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WorksheetsCell & Genetics (MS Science Bowl)
Total questions: 143
Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following does NOT occur in mitosis:
a)
DNA synthesis
b)
sets of sister chromatids line up singly
c)
sister chromatids separate as the centromere divides
d)
spindle fibers help in the movement of chromosomes
2.
In which of the following stages in the life of an average dividing cell would it spend most of its time:
a)
mitosis
b)
interphase
c)
cytokinesis
d)
karyokinesis
3.
Which of the following is a general term widely used by scientists to indicate artificial growth of cells in the laboratory:
a)
culture
b)
monocell
c)
attenuate
d)
decoction
4.
A mutant fly is observed with an antenna growing out of the abdomen, rather than the head. Which of the following gene types is most likely involved in this kind of mutation?
a)
Immunoglobin
b)
Sensory
c)
Homeotic
d)
Receptor
5.
The nucleolus is the primary site for the manufacture of which of the following?
a)
ribosomes
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
messenger RNA
6.
Consider a cross of a pea plant having white flowers with a pea plant having red flowers. Of 50 seedlings from this cross, 25 produce white flowers and 25 produce red flowers. If white is dominant, which of the following is the BEST description for the genetic makeup of the white flowering parent plant:
a)
homozygous for white flowers
b)
heterozygous
c)
homozygous for red flowers
d)
co-dominant for white and red
7.
Because DNA polymerase (read as: poh-LIM-eh-rayz) is not able to synthesize DNA in the 3 prime to the 5 prime direction, how do eukaryotes (read as: yuh-KEHR-ee-ōets) prevent loss of base pair sequences from chromosome ends?
a)
Mismatch repair
b)
Nucleotide excision repair
c)
Topoisomerase (read as: tōe-pōe-y-SOH-meh-rayz) winds up DNA ends
d)
Telomerase (read as: te-LŌE-meh-rayz) adds sequence repeats
8.
Which of the following is NOT true of the plasma membrane:
a)
it is made partly of lipids
b)
it contains proteins imbedded in the lipid bilayer
c)
it is selectively permeable
d)
it is rigid and helps maintain a definite shape for the cell
9.
Which of the following is the most specific place where the subunits of ribosomes are made in eukaryotes?
a)
nucleus
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
mitochondria
d)
nucleolus
10.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the function of nuclear pores:
a)
to prevent damaging hydrogen peroxide from entering the nucleus
b)
to prevent too much pressure from metabolism from building up in the nucleus
c)
to allow the nucleus to sweat
d)
to allow substances such as mRNA to leave the nucleus
11.
Which of the following junctions forms a water-tight seal?
a)
Gap junctions
b)
Plasmodesmata
c)
Tight junctions
d)
Adherent junctions
12.
Which of the following BEST describes the range of sizes of most animal cells:
a)
0.2 to 2.0 micrometers
b)
2.0 to 4.0 micrometers
c)
5.0 to 20.0 micrometers
d)
12.0 to 40.0 micrometers
13.
Barr bodies are produced as a result of which of the following?
a)
Cell differentiation
b)
Translational control
c)
X-chromosome inactivation
d)
Selective gene expression
14.
Which of the following is the most common term biologists use for the molecule that an enzyme will act on:
a)
substrate
b)
product
c)
producer
d)
catalyst
15.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation why fruit flies are popular experimental organisms in genetic studies:
a)
they are true breeding with almost no mutations and have only two chromosomes
b)
they are cheap to maintain, produce many offspring, and have a short time between generations
c)
they are very safe, carry no human diseases, and have only two chromosomes
d)
their genes are extra-sensitive to mutation-causing substances, which makes them excellent to observe evolving under stress
16.
What is the name for the basic five carbon sugar that is present in slightly different forms in both DNA and RNA nucleotides:
a)
glucose
b)
fructose
c)
ribose
d)
maltose
17.
Arginine [AHR-juh-neen] is a positively charged amino acid in water. This amino acid is considered which of the following?
a)
Acidic
b)
Basic
c)
Neutral
d)
Amphoteric [am-fuh-TER-ik]
18.
Which of the following is NOT true of ribosomes:
a)
they help translate mRNA into protein
b)
they are too small to be seen with a compound light microscope
c)
they are about 20 nanometers in diameter
d)
bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes are identical in shape and size
19.
