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Pathophysiology Test 1

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 20hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Blood is considered which type of tissue?

a)

Simple Epithelial Tissue

b)

Specialized Connective Tissue

c)

Loose Connective Tissue

d)

Proper Connective Tissue

2.

Which type is the most abundant muscle tissue?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Skeletal

3.

Which description best describes smooth muscle?

a)

striated, voluntary

b)

nonstriated, voluntary

c)

nonstriated, involuntary

d)

striated, involuntary

4.

True/False Atrophied cells have less energy sufficiency

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Cervical tissue is an example of _________

a)

Dysplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Hyperplasia

d)

Anaplasia

6.

Peroxisomes perform which of the following functions (select all that apply)

a)

Produce bile in the liver

b)

Ubiquitination

c)

Stabilize the antioxidative and reactive oxygen species (ROS) system

d)

Create proteins

7.

Which of the following are effects of long term hypoxia? (select all that apply)

a)

Build up of lactic acid

b)

Swelling of cells due to increased intracellular sodium

c)

Increased intracellular potassium

d)

Less ATP produced

8.

T/F Cells inherit specific portions of DNA which explains how cell differentiation occurs

a)

True

b)

False

9.

When one gene masks the effects of another, it is called____________

a)

Polygenic

b)

Epigenetic

c)

Expressivity

d)

Epistasis

10.

Which of the following is a common trait between benign and malignant tumors? (select all that apply)

a)

Well differentiated

b)

Forms a fibrous capsule

c)

Lost ability to regulate proliferation

d)

Grows Locally

e)

Metastasizes

11.

T/F Cancer in situ is considered the earliest form of cancer and is not considered invasive

a)

True

b)

False

12.

When both cell and nuclei exhibit variations in size and shape

a)

Anaplasia

b)

Pleomorphism

c)

Dysplasia

d)

Polygenic

13.

What is the hallmark of cancer?

a)

Genetic instability

b)

Seeding

c)

Divergent phenotype

d)

Forming a capsid

14.

Carcinomas are mainly spread by:

a)

hematogenous

b)

connective

c)

lymphatic

d)

epithelial

15.

Sarcomas are mainly spread by:

a)

hematogenous

b)

epithelial

c)

lymphatic

d)

connective

16.

the P53 tumor suppressor gene is important in all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Senses DNA damage

b)

Promotes apoptosis

c)

Promotes angiogenesis

d)

Cancer cells with this gene respond to chemotherapy

17.

Ras protooncogene is an example of:

a)

Translocation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Gene amplification

d)

Gene insertion

18.

Her-2/neu gene is an example of:

a)

Point mutation

b)

Gene amplification

c)

Translocation

d)

Base substitution

19.

Identify the correct order of stages in carcinogenesis

a)

Initiation, Promotion, Progression

b)

Initiation, Progression, Promotion

c)

Promotion, Initiation, Progression

d)

Progression, Promotion, Initiation

20.

_____________ is characteristic in ovarian cancer

a)

Cachexia

b)

Anemia

c)

Peritoneal effusion

d)

Ulceration

21.

Insulin is released by the:

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Gall Bladder

22.

Karen and John are both cramming for a pathophysiology test the night before. Karen starts hyperventilating from the stress while John takes a deep breath and resumes working. This difference in coping with the stress is best described as:

a)

Eustress

b)

Conditioning factor

c)

Adaptive eustress

d)

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

23.

The release of cortisol and catecholamines occur in which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?

a)

Exhaustion

b)

Alarm

c)

Resistance

d)

Promotion

24.

T/F Allostasis is the body's way of maintaining homeostasis

a)

True

b)

False

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

25.

All of the following occur when the HPA axis is activated EXCEPT:

a)

Hypothalamus releases CRF/CRH

b)

Posterior pituitary releases cortisol

c)

Adrenal Cortex releases cortisol

d)

Anterior pituitary releases ACTH

26.

Which part of the brain responds to the emotional components of the stress response?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Limbic system

d)

Reticular activating system (RAS)

27.

The ____________ is central to the release of norepinephrine

a)

Adrenal Cortex

b)

Reticular activating system (RAS)

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Locus Ceruleus

28.

During stress, the adrenal cortex releases which of the following hormones? (select all that apply)

a)

Angiotensin

b)

Cortisol

c)

Aldosterone

d)

norepinephrine

29.

Which of the following are physiologic manifestations of stress? (select all that apply)

a)

Pupils dilate

b)

Erythema of the skin

c)

Urine production decreases

d)

Increased blood pressure

30.

Which of the following statements are true about Vasopressin/Antidiuretic hormone? (select all that apply)

a)

Released by the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary

b)

Vasodilates the blood vessels

c)

Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ACTH

d)

Increases water absorption by the kidneys

31.

Mark, a Vietnam war veteran, has started to forget details about the war. What symptom of PTSD is most exhibiting?

a)

Marked alterations in arousal and reactivity

b)

Intrusion

c)

Avoidance

d)

Negative alterations in cognition and mood

32.

In the pathophysiology of PTSD, after which step is there inhibition of the pathway?

a)

Adrenal cortex releasing cortisol

b)

Hypothalamus releasing CRH

c)

Anterior pituitary releasing ACTH

d)

adrenal cortex releasing aldosterone

33.

Whole blood is made up of:

a)

Plasma and proteins

b)

Platelets and leukocytes

c)

Erythrocytes and formed elements

d)

Plasma and formed elements

34.

An allergic reaction will cause an increase in this type of cell:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

B lymphocyte

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Macrophages

35.

All the granulocytes and B cells mature in the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

36.

IgE immunoglobulin mediates which leukocyte?

a)

B cells

b)

Basophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Mast cells

37.

T/F Mast cells are blood cells that release heparin, histamine, and other inflammatory mediators

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Monocytes and platelets are stored in the:

a)

Pancreas

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Bone marrow

39.

Red color of blood comes from: (select the best answer)

a)

Heme

b)

The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin

c)

The binding of oxygen and iron

d)

Oxygen deficiency

40.

All but which of the following are true about platelets?

a)

They are made from megakaryocytes.

b)

They are stored in the spleen.

c)

An enzyme called erythropoietin stimulates their production

d)

They originate from the bone marrow.

41.

Normal ranges for hemoglobin and hematocrit for a male, respectively, are:

a)

50%-60%, 16-17.5 g/dL

b)

37%-47%, 14-16.5 g/dL

c)

40%-50%, 14-16.5 g/dL

d)

30%-40%, 12-15 g/dL

42.

A female patient's hemoglobin levels were 30% and their hematocrit was 17 g/dL. Their ranges were:

a)

Within range

b)

Under range, over range

c)

Both were under range

d)

Over range, under range

43.

Neoplastic disease of the pluripotent cells of bone marrow is characteristic of:

a)

Secondary polycythemia

b)

Primary polycythemia

c)

Relative polycythemia

d)

None of the above

44.

An increase in erythropoietin is characteristic of:

a)

Primary polycythemia

b)

Secondary polycythemia

c)

Tertiary polycythemia

d)

Relative polycythemia

45.

What symptom is central to the anemia cascade?

a)

Acute blood loss

b)

hemolysis of RBCs

c)

Increased EPO

d)

Tissue hypoxia

46.

T/F Platelets have a longer life span than RBCs

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Blink once if you need help

47.

What disease is common in a mother and neonate of differing Rh factors in their blood?

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Hemolytic disease

d)

Jaundice

48.

When RBCs get destroyed in anemia, they bind to: (select all that apply)

a)

Thrombin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Albumin

d)

Haptoglobin

49.

Excessive use of motrin causes which disease?

a)

Iron deficient anemia

b)

Hemolytic anemia

c)

Hemoglobinemia

d)

Thalassemia

50.

Which type of deficiency is caused by pernicious anemia?

a)

Folic Acid

b)

B12

c)

B6

d)

I swear if you make me memorize one more anemia.......

51.

Pancytopenia is characteristic of which anemia?

a)

Iron Deficient anemia

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

Pernicious anemia

52.

Mitochondria regulates __________ apoptosis

a)

Primary

b)

Extrinsic

c)

Intrinsic

d)

Secondary

53.

Identify the correct order in hemostasis

a)

Vessel spasm, coagulation, platelet plug, clot retraction, clot dissolution

b)

Vessel spasm, clot retraction, clot dissolution, platelet plug, coagulation

c)

Vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation, clot retraction, clot dissolution

d)

Platelet plug, vessel spasm, coagulation, clot dissolution, clot retraction

54.

Two important coagulation factors in hemostasis are:

a)

B12, Calcium (factor IV)

b)

Folic acid, B12

c)

von Willebrand factor, B12

d)

von Willebrand factor, Calcium (Factor IV)

55.

T/F It is important for the intrinsic and extrinsic factors of the coagulation cascade to be balanced

a)

True

b)

False

56.

The most important function of the endothelium is _____________

a)

Anticoagulation

b)

Coagulation

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

Hemostasis

57.

Which of the following factors is important in anticoagulant endothelium function? (select all that apply)

a)

Calcium IV

b)

Protein C & Protein S

c)

Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI)

d)

von Willbrand factor

e)

Thrombomodulin

58.

A female who is a carrier for the hemophilia A trait (Aa) has a baby boy with a male who is dominant for hemophilia A (Aa). What is the likelihood their male child will be a recessive for the trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

59.

Patients are given what to treat hemophilia?

a)

Proteins

b)

Anticoagulation factors

c)

Clotting factors

d)

Whole blood

60.

T/F DIC is the primary mechanism and independent entity that can occur in the body

a)

True

b)

False

61.

T/F Mast and macrophages sit in the extracellular fluid and are able to get to an infection quickly

a)

True

b)

False

62.

In acute inflammation which of the following is responsible for vasodilation? (select all that apply)

a)

Leukotrienes

b)

Histamine

c)

Nitric Oxide

d)

Bradykinins

63.

Which of the following symptoms occurs during the vasodilation stage of acute inflammation? (select all that apply)

a)

Pain

b)

Heat

c)

Swelling

d)

Erythema

64.

Which exudate is the first sign of an acute inflammatory response?

a)

Serosanginous

b)

Serous

c)

Purulent

d)

Pseudomembranous

65.

What is the best indicator of inflammation?

a)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Sedimentation Rate

d)

C-reactive proteins count

66.

What is a protein made by the liver that is a good indication of inflammation?

a)

Protein C

b)

Protein S

c)

Factor XII

d)

C-reactive proteins

67.

Which part of the body houses B and T cells?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Liver

c)

Lymphatic system

d)

Spleen

68.

T/F Natural Killer cells are a part of the adaptive immune response

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Vaccines are an example of a __________ immune response and booster shots are an example of a ___________ immune response

a)

Secondary, Primary

b)

Primary, Secondary

c)

Inflammatory, adaptive

d)

Primary, adaptive

70.

Which helper T cell stimulates inflammation and is important in the adaptive immune response?

a)

TH1

b)

TH2

c)

TH17

d)

TH19

71.

Which Helper T cell stimulates phagocytes?

a)

TH1

b)

TH2

c)

TH17

d)

TH19

72.

T/F Active immunity is achieved much quicker than passive immunity

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Of which of the following are myeloid phagocytic cells in the immune response? (select all that apply)

a)

Agranulocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

Monocytes

74.

T/F B cells are considered effector cells in the immune response

a)

True

b)

False

75.

_________are the primary messengers of the immune response

a)

C-reactive proteins

b)

TNFs

c)

Interleukins

d)

Cytokines

76.

Secreted proteins that are secreted in response to a specific antigen are ________________

a)

Cytokines

b)

Immunoglobulins

c)

Haptens

d)

Opsonins

77.

Penicillin is an example of_____________

a)

Immunoglobulin

b)

Cytokine

c)

Hapten

d)

Antibody

78.

The attack of donor tissue cells onto the host cell is an example of ___________

a)

Autoimmunity

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Alloimmunity

d)

Anaphylaxis

79.

Rh and ABO blood incompatibility between a donor and host is indicative of what type of hypersensitivity?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

80.

The reaction that snake venom has on your blood when you are bitten is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

81.

T/F Cell mediated hypsersensitivity involves the creation of antibodies

a)

True

b)

False