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Micro exam 2

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
2.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
3.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
4.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
5.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
6.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
7.
Sometimes, DNA is called "semi-conservative." Why might this be?
a)
The old strand is "conserved" and used to make the new strands
b)
Uracil is "conserved" in that it is only used to make the new strands
c)
ATP is "conserved" via the usage of facilitated diffusion
d)
Ligase is "conserved" in that it is denatured by the process
8.
Which enzyme links up the newly copied nucleotides in DNA replication?
a)
DNA helicase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA replicase
d)
DNA polymerase
9.
A three base code for an amino acid is called a/an
a)
nucleotide
b)
deoxyribose sugar
c)
codon
d)
phosphate
10.
A long chain of amino acids is a/an
a)
protein
b)
nucleic acid
c)
tRNA
d)
mRNA
11.
When DNA is copied into mRNA it is called
a)
protein synthesis
b)
translation
c)
transcription
d)
replication
12.
tRNA carries an anticodon on one side and a/an __________ on the other side.
a)
amino acid
b)
nucleic acid
c)
protein
d)
mRNA codon
13.
Any change in the DNA is called a/an
a)
mistake
b)
exon
c)
mutation
d)
intron
14.
When a base is inserted or deleted a _____ results.
a)
frameshift
b)
premature stop
c)
substitution
d)
silent
15.
Where does mRNA meet up with tRNA to translate the code into amino acids?
a)
ribosome
b)
nucleus
c)
cytoplasm
d)
ribose sugar
16.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
17.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
18.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
19.

Which type of mutation is MOST LIKELY to cause the greatest disruption?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Silent

c)

Point

20.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
21.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that RNA....
a)
is double stranded 
b)
contains the base Thymine
c)
contains the base Uracil 
d)
contained the base Guanine
22.
tRNA is involved in
a)
carrying amino acids 
b)
carrying ribosomes
c)
carrying glucose
d)
carrying lipids
23.
What has DNA?
a)
animals
b)
plants
c)
bacteria
d)
all of the above
24.
The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
25.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
26.
An mRNA molecule is produced in the step of protein synthesis:
a)
replication
b)
transcription
c)
duplication
d)
translation
27.

What does tRNA stand for?

a)

transition RNA

b)

transcription RNA

c)

transfer RNA

d)

translation RNA

28.

DNA and RNA are which type of macromolecule?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

29.

Where would you find the anti-codon?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

ribosome

d)

rRNA

30.
What is a nucleotide?
a)
Lipid
b)
A single base, deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
All of the above
31.
Fill in the complementary bases according to the base-pair rule in DNA: A T C C A G
a)
T U G G T C
b)
T A G G T C
c)
T A C G T G
d)
T A C C A C
32.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
33.

How do bacterial cells divide?

a)

Reproduction

b)

Oxidative Binary Fission

c)

Binary Fission

d)

Duplication

34.
Phase in a growth curve in which the organisms are adjusting to their environment.
a)
stationary phase
b)
log phase
c)
lag phase
d)
death phase
35.

Are the plates, slants, and broths we use in this class, Defined Medium or Complex Medium

a)

Defined Medium

b)

Complex Medium

c)

idk

36.

Selective Media...

a)

grow the bacteria at an extended rate due to the amount of nutrients the bactria will take in

b)

allows you to distinguish bacteria that ferment the

sugar (turns the tube yellow) from those that don’t

(don’t turn the tube yellow-stays red)

c)

Suppress unwanted microbes and encourage

desired microbes; allows only certain bacteria to

grow

d)

Media that allow you to distinguish different

microbes; distinction usually based on color

37.

In which phase is the bacteria most metabolically active?

a)

Lag Phase

b)

Log Phase

c)

Exponential Phase

d)

Death phase

38.

Phase in a growth curve in which new organisms are being produced at the same rate at which older organisms are dying.

a)

stationary phase

b)

log phase

c)

lag phase

d)

death phase

39.

The thermal death point is the lowest temperature required to kill a liquid culture of a certain species of bacteria in 10 minutes.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The suffix -cide means “to survive.”

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Antimicrobial agents that kill microorganisms would be classified as ______________.

a)

microbistatic

b)

microbicidal

42.

To sterilize the field in a BSL-1 introductory microbiology lab, we use ethanol to wipe down surfaces. What concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?

a)

50 %

b)

70 %

c)

95 %

d)

100 %

43.

When all forms of microbial life have been removed or destroyed, it is ______

a)

disinfected

b)

sterilized

c)

neutralized

d)

pasteurized

44.

Milk and other beverages undergo a mild heating process to destroy a particular spoilage or disease-causing organism. this is known as

a)

sterilization

b)

pasteurization

c)

decontamination

d)

degerming

45.

To prepare sterile agar, tools such as autoclaves and pressure cookers use steam ____________ to elevate the temperature above boiling.

a)

dilution

b)

surfactants

c)

under pressure

d)

ionizers

46.

Physical methods of microbial control include which of the following?

a)

dry and moist heat

b)

pasteurization

c)

halogens

d)

heavy metals

e)

filtration

47.

Silver nitrate and copper sulfate are antimicrobials that denature proteins and are considered ______________.

a)

heavy metals

b)

surface-active agents.

c)

organic acids

d)

halogens

48.
Extremely high temperatures can cause a decline in bacterial growth because
a)
heat increases metabolic rate and creates more waste products.
b)
heat slows down metabolic rate.
c)
heat denatures enzymes/proteins, DNA, and causes leaky membranes.
d)
heat prevents DNA from replicating.
49.
In binary fission how does the DNA of the daughter cells compare to the DNA of the parent cell? 
a)
It is only half of the amount of DNA found in the parent.
b)
It is identical.
c)
It is a mix of the parent's DNA.
d)
It has some similarities and some differences.
50.

A laboratory technician uses a MacConkey agar that is designed to suppress the growth of Gram-positive bacteria, and encourage the growth of Gram-negative microbes. MacConkey agar is a type of _____

a)

differential media

b)

selective media

c)

nutrient agar

d)

nutritive media

51.

Phase in a growth curve in which the population is most actively growing.

a)

stationary phase

b)

exponential growth phase

c)

lag phase

d)

death phase

52.

Three cells with a generation time of 30 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium.

How many cells (Nt) are there after 5 hours?

Use the formula: Nt = N0 x 2n

a)

7290

b)

1024

c)

3072

d)

72.9 million

53.

A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called ____

a)

a selective medium.

b)

a differential medium.

c)

an enrichment culture.

d)

both a selective and differential medium.

54.
The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
a)
Disinfection
b)
Cleaning
c)
Sterilization
d)
Wiping
55.
Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are:
a)
antiseptics
b)
disinfectants
c)
sterilizers
d)
sanitizers
56.
A safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats, is:
a)
quarter antiseptic solution
b)
quaternary-based compounds
c)
phenolic quaternary agents
d)
quaternary ammonium compounds
57.

Asepsis is:

a)

A microbe that requires oxygen to survive

b)

Absence of disease-producing microorganisms

c)

One of the ways pathogens cause infection

d)

The presence of all of the germs, everywhere, all the time

58.

Which of the following dies more rapidly?

a)

Vegetative cells

b)

Spores

c)

Active bacterium

d)

None: they all die at the same rate.

59.

Which of the following methods of action of microbial control methods includes surfactants?

a)

Damage to cell wall

b)

Inhibit synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids

c)

Alter function of proteins and nucleic acids

d)

Disrupt cytoplasmic membrane

60.

_____ kills vegetative bacteria, but not spores.

a)

Dry heat

b)

Pressurized steam

c)

Boiling

d)

Incineration

61.

___________ kills vegetative bacteria within minutes, and spores within 3-10 hours.

a)

Glutaraldehyde

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Lysol

d)

Alcohol

62.
Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known as _____.
a)
sterilizers
b)
antiseptics
c)
disinfectants
d)
sanitizers
63.

horizontal gene transfer by plasmid is possible by

a)

transformation

b)

transduction,

c)

conjugation,

d)

transformation & conjugation

64.

Structural genes code for

a)

cellular proteins.

b)

ribosomal RNA molecules.

c)

transfer RNA molecules.

d)

gene expression elements.

65.

The two most common types of media used in the laboratory are:

a)

chemically defined & simple

b)

agar & broth

c)

simple & complex

d)

differential & selective

66.

Microbes can be preserved for long periods of time by:

a)

pasteurization

b)

lyophilization

c)

incubation

d)

refrigeration

67.

A single colony:

a)

is grown to provide a pure culture

b)

starts as a single bacterial cell

c)

consists of identical "clones"

d)

all of these

68.

Fungal counts are usually measured using:

a)

dry weight

b)

filtration

c)

direct count

d)

turbidity

69.

Fastidious organisms:

a)

are motile

b)

are anaerobic

c)

require many growth factors

d)

grow slowly

70.

A streak plate is used to:

a)

enrich a culture

b)

grow viruses

c)

isolate pure cultures

d)

grow large numbers of bacteria

71.

Media that has a component to chemically remove oxygen that might interfere with the growth of anaerobes is:

a)

oxidizing media

b)

aerobic media

c)

capnophillic media

d)

reducing media

72.

The time it takes for binary fission to occur is called the

___________________.

a)

lag phase

b)

generation time

c)

stationary phase

d)

woo-hoo phase

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