Which of the following is a theory of heredity postulated by Lamarck:
a)
characteristics acquired after birth are passed on to following generations
b)
nature selects for the best characteristic
c)
only the fittest organisms survive through natural selection
d)
genes determine the phenotype
20.
Which of the following makes 3-dimensional protein studies difficult?
a)
Proteins never fold properly outside their native cell
b)
Chaperonins are required for some proteins to fold
c)
Proteins lose their 3D structure once you remove them from the cell
d)
Contaminating chaperonins will degrade proteins
21.
Which of the following is the most common energy intermediate that couples exergonic and endergonic reactions in living cells:
a)
fat
b)
cellulose
c)
glucose
d)
ATP
22.
Which of the following is the principle difference between the two types of active transport?
a)
Primary active transport involves an electrochemical gradient, while secondary active transport involves chemical energy
b)
Primary active transport involves chemical energy, while secondary active transport involves an electrochemical gradient
c)
Primary active transport involves moving ions into a cell, while secondary active transport involves moving ions out of a cell
d)
Primary active transport involves moving ions out of a cell, while secondary active transport involves moving ions into a cell
23.
Given that p equals the frequency of the dominant allele and that q equals the frequency of the recessive allele, which of the following equations does NOT correctly represent a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a)
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
b)
p2 + 2pq + q2 = (p + q)2 [p squared plus 2 p q plus q squared equals, open parenthesis, p plus q, close parenthesis, squared]
c)
2p + pq + 2q = 1
d)
p + q = 1
24.
Scientists are using genetic engineering to develop a wheat crop that is resistant to a particular kind of moth. How would they determine if the plants are moth resistant?
a)
Determine the length of the moth reproductive cycle in normal wheat
b)
Monitor moth populations in separate fields planted with control and experimental wheat crops
c)
Monitor numbers of moth species infesting normal wheat
d)
Determine whether moths in test wheat can be controlled with chemical sprays
25.
Which of the following terms is MOST commonly used to refer to the copying of DNA during the cell cycle:
a)
duplication
b)
replication
c)
translation
d)
complementation
26.
Which of the following organelles would be most abundant in cells that are producing large amounts of ATP through oxidative metabolism:
a)
smooth ER
b)
rough ER
c)
mitochondria
d)
lysosomes
27.
Which of the following is the MOST readily available energy store during normal human cellular conditions:
a)
fat
b)
proteins
c)
ATP
d)
glucose
28.
Passive transport differs mostly from active transport since passive transport requires:
a)
ATP
b)
spectrin proteins
c)
no energy
d)
mitochondria
29.
All of the following cells undergo mitosis EXCEPT:
a)
Epidermal cells
b)
Red blood cells
c)
Kidney cells
d)
Pancreatic cells
30.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a)
the human y chromosome has hundreds of known genes
b)
mutations are changes in the genetic code found in DNA
c)
humans have the largest brains per body size than any other animal that has ever lived on Earth
d)
all infectious agents are caused by some sort of living organism
31.
Unlike eukaryotes [yoo-KAR-ee-ohts], prokaryotes [proh-KAR-ee-ohts] typically have only one chromosome. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of prokaryotic [proh-KAR-ee-oht-ik] genomes?
a)
Exons
b)
Telomeres
c)
Circular chromosomes
d)
Presence of genes
32.
Which of the following parts of a cell is most directly responsible for synthesizing proteins:
a)
ribosomes
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
vacuoles
d)
lysosomee
33.
Ribosomes are made of:
a)
protein only
b)
nucleic acid only
c)
nucleic acid and protein
d)
nucleic acid and carbohydrate
34.
Glucose, sucrose, fructose, and lactose are all examples of which of the following?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Corn syrup
35.
An intracellular substance is so named because it is located in which of the following places:
a)
inside and outside of cells
b)
underneath cells
c)
outside of cells
d)
within cells
36.
Which of the following chemical bonds is most important in DNA secondary structure?
a)
Covalent
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Peptide
d)
Ionic
37.
Transgenic animals carry the genes from other species in their DNA through a deliberate modification of their genome. Which of the following phrases does NOT reflect why transgenic animals are currently being produced in the United States?
a)
To have animal models for human diseases
b)
To test the purity of human proteins (such as human insulin) used as drugs
c)
For the production of human food
d)
Improving animal health or productivity
38.
Most biological catalysts are:
a)
proteins
b)
vitamins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
39.
For which of the following situations would active transport be required?
a)
Movement of ethanol across a cell membrane
b)
Releasing oxygen produced by photosynthesis
c)
Releasing carbon dioxide produced by respiration
d)
Moving molecules against a concentration gradient
40.
Which of the following is the best description of a cell membrane also known as the plasma membrane?
a)
it is permeable and made of mostly proteins
b)
it is semi-permeable and made mostly of proteins in a lipid bilayer
c)
it is impermeable and made up mostly of lipids
d)
it is a fluid mosaic composed of a protein bilayer
41.
Cholesterol is responsible for altering membrane fluidity. In which of the following conditions would the presence of cholesterol have the greatest effect on the fluidity of the cell membrane?
a)
When cholesterol levels increase and the membrane is at a low temperature
b)
When cholesterol levels increase and the membrane is at a moderate temperature
c)
When cholesterol levels decrease and the membrane is at a low temperature
d)
Cholesterol has the same effect, regardless of the temperature
42.
Which of the following can prevent cell desiccation [des-i-KAY-shuhn] due to the osmotic pressure?
a)
An extra cellular membrane
b)
Carrier protein
c)
Sodium channel
d)
Hydrogen diffusion pump
43.
In eukaryotic cells, which of the following portions of an mRNA molecule is translated?
a)
Poly (A) tail
b)
Exon
c)
Intron
d)
Guanosine (read as: GWAH-noh-seen) triphosphate cap
44.
Which of the following choices is an example of a continuous variation?
a)
Family size
b)
Height
c)
Pierced ears
d)
Gender
45.
Which of the following is the BEST description of the primary function of a protein enzyme:
a)
a catalyst made of amino acids
b)
a string of amino acids added to a sugar to make the sugar stronger
c)
to store genetic information
d)
as a short term form of energy storage
46.
Which of the following molecules is most commonly used for the transport of energy in cells?
a)
GTP
b)
GDP
c)
ADP
d)
ATP
47.
When using the gel electrophoresis technique, which of the following DNA segments will migrate the furthest from where they were loaded?
a)
The largest
b)
The smallest
c)
The most negatively charged
d)
The most positively charged
48.
Which of the following coordinate cell division?
a)
Peroxisomes [pe-ro-KSI-sohms]
b)
Microtubules
c)
Centrioles [SEN-tree-ohls]
d)
Lysosomes
49.
Which of the following is the BEST example of a heterozygous condition:
a)
non-identical twins
b)
the matching alleles for a certain physical characteristic are different
c)
one of a pair of chromosomes is lost
d)
two zygotes are fused together
50.
Which of the following does NOT occur in mitosis:
a)
synapsis of chromosomes
b)
chromosomes line up at metaphase
c)
nuclear membrane dissolves
d)
sister chromatids separate
51.
The presence of which of the following is what makes rough endoplasmic reticulum appear rough and not smooth?
a)
ribosomes
b)
globular proteins
c)
glycolipids
d)
growing proteins
52.
If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, what effect will osmosis have on the cell?
a)
It will remain the same
b)
It will become turgid or lyse
c)
It will lose ions
d)
It will shrivel or plasmolyze
53.
Which of the following is a genetic disorder caused by aneuploidy [an-yoo-PLOI-dee]?
a)
Cystic fibrosis
b)
Down syndrome
c)
Muscular dystrophy
d)
Polio
54.
In eukaryotic cells, where does cellular respiration take place?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum (read as: ri-TI-kyuh-luhm)
c)
Ribosome (read as: RY-boh-sōem)
d)
Mitochondria (read as: my-toh-KOHN-dree-ah)
55.
A cell that is not undergoing active division is said to be in which of the following stages?
a)
Mitosis [my-TOH-sis]
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Telophase
56.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of mitosis:
a)
chromosomes line up on an equatorial plate
b)
occurs in somatic cells
c)
crossing over
d)
preceded by the disappearance of the nuclear membrane
57.
Which of the following is NOT true of genes:
a)
they are a passed from generation to generation through chromosomes
b)
they can come in dominant or recessive forms
c)
genes often lead to the production of a protein
d)
most of the DNA sequences in chromosomes are genes
58.
Which of the following is NOT true:
a)
all the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is contained in the nucleus
b)
chiasma are a method of genetic interchromasomal exchange
c)
in deuterostomes, the blastopore forms the anus
d)
in lower plants the sporophyte is parasitic upon the gametophyte
59.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for what would happen to a red blood cell if it were placed in a 25% sugar solution:
a)
it would lose salt to the sugar solution and gain sugar and remain the same size
b)
it would gain salt and swell
c)
it would lose water to the sugar solution and gain salt and remain the same size
d)
it would lose water to the sugar solution and shrink
60.
