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Basic Concept (Units – I, VI & VII)

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

_______ is morphologically indistinguishable but reproductively isolated?

a)

Allopatric species

b)

Sympatric species

c)

Sibling species

d)

keystone species

2.

Recalcitrant Seeds can be stored by _____method?

a)

Insitu conservation

b)

Exsitu conservation

c)

Offsite conservation

d)

Biodiversity conservation

3.

The reserve food material in cystic stage of E.histolytica is ________

a)

Fatty acid

b)

Glycogen

c)

Chromotid bodies

d)

Protein vesicles

4.

Trypanosoma gambiense reproduce asexually by _______

a)

Transverse binary fission

b)

Oblique binary fission

c)

Longitudinal binary fission

d)

Irregular binary fission

5.

______ is infective stage of man in Taenia solium lifecycle.

a)

Hexacanth

b)

Onchospheres

c)

Sporozoites

d)

Cysticercus

6.

Choose the correct matching pair?

a)

Pork tape worm - T.Solium

b)

Beef tape worm-T.Saginida

c)

Dog tape worm - Ecinococcus granulosus

d)

All of these

7.

Assertion: The mehlis glands are also called as shell gland.

Reason: Their secretions to form the shell around the fertilized eggs.

a)

A & R are true and correct explanation

b)

A & R are true but not correct explanation

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

R is true A is false.

8.

Charles Laveran detected _____ stage of plasmodium in RBC of man.

a)

Tropozoite

b)

Merozoite

c)

Amoeboid

d)

Cryptozoite

9.

Which one of the following is biological control method of malaria?

a)

Gambusia eats mosquito Larvae

b)

Spraying of oil on water surface

c)

Use of Quinine drug

d)

All of these

10.

_______ type of haemozoin granules are produced in P. malariae.

a)

Red schuffner ‘s dots

b)

Green maurer’s dots

c)

Zeismann’s dots

d)

Brown schuffner’s dots

11.

Which stage of life cycle in F.hepatica infects intermediate host ______

a)

Radia

b)

Miracidium

c)

Metacercaria

d)

Sporocyst

12.

Apolysis means ______

a)

Formation of proglottids

b)

Proliferation of proglottids

c)

Maturation of gravid proglottids

d)

Shedding of gravid proglottids

13.

Choose the Pseudocoelomate animal given below

a)

Tape worms

b)

Round worms

c)

Liver fluke

d)

Blood fluke

14.

The syncytial epidermis is specialized characteristics of _______

a)

T. solium

b)

F.hepatica

c)

Schistosoma

d)

Ascaris

15.

In schistosoma which type of fertilization occurred?

a)

Self fertilization

b)

Pseudo fertilization

c)

External fertilization

d)

Internal fertilization

16.

One quatrinucleate cyst of E.histolytica produces _____ daughter amoebae.

a)

Two

b)

Four

c)

Six

d)

Eight

17.

The final moulting of Rhabditiform larva occurs in _______

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

18.

The male and female Ascaris possess _____ & _____ condition of testis and ovaries respectively.

a)

Monoarchic & Monodelphic

b)

Monoarchic & Didelphic

c)

Diarchic & Monodelphic

d)

Diarchic & Didelphic

19.

Which is connecting link between Chordates and Invertebrates?

a)

Hemichordates

b)

Urochordates

c)

Cephalochordates

d)

Prochordates

20.

The excretory organ of Amphioxus

a)

Protonephridium

b)

Hatschek’s nephridium

c)

Brown funnels

d)

All of these

21.

Which type of development found in Ascidian life history?

a)

Direct with Progressive metamorphosis

b)

Indirect with Progressive metamorphosis

c)

Direct with Retrogressive metamorphosis

d)

Indirect with Retrogressive metamorphosis

22.

The chromatophores are found in the _____ layer of skin.

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Basement membrane

d)

Cuticle

23.

The functional kidney of a frog tadpole is _______

a)

Pronephros

b)

Mesonephros

c)

Archinephros

d)

Metanephros

24.

The excretory waste of tadpole larva and adult frog are _______ & _______ respectively.

a)

Urea & Uric acid

b)

Ammonia & Urea

c)

Urea & Ammonia

d)

Ammonia & Uric acid

25.

