its axis
c)
took and additional month of orbit the sun
d)
revolved around the sun in the opposite direction.
73.
(8.10C) Hurricanes and similar storm systems begin over oceans. The map below shows average surface temperatures of the oceans in the summer.
Based on the map, which area probably produced the most violent storm systems?
a)
Area 1
b)
Area 2
c)
Area 3
d)
Area 4
74.
What is this moon phase?
a)
This is the waxing crescent phase.
b)
This is the full moon phase.
c)
This is the waxing gibbous phase.
d)
This is the last quarter moon.
75.
A student stands at the point marked X on the topographic map below.
What height in meters must the student climb in order to reach the top of the hill?
a)
245 m
b)
253 m
c)
236 m
d)
260 m
76.
All stars begin as a __________?
a)
giant
b)
black hole
c)
white dwarf
d)
nebula
77.
Very hot stars are what color? 
a)
Blue
b)
Yellow
c)
Red
d)
Orange
78.
lines on a map that connect areas of the same elevation
a)
longitude lines
b)
latitude lines
c)
contour lines
d)
contour interval
79.
Which object in our solar system reflects light and is a satellite around one planet?
a)
Earth
b)
The sun
c)
Mercury
d)
The moon
80.
At which point is the Northern Hemisphere experiencing winter?
a)
position 1
b)
position 2
c)
position 3
d)
position 4
81.
Which list shows things in order of size - starting with the smallest?
a)
galaxy - star - planet
b)
planet - star - galaxy
c)
star - planet - galaxy
d)
star - galaxy - planet
82.
The Sun rises and sets every day because:
a)
the Sun moves around the Earth.
b)
the Earth moves around the Sun.
c)
the Earth spins on its axis once every 12 hours.
d)
the Earth spins on its axis once every 24 hours.
83.
What moon phase is this picture?
a)
This is the full moon phase.  
b)
This is the waxing crescent moon phase.
c)
This is the waning gibbous moon phase.
d)
This is the waning crescent moon phase.
84.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 2?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
85.
When the Moon is on the opposite side of Earth from the Sun, what is the phase?
a)
Full
b)
New
c)
Quarter
d)
Gibbous
86.
What is the profile view to Topographic Map #2?
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E
87.
Deltas forming at the mouths of rivers would be an example of...
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
d)
Preposition
88.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a)
6 and F
b)
1 and A
c)
1 and B
d)
2 and C
89.
What feature is at the arrow?
a)
volcano
b)
mountain
c)
cliff
d)
river
90.
If we were in a plane, Path B --> C is about the same distance as path E --> N. But, which path is the easier walk? 
a)
B --> C is the easier walk
b)
E --> N is the easier walk
c)
B --> C and E --> N are the same walking distance
91.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest energy? 
a)
radio waves
b)
microwaves
c)
infrared light
d)
visible light
92.
What is a difference between spring and neap tides?
a)
Spring tides occur when the earth and sun are IN LINE with the new or full moon. 
b)
Spring tides occur when moon in 3rd or 1st quarter phases
c)
Spring tides are LOWER than neap tides
d)
Spring tides occur in Spring and neap tides can occur in any season
93.

What is Newtons 3rd law?

a)

Everything has an equal an opposite reaction

b)

An object in motion stays in motion

c)

an object in rest stays in rest

d)

F=ma

94.

What plate boundary causes earthquakes?

a)

Subduction

b)

Transform

c)

Divergent

d)

Convergent

95.

What are stars mostly made of?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Cookies

96.
the tiny particles that make up an atom; proton, neutron and electron.
a)
atom
b)
electron cloud
c)
nucleus
d)
subatomic particles
97.
the positively charged particle that is found in an atom's nucleus.
a)
subatomic particle
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
electron
98.
the neutral particle that is found in the atom's nucleus.
a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
nucleus
99.
the negatively charged particle that is found in the atom's electron cloud.
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
nucleus
100.
the central area of the atom that contains the protons and neutrons.
a)
nucleus
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
neutron
101.
the electron(s) found in the outermost electron shell (ring) that determines an atom's reactivity.
a)
valence electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
electron
102.
the sum of protons and neutrons that determines an atom's mass
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
nucleus
d)
neutron
103.
the number that identifies an element; indicates the number of protons
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
proton number
d)
electron number
104.
describes how easy it is for an atom to combine with other atoms to form a compound.
a)
reactivity
b)
electrons
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
105.
an element that is malleable (ductile), is a conductor and has a shiny luster
a)
metal
b)
non metal
c)
metalloid
106.
the columns in The Periodic Table of Elements that contain elements with the same valence electrons and reactivity.
a)
group
b)
period
c)
row
107.
the rows in The Periodic Table of Elements that contain elements with the same number of electron shells (rings)
a)
period
b)
column
c)
group
d)
family
108.
an element that is brittle, dull and and insulator
a)
non metal
b)
metalloid
c)
metal
109.
an element that has both metal and non metal properties; found along the stairs (zig zag)
a)
metalloid
b)
metal
c)
non metal
110.
the group 18 elements that are not reactive
a)
Non Reactive metals
b)
Noble Gases
c)
Reactive gases
111.
a change that results in a new substance
a)
physical change
b)
chemical change
112.
a combination of chemical symbol(s) and number(s) that indicates the elements and how many atoms it contains
a)
chemical formula
b)
chemical reaction
113.
a combination of chemical formulas that indicates the reactants and products of a chemical reaction
a)
chemical equation
b)
chemical formula
c)
chemical reaction
114.
in a chemical formula, the small number that is written below the symbol that indicates the number of atoms
a)
coefficient
b)
subscript
c)
chemical symbol
d)
superscript
115.
in a chemical equation, the chemicals written before the arrow that indicate the chemicals that react  during a chemical reaction
a)
reactants
b)
products
c)
reacting group
116.
in a chemical equation the chemicals that are written after the arrow, indicating the chemicals that were formed
a)
chemical formula
b)
molecules
c)
reactants
d)
products
117.
the solid that forms  when two clear liquids are mixed during a chemical reaction
a)
precipitate
b)
solid
c)
solute
d)
solvent
118.
a change that does not form a new substance
a)
chemical change
b)
physical change
119.
any change in an object's motion; change in direction, speed or velocity
a)
acceleration
b)
chemical change
c)
motion
d)
constant motion
120.
the sum of all forces acting on an object
a)
acting force
b)
inertia
c)
gravity
d)
net force
121.
the tendency for an object to stay in motion or to stay at rest
a)
friction
b)
gravity
c)
motion
d)
inertia
122.
how fast an object is moving; calculated by dividing distance by time
a)
speed
b)
acceleration
c)
inertia
d)
motion
123.
when forces acting on an object are equal or cancel out; causes no motion or no change in motion
a)
speed
b)
force
c)
balanced force
d)
unbalanced force
124.
speed with direction
a)
velocity
b)
speed
c)
acceleration
d)
motion
125.
one of Newton's Law of Motion that explains the tendency of an object to continue moving or not moving
a)
Newton's Law of Inertia
b)
Newton's Law of Force and Acceleration
c)
Newton's Law of Action-Reaction
126.
one of Newton's Law of Motion that explains that a large object will require a large force to make it move, while a small object will require a small force to make it move
a)
Newton's Law of Inertia
b)
Newton's Law of Force and Acceleration
c)
Newton's Law of Action-Reaction

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