How many net molecules of ATP does glycolysis [gly-KOL-uh-sis] produce?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
61.
Keratins are considered structural proteins. This is because they are most often arranged in which of the following shapes:
a)
long, thin fibers
b)
spherical and smooth
c)
short and irregular
d)
small, irregular, and hydrophilic
62.
An individual with Turner syndrome has which of the following genotypes?
a)
XO
b)
XYY
c)
XXY
d)
XXYY
63.
Which of these constitutes a correct DNA base pairing?
a)
A-C
b)
G-T
c)
A-T
d)
C-C
64.
Adipose tissue stores mostly:
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
starch
d)
glycogen
65.
Which of the following types of nucleic acid carries a complementary copy of a gene from the DNA to the cytoplasm to instruct the order in which amino acids will be made into a protein:
a)
transfer RNA
b)
messenger RNA
c)
ribosomal RNA
d)
DNA
66.
During photosynthesis, for every molecule of glucose that is made, how many molecules of carbon dioxide and water are consumed?
a)
six carbon dioxide molecules and six water molecules
b)
four carbon dioxide molecules and four water molecules
c)
twelve carbon dioxide molecules and twelve water molecules
d)
six carbon dioxide molecules and twelve water molecules
67.
Which of the following techniques was used by Meselson and Stahl to separate samples of DNA that contained different amounts of DNA labeled with a heavy isotope and a light isotope of nitrogen in their experiments on DNA replication:
a)
reverse osmosis
b)
dialysis
c)
centrifugation
d)
liquid chromatography
68.
Which of the following statements best describes the primary difference between animal centrosomes and plant centrosomes?
a)
Plant centrosomes have a rough exterior made of cellulose
b)
Animal centrosomes use microfilaments
c)
Plant centrosomes do not have centrioles
d)
Animal centrosomes are in the cytoplasm
69.
Which of the following characteristics suggests that RNA was formed before DNA?
a)
DNA is more stable
b)
DNA can form longer strands
c)
RNA is less stable
d)
RNA has catalytic functions
70.
Osmosis is:
a)
the movement of water through a permeable membrane
b)
the movement of salts through a semi-permeable membrane
c)
the movement of water through a semi-permeable membrane
d)
the pressure exerted by water through a semi-permeable membrane
71.
Which of the following is NOT part of a prokaryotic (read as: prōe-kahr-ee-AH-tik) cell?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cell wall
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cytoplasm
72.
During which of the following parts of mitosis do kinetochores (read as: ki-NEH-toh-kohrs) begin to mature and attach to the spindles?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
73.
Gary the gardener raises a species of annual flowers that can produce pink or white flowers. Gary buys a pot of white flowers and plants them in his garden and each successive year saves only that year’s generation of seeds to plant the next year. Over many generations of years of flowers Gary only ever sees white flowers. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this breeding pattern:
a)
the original plant was homozygous dominant
b)
the original plant was homozygous recessive
c)
the original plant was heterozygous for both colors
d)
the original plant was homozygous but Gary cannot know for sure whether it is a dominant or recessive color
74.
Which of the following contributes to the hydrophobicity of lipids?
a)
Water is polar and lipids are non-polar
b)
Water and lipids are both polar
c)
Water and lipids are both non-polar
d)
Water is non-polar and lipids are polar
75.
Which of the following best describes the position of a gene on a chromosome?
a)
Chiasma (read as: ky-AHZ-mah)
b)
Allele
c)
Histone
d)
Locus
76.
Actin and myosin are proteins most directly associated with the function of which of the following tissues or systems of the human body?
a)
Adipose
b)
Nervous
c)
Digestive
d)
Muscle
77.
Which of the following molecules gives carrots their orange color?
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Carotene
c)
Lycopene [LY-kuh-peen]
d)
Vitamin C
78.
Which of the following processes is NOT classified as passive transport?
a)
Endocytosis (read as: EHN-doh-sy-TŌE-sis)
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Filtration
d)
Osmosis
79.
Which of the following is a relatively short fragment of DNA created on the lagging strand during DNA replication?
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
Okazaki fragment
c)
Thymine dimer
d)
Flap endonuclease
80.
Which of the following molecules primarily functions to carry electrons from one place to another inside a cell:
a)
NAD+
b)
ATP
c)
UTP
d)
pyruvic acid
81.
Which of the following terms describes the ability of a mutation in gene X to affect the expression of gene Y?
a)
Pleitropy [play-O-truh-pee]
b)
Epistasis
c)
Codominance
d)
Incomplete dominance
82.
Which of the following is NOT found in prokaryotes:
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
ribosomes
d)
golgi
83.
A series of amino acids joined together will make a:
a)
polysaccharide
b)
DNA
c)
sugar
d)
protein
84.
Chromosomes are composed of:
a)
DNA and proteins
b)
Genes and nucleotides
c)
Proteins and chromatin
d)
DNA and RNA
85.
Which of the following is most directly responsible for the exchange of genes during meiosis:
a)
crossing over
b)
kinetochores division
c)
cytokinesis
d)
alleles
86.
Which of the following terms is most often used to describe a biochemical reaction where the forward reaction is at the same rate as the reverse reaction:
a)
isothermic
b)
isotropic
c)
equilibrium
d)
homeotropic
87.
Which of the following is a protein:
a)
glycerol
b)
trypsin
c)
cholesterol
d)
tyrosine
88.
If an animal has 42 chromosomes in its normal, non-gamete or somatic cells, what term would be given to the gametes that have 21 chromosomes:
a)
somatic
b)
unigentic
c)
haploid
d)
solitary
89.
Which of the following is TRUE about a typical liver cell:
a)
most genes are arranged in operon-like clusters
b)
it has very few mitochondria
c)
most genes are transcribed continuously
d)
most of the DNA does not code for proteins
90.
Which of the following is typically the most detrimental type of point mutation?
a)
Silent mutation
b)
Small nucleotide polymorphism
c)
Intronic mutation
d)
Frameshift mutation
91.
Which of the following will NOT alter a somatic cell’s genome during an organism’s lifetime?
a)
Gene amplification
b)
Selective gene loss
c)
Transposons
d)
Meiosis (read as: my-ŌE-sis)
92.
The structure of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick was partly based on the x-ray work of:
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Rosalind Franklin
c)
Linus Pauling
d)
Eleonore Rubinstein
93.
Which of the following characterizes a muscle fiber?
a)
A multinucleate cell
b)
A single nucleus cell
c)
A bundle of single nucleus cells
d)
Non-cellular tissue
94.
Which of the following organisms contains the most chitin (read as: KYE-tin) by percent of body weight:
a)
leopard
b)
ant
c)
squid
d)
whale
95.
Which of the following is NOT one of the events that occurs during translation?
a)
Binding to a promoter
b)
Termination
c)
Initiation
d)
Elongation
96.
Which of the following amino acids is NOT made by the human body?
a)
Alanine [AL-uh-neen]
b)
Asparagine [uh-SPAR-uh-jeen]
c)
Cysteine [SIS-tee-een]
d)
Phenylalanine [fen-i-AL-uh-neen]
97.
In which of the following cells would myelin most likely be found:
a)
oocyte
b)
red blood cell
c)
neuron
d)
skin cell
98.
Chromosomal polyploidy results in which of the following phenotypic differences in fruits and vegetables?
a)
Shape
b)
Weight
c)
Taste
d)
Flavor
99.
Which of the following enzymes most likely catalyses the removal of electrons:
a)
transferase
b)
nuclease
c)
hydrolase
d)
oxidase
100.
Which of the following cells would typically be capable of the greatest amount of phagocytosis
a)
plasma cells
b)
lymphocytes
c)
mast cells
d)
macrophages
101.
What effect does the wobble position in a codon have on protein synthesis?
a)
The 1st and 2nd bases are interchangeable
b)
The 2nd base can change and have no effect
c)
The 3rd base is an absolute determinant
d)
The 3rd base is often irrelevant
102.
Plant cells differ from animal cells in that only plant cells possess:
a)
a nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
a cell wall
d)
lysosomes
103.
Down syndrome is a condition associated with which of the following genetic abnormalities?
a)
Duplication of chromosome 3
b)
Trisomy 21
c)
No sex chromosome
d)
Monosomy 7
104.
Which of the following is closest to the length of time it takes for a typical human cell to complete mitosis:
a)
1 second
b)
1 minute
c)
1 hour
d)
1 day
105.
Which of the following is most accurate about the pasteurization of milk:
a)
it makes milk taste better
b)
it kills all bacteria by sterilizing the milk
c)
it lowers the milk’s pH
d)
it reduces the population of bacteria by heating but not boiling the milk
106.
Lipids will dissolve best in which of the following:
a)
3% salt water
b)
milk
c)
distilled water
d)
chloroform
107.
Which of the following is the most common source of energy for brain cells in humans:
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
glucose
d)
pectins
108.
When plant scientists began crossing different pure lines, they noticed that the hybrid plants that resulted were:
a)
Less vigorous than their parents
b)
Equally as vigorous as their parents
c)
Unable to sustain life
d)
More vigorous than their parents
109.
Which of the following is the most common term biologists use to indicate that an enzyme has lost its normal 3-dimensional shape:
a)
virulent
b)
catalyzed
c)
denatured
d)
degenerated
110.
Which of the following is the most practical method that could be used to isolate proteins for reinjection into mice?
a)
Western blot
b)
Affinity chromatography
c)
X-ray crystal diffraction
d)
NMR
111.
Which of the following molecules is an important part of membrane structure, is usually NOT soluble in water, and stores about 9 kilocalories of energy in each gram?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
112.
Which of the following is the role of DNA ligase in DNA replication?
a)
Joining the 3 prime end of the DNA that replaces the primer to the rest of the sequence
b)
Unwinding the parental DNA strand
c)
Relieving strain caused by over-winding the DNA strand
d)
Synthesis of an RNA primer
113.
Which of the following is the site where small and large subunits of ribosomes (read as: RY-boh-sōems) are assembled?
a)
Nucleolus (read as: n(y)uh-KLEE-oh-lus)
b)
Nucleoplasm
c)
Golgi (read as: GOHL-jee) body
d)
Nucleus
114.
Which of the following biological molecules make up the main part of the bilayer and hydrophobic region of the plasma cell membrane:
a)
oligosaccharides (read as: oh-LEE-go-SACK-ah-rides)
b)
carbohydrates
c)
phospholipids
d)
proteins
115.
Which of the following best describes a karyotype (read as: KAH-ree-oh-typ)?
a)
A region of the chromosome where the two sister chromatids are held together
b)
An organized visual profile of the chromosomes
c)
Chromosomes that occur singly
d)
Chromosomes found in mitochondria (read as: my-toh-KOHN-dree-ah) and chloroplasts
116.
Which of the following is involved in a frameshift DNA mutation?
a)
Part of one chromosome breaking off and attaching to another chromosome
b)
A segment of a chromosome is repeated at least once
c)
The insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in the coding sequence of a gene
d)
Only a single point in the DNA sequence
117.
Which of the following patterns of inheritance are NOT correctly paired?
a)
Red, pink, white color in flowers – sex-linked inheritance
b)
Eye color – dominance/recessive inheritance
c)
ABO blood type – codominance
d)
Colorblindness – sex-linked inheritance
118.
Which of the following is NOT a structure found in human cells:
a)
mitochondrion
b)
cell wall
c)
lysosome
d)
peroxisome
119.
Which of the following cell types undergo meiosis?
a)
Primary spermatocyte
b)
Epidermal cells
c)
Kidney cells
d)
Liver cells
120.
ATP is commonly called the energy molecule of the cell. Where in the cell would you find ATP made by substrate phosphorylation?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Mitochondria (read as: my-toh-KOHN-dree-ah)
d)
Vesicle
121.
Feather color in chickens can be a codominant trait. You cross a white chicken with a black chicken. Which of the following phenotypes will you see in the first generation of chicks?
a)
All of the chicks will be gray
b)
The chicks will be more black than white
c)
Each of the chicks will be black and white in about equal proportions
d)
The chicks will be more white than black
122.
Which of the following genetic mutations would cause the greatest change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene?
a)
addition of 3 bases
b)
deletion of 6 bases
c)
addition of 1 base
d)
deletion of 3 bases
123.
Which of the following BEST describes the chemical makeup of a human chromosome:
a)
100% DNA
b)
about 99% DNA and 1% protein
c)
about 50% DNA and 50% protein
d)
about 1% DNA and 99% protein
124.
A geneticist studying fruit flies notices that flies with short wings also tend to have red eyes. She concludes that the genes for wing length and eye color may be which of the following?
a)
Linked
b)
Homologous [huh-MOL-uh-guhs]
c)
Dominant
d)
Assorted
125.
Which of the following is closest to the meaning of intercellular (read carefully as: in-TER-cellular):
a)
from within cells
b)
between cells
c)
inside of cells
d)
underneath cells
126.
Most animal eukaryotic cells have:
a)
a cell wall, nucleus, and cytoplasm
b)
a plasma membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm
c)
a cell wall, nucleus, and nucleolus
d)
a cell wall, nucleus, and mitochondrion
127.
Which of the following do chloroplasts have in common with mitochondria (read as: my-toh-KOHN-dree-ah)?
a)
They do not contain ribosomes (read as: RY-boh-sōems)
b)
They have a single membrane
c)
They replicate themselves and their own DNA
d)
They contain thylakoids (read as: THY-lah-kohids)
128.
Which of the following is a set of reactions that do NOT require light and where carbon dioxide is used to make 3 carbon sugar phosphate molecules that are later used to make 6 carbon sugars:
a)
photosystem-two
b)
Calvin cycle
c)
citric acid cycle
d)
electron transport
129.
Cell membranes are described as fluid mosaic models consisting of proteins embedded in a bilayer of phospholipids. Which of the following components of a plant cell do NOT contain two of these bilayers?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria (read as: my-toh-KOHN-dree-ah)
c)
Endoplasmic reticulum (read as: ri-TI-kyuh-luhm)
d)
Nucleus
130.
Which component of the cytoskeleton is actively involved in lining the chromosomes up at the cell equator in preparation for cell division?
a)
Microtubule
b)
Microfilament
c)
Intermediate filament
d)
Vesicle
131.
During which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the nucleus?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Interphase
d)
Metaphase
132.
Which of the following is a lipid:
a)
lipase
b)
myoglobin
c)
trypsin
d)
corn oil
133.
Which of the following organisms is not a eukaryote (read as: yuh-KEHR-ee-ōt)?
a)
Protist
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
Plant
134.
Colorblindness is considered a sex-linked inheritance. If the father is not colorblind but the mother is a carrier of the trait, which of the following is true regarding their genetic risk?
a)
50% of their daughters will be carriers of the colorblindness trait
b)
All of their children will be carriers for the colorblindness trait
c)
All of their sons will be colorblind
d)
None of their children will be colorblind
135.
A father is colorblind, but his wife is not colorblind and is not a carrier of the gene for colorblindness. If the couple has a son, will he be colorblind?
a)
Yes, because colorblindness is always passed from father to son
b)
No, because the mother is neither colorblind nor a carrier of colorblindness
c)
There is a 50% chance because colorblindness is autosomal dominant
d)
Yes, because the gene for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome
136.
Which of the following is an example of a homozygous [hoh-muh-ZY-guhs] dominant genotype?
a)
BB [Big b big b]
b)
bB [Little b big b]
c)
Bb [Big b little b]
d)
bb [Little b little b]
137.
Which of the following frequently and most likely exhibits incomplete dominance?
a)
Flowers
b)
Blood type
c)
Tongue rolling
d)
Hair color
138.
Which of the following terms is known as the set of alleles present in an organism?
a)
Genotype
b)
Trait
c)
Gene
d)
Phenotype
139.
Which of the following forms of RNA carries genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes [ry-buh-sohms]?
a)
Regulatory
b)
Messenger
c)
Transfer
d)
Micro
140.
A new virus is discovered and its genetic code is examined. Which of the following cannot be true concerning its genome?
a)
It is composed of double-stranded DNA
b)
It is composed of single-stranded RNA
c)
It is composed of single-stranded DNA
d)
It is composed of double-stranded proteins
141.
Which of the following is TRUE:
a)
all yeasts are nonpathogenic in humans
b)
all humans have the same number of chromosomes
c)
all bats carry rabies
d)
all DNA contains phosphorous
142.
For a certain genetic disorder in humans, the mother always passes the disease to all of her children, but a father never passes it to any of his children. Which of the following explanations best explains this phenomenon?
a)
The gene for the disease is located on the X-chromosome
b)
The gene is dominant and is located on an autosomal chromosome
c)
The gene is located on ribosomal (read as: RY-boh-sōem-ahl) DNA
d)
The gene is located on mitochondrial (read as: my-toh-KOHN-dree-ahl) DNA
143.
Which of the following types of energy is represented by the high concentration of protons in the intermembrane space relative to the mitochondrial [my-tuh-KON-dree-uhl] matrix?
a)
Chemical
b)
Thermal
c)
Mechanical
d)
Kinetic
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