Where the paratid glands located?

a)

Below the tongue

b)

At the angle of lower jaw

c)

Just below and in front of the ear canal

d)

Underneath of the armpits

26.

Which one of the following statement is not correct about intestinal villi?

a)

A multitudinous finger-like projections having many microvilli

b)

Decrease the internal surface area of the intestinal wall.

c)

Supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels

d)

Unique structural and functional unit for digestion, absorption, secretion, and immune defense.

27.

Which of the following is major function of bile juice?

a)

Emulsification of dietary fat

b)

Neutralization of HCL

c)

Absorption of fat soluble vitamins

d)

All of these

28.

Name the hormone that inhibits the gastric secretion and motility?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Secretin

c)

Enterogasterone

d)

Somotostatin

29.

Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like ______

a)

Fructose and some amino acids

b)

Amino acids and glucose

c)

Glucose and fatty acids

d)

Fatty acids and glycerol

30.

The exchange of gases between inhaled air and blood is referred as _______

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

External respiration

c)

Internal respiration

d)

Circulatory respiration

31.

Serum is ________

a)

Blood without corpuscles and fibrinogen

b)

Lymph without corpuscles

c)

Blood without fibrinogen

d)

Lymph without corpuscles and fibrinogen

32.

(A) Assertion: Smaller the organism higher the rate of metabolism per gram weight.

(R) Reason: The heart rate of a six month old baby is much higher than that of an old person.

a)

Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of the A

b)

Both A and R are true but the R is not the correct explanation of the A

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false but R is true.

33.

Which of the following matches correctly?

a)

Pulmonary artery - Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

Superior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body region.

c)

Inferior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the head region.

d)

Hepatic artery - Carries deoxygenated blood to the gut.

34.

When Rh-ve person donated the blood to Rh+ve person for the second time, then what will happens?

a)

Rh-ve person will die

b)

Rh+ve person will die

c)

Rh+ve blood starts to prepare Rh antibody

d)

Nothing happens to Rh+ve person.

35.

The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful expiration after deepest inspiration is called the ______

a)

Total lung capacity

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Tidal volume

d)

Inspiratory capacity

36.

The blood does not clot inside the body because of _______

a)

Presence of Heparin

b)

Movement of blood

c)

Absence of Heparin

d)

Presence of fibrinogen

37.

The ability of the kidney to prepare to produce concentrated urine depends upon ______

a)

Diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Reverse osmosis

d)

Counter current meachanism

38.

The choroid plexus secretions moved from the Lateral ventricle into Third ventricle through _______

a)

Foramen of monro

b)

Foramen of Iter

c)

Foramen of Magnam

d)

Cerebral hemisphere

39.

During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

a)

First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

b)

First negative, then positive and again back to negative

c)

First positive, then negative and again back to positive

d)

First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.

40.

The two protein molecules, closely associated with actin filaments are ______ and _______

a)

Actin and myosin

b)

Actin and tropomyosin

c)

Troponin and tropomyosin

d)

Tubulin and tropomyosin

41.

Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Digestion

c)

Excretion

d)

Learning

42.

Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?

a)

Abducens nerve

b)

Oculomotor nerve

c)

Olfactory nerve

d)

Trigeminal nerve

43.

Which one of the followings is not correct about neuroglial cells?

a)

Generate and transmission of impulses

b)

Maintain healthy concentrations of important chemicals in the fluid

c)

Provide physical support and protection to neurons

d)

Responsible for myelin formation

44.

The most active phagocytic white blood cells are_______

a)

Neutrophils and monocytes

b)

Neutrophils and eosinophils

c)

Lymphocytes and macrophages

d)

Eosinophils and lymphocytes

45.

In which one of the following pair the both sides has same meaning?

a)

Leucocytes - lymphocytes.

b)

AV node - pace maker

c)

Malleus - anvil

d)

Leukemia - Blood cancer

46.

Choose the correct sequence ______

a)

Secretion, Reabsorption, Filtration

b)

Reabsorption, Secretion, Filtration

c)

Filtration, Secretion, Absorption

d)

Filtration, Reabsorption, Secretion

47.

The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to _____

a)

Initiate the heart beat

b)

Reduce the heart beat

c)

Accelerate the heart beat

d)

Maintain constant heart beat

48.

