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Worksheets

Viruses and molds

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Myxovirus, type A, is unstable due to what virulence factor?

a)

Gene recombination

b)

Animal-specific envelopes

c)

GP-41

d)

P-24

2.

Which influenza, Type A, avian subunit is considered dangerous?

a)

H1N1

b)

H3N2

c)

H7N9

d)

H5N4

3.

Which virus and etiologic agent are paired correctly?

a)

Myxovirus: Viral Pneumonia

b)

hMPV: Acute Respiratory Disease

c)

Measles: Atypical Pneumonia

d)

C. Immitis: Asthma

4.

Which surface antigen is paired correctly?

a)

Influenza: Neuraminidase

b)

HIV: GP-100

c)

Hep-C: GP-41

d)

MCV: P-24

5.

What is the mostly likely number one cause of a common cold of a 1 y.o. Infant?

a)

Rhinovirus

b)

RSV

c)

Corona virus

d)

SARS

6.

MERS-CoV is mostly in which country?

a)

Jordan

b)

Sudan

c)

N. America

d)

Afghanistan

7.

Which RNA, enveloped, virus is the mostly likely cause of croup in children during the month of February?

a)

hMPV

b)

Parainfluenza virus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Corona virus

8.

Which DNA virus causes conjunctivitis?

a)

Adenovirus

b)

HPV

c)

Hep-B

d)

A. Flavus

9.

Military recruits get a vaccine against certain types of Adenovirus. What types are they?

a)

4,7

b)

4,9

c)

7,9

d)

21,37

10.

Which virus is paired correctly with its disease?

a)

Herpes simplex: Shingles

b)

HZV: Chicken pox

c)

CMV: Diarrhea

d)

Epstein-Barr: Chicken pox

11.

Which herpes virus doesn’t have a known latent infection?

a)

Simples 1&2

b)

HZV

c)

Epstein-Barr

d)

CMV

12.

Which RNA virus and its transmission pathway causes severe epidemic diarrhea in infants?

a)

Rotavirus: Fecal to oral

b)

Rotavirus: Vomit

c)

Norovirus: Droplets

d)

Saprovirus: Fecal to oral

13.

A 1 y.o. Has viral gastroenteritis, what is the most likely virus?

a)

HIV

b)

Sapovirus

c)

A. Flavus

d)

Rabies

14.

What is contained in the core of HIV?

a)

P-24

b)

GP-120

c)

GP-41

d)

Reverse transcriptase

15.

Which HIV envelope structure attaches to the CD4 marker?

a)

GP-120

b)

GP-41

c)

P-24

d)

GP-100

16.

Which HIV stage has persistent generalized lymphadenopathy as a symptom?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

17.

When CD4 cells are below 200/mm3, you are in what stage of HIV?

a)

Latent

b)

AIDS

c)

III

d)

Primary

18.

Which virus is DNA, enveloped?

a)

Hep-B

b)

Hep-C

c)

Hep-A

d)

HIV

19.

Which Hep-B marker is the most infectious?

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBeAg

c)

Anti-HBe

d)

Anti-HBs

20.

Which is the major protective marker against HBV?

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBeAg

c)

Anti-HBe

d)

Anti-HBs

21.

Which RNA, enveloped, virus has a high co-infection with HIV?

a)

Hep-B

b)

Hep-C

c)

Hep-A

d)

Rubella

22.

Which hepatitis virus does not have a chronic state?

a)

Hep-A

b)

HBV

c)

HCV

23.

Which Hemorrhagic Fever Virus is paired with its correct geographic location?

a)

Ebola: Amazon basin

b)

HPS: N. America

c)

HFRS: N. America

d)

Yellow Fever: Europe

24.

Which Ig indicates current infections in Hemorrhagic fever and Encephalitis viruses?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

25.

What is the correct geographic location and vector for CCHF?

a)

N. America: Mosquito

b)

China: Mosquito

c)

Africa: Tick

d)

Europe: Rodent excreta

26.

What is the correct geographic location and vector for Lassa fever?

a)

N. America: Mosquito

b)

China: Mosquito

c)

West Africa: Rodent excreta

d)

Europe: Rodent excreta

27.

What is the correct geographic location and vector for Ebola?

a)

N. America: Mosquito

b)

Africa: Bats

c)

West Africa: Rodent excreta

d)

Europe: Rodent excreta

28.

Which RNA virus can possibly cause Guillain-Barre’ Syndrome?

a)

ZIka virus

b)

Yellow Fever virus

c)

TBE

d)

West Nile virus

29.