In myopia is a defect in human eyes by which image is formed ______ & can be Corrected by using ______

a)

Behind the retina & Concave lens

b)

Behind the retina & Convex lens

c)

Infront of retina & Concave lens

d)

Infront of retina & Convex lens

49.

The growth and maturation of Graffian follicle is controlled by _______

a)

GH-LH

b)

GH-FSH

c)

FSH-LH

d)

FSH-LTH

50.

Hyposecretion of Thyroxine in adult leads to _______

a)

Cretinism

b)

Grave’s Disease

c)

Gulls Disease

d)

Exothalmic Goitre

51.

There are 3 stages of prenatal development. The correct order is ______

a)

Embryo, Zygote, Foetus

b)

Foetus, Zygote, Embryo

c)

Zygote, Foetus, Embryo

d)

Zygote, Embryo, Foetus

52.

Hormone regulation operates under which type of feedback mechanism?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Both positive and negative feedback

d)

Hormones are not regulated

53.

Rods are light sensitive cells in the retina that _______

a)

Give you color vision in dim light

b)

Respond in dim light

c)

Give you color vision in bright light

d)

Respond in bright light

54.

Basedow’s disease is related to which gland?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Pineal

c)

Thyroid

d)

Adrenal

55.

The purpose of animal communication by using pheromones for _______

a)

Warning off predators

b)

Attract a mating patner

c)

Locate food

d)

All of these

56.

What is the first step of fertilization?

a)

Egg Activation

b)

Cortical Reaction

c)

Acrosomal Reaction

d)

Sperm Capacitation

57.

Which of the following is also called as meroblastic cleavage _______

a)

Equal holoblastic

b)

Unequal holoblastic

c)

Partial

d)

Superficial

58.

If the opening in the gastrula turns into the organisms mouth then it must be a _______

a)

Deuterostome

b)

Protostome

c)

Primitive streak

d)

Blastopore

59.

_______ is the first germinal layer that appears in human embryo?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Somatic Mesoderm

d)

Splanchnic mesoderm

60.

The showing image indicates that ________?

a)

Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Homologous structures

d)

Different developmental stages of an organism

61.

The fertilized egg is implanted in the endometrium as ______

a)

Morula

b)

Blastula

c)

Gastrula

d)

Blastocyst

62.

A decrease in ________ hormone results in menstruation

a)

Progesterone

b)

Oestrogen

c)

Follicle stimulating hormone

d)

Luteinising hormone

63.

When does oogenesis begin?

a)

After birth

b)

Before birth

c)

At the onset of adulthood

d)

At the onset of puberty

64.

What is the frequency range of hearing for a human being?

a)

10-200 Hertz

b)

20-20,000 Hertz

c)

300-2,000 Hertz

d)

2,000-30,000 Hertz

65.

During muscle contraction the "Z" lines will ______

a)

Disappear

b)

Get Farther apart

c)

Get Closer Together

d)

Appear Thicker

66.

In ECG QRS complex is ______

a)

Repolarization of atria

b)

Repolarization of ventricles

c)

Depolarization of atria

d)

Depolarization of ventricles

67.

Which of the following is common disease of central nervous system?

a)

Parkinson disease

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Mumps

d)

Pneumonia

68.

________ carry messages to the central nervous system

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Sensory neuron

c)

Inter neurons

d)

Relay neuron

69.

The release of sperm from the the seminiferous tubules is called _____

a)

spermiogenesis

b)

spermiation

c)

Spermulation

d)

Ovulation

70.

A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is _____

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Islets of Langerhans

c)

Corpus luteum

d)

Corpus allatum

71.

Extra embryonic respiratory organ is _______

a)

Chorion

b)

Allantois

c)

Yolk sac

d)

Amnion

72.

An example of holoblastic unequal cleavage is the egg of _______

a)

Amphioxus

b)

Birds

c)

Insects

d)

Amphibians

73.

Asthma is due to ______

a)

Elasticity of lungs is reduced

b)

Degeneration of alveolar wall

c)

Bronchioles constrict due to muscle spasms

d)

All of these

74.

The type of placenta in which the villi are developed in the form of girdle in ______

a)

Zonary placenta

b)

Diffuse placenta

c)

Cotyledonary placenta

d)

Discoidal placenta

75.

Chemically the Fertilizin is a ______

a)

Lipoproteins

b)

Acid proteins

c)

Glycoproteins

d)

Mucoproteins

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