What encephalitis virus is paired correctly?

a)

Venezuelan encephalitis virus: SE USA

b)

St. Louis encephalitis virus: Japan

c)

TBE: N. America

d)

Murray Valley virus: AMEDD school house

30.

What encephalitis virus is paired correctly?

a)

Venezuelan encephalitis virus: SE Asia

b)

California encephalitis virus: Africa

c)

TBE: N. America

d)

Murray Valley virus: Australia

31.

Which RNA virus usually has an 8 week incubation period and travels through the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Rubella

b)

Hep-A

c)

Zika Virus

d)

Rabies

32.

Which RNA virus is stable over a wide range of pH and temperatures?

a)

Poliovirus

b)

Adenovirus

c)

Mumps

d)

Rubella

33.

What is a complication and the transmission for Measles?

a)

Blindness: Respiratory secretions

b)

Deafness: Respiratory secretions

c)

Bleeding: Respiratory secretions

d)

Pneumonia: Rodent excretion

34.

Parotitis is caused by which virus?

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Rubella

d)

CMV

35.

Which virus gains entry into nervous system via olfactory tissues?

a)

HHV 6 & 7

b)

Parvovirus B19

c)

Enterovirus D68

36.

Chronic anemia in immunocompromised patients could be caused by which DNA virus?

a)

MCV

b)

Parvovirus B19

c)

Variola Major virus

d)

Zika virus

37.

A rash disease, found in 6-10 y.o., would mostly be caused by which DNA virus?

a)

Parvovirus B19

b)

Measles

c)

Mumps

d)

Rubella

38.

Lesions on the palm of your hands and soles of your feet are the mostly likely symptoms of which disease and virus?

a)

Smallpox: Parvovirus B19

b)

Smallpox: Variola Major

c)

Chicken pox: HZV

d)

Shingles: Variola Major

39.

Which normal yeast is the most likely cause of oral thrush in infants?

a)

C. Auris

b)

C. Albicans

c)

S. Schenckii

d)

PCP

40.

Chronic yeast infection of the the esophagus is noted as a first sign of clinical AIDS. Which pathogen causes this infection?

a)

C. Auris

b)

C. Albicans

c)

S. Schenkii

d)

PCP

41.

Inhalation of what pathogen can cause meningitis in AIDs patients?

a)

C. Albicans

b)

C. Auris

c)

C. Neoformans

d)

S. Schenckii

42.

Rose gardener’s disease is caused by what mold and transmission?

a)

S. Schenckii: Inhalation

b)

S. Schenckii: Trauma

c)

C. Albicans: Inhalation

d)

C. Albicans: Trauma

43.

Inhalation of which pathogen’s spores, from the Ohio river valley region, could cause which clinical disease?

a)

H. Capsulatum: Brain lesions

b)

H. Capsulatum: Lung lesions

c)

C. Immitis: Brain lesions

d)

C. Immitis: Lung lesions

44.

Which geographic location could you most likely Inhalation this pathogen’s spores, from dust events?

a)

SW USA: H. Capsulatum

b)

Mexico : H. Capsulatum

c)

SW USA: C. Immitis

d)

Africa: C. Immitis

45.

Which pathogen would cause pneumonia in patients with CD4 cell levels less than 200cells/uL?

a)

S. Chartarum

b)

PCP

c)

A. Flavus

d)

A. Fumigatus

46.

Which pathogen is transmitted by ingestion of toxin?

a)

Ebola virus

b)

Noravirus

c)

Hep-A

d)

A. Flavus

47.

Who is the father of Parasitology?

a)

Redi

b)

Newton

c)

Einstein

d)

Darwin

48.

Which symbiotic relationship causes the host to be adversely affected?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

49.

Which term is defined as a host harboring the sexually reproducing stage of a parasite?

a)

Intermediate host

b)

Reservoir host

c)

Paratenic host

d)

Definitive host

50.

At what temperature should fecal specimens be stored at?

a)

4 C

b)

4 F

c)

4 K

d)

32 F

51.

How many stool samples should you at least examine to hopefully detect protozoans?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

52.

If you get a diarrheic sample, you should examine it within what time frame?

a)

30 minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

Several hours

d)

2 hours

53.

What test should you use for pinworms?

a)

String test

b)

Scotch tape prep

c)

Nucleic acid test

54.

If you have a parasite infection, your eosinophil count should do what?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease