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Assessment - Fall semester (long)

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The table above shows four mass readings of one object as measured by four different balances. Which balance measures the mass with the greatest degree of precision?

a)

Q

b)

R

c)

S

d)

T

2.

A group of students goes on a science field trip to the local hospital. They see the symbol above on one of the examination room doors. This symbol represents that entering this room could expose the students to which of the following dangers?

a)

Biological hazards

b)

Harmful radiation

c)

Corrosive chemicals

d)

Flammable substances

3.

The ingredients described above are used to make a bonding agent. The most important safety precaution to take when applying this bonding agent is to ---

a)

dry it with a small flame

b)

work in a well-ventilated area

c)

cover the work area with newspaper

d)

drink lots of water while working with it

4.

Which of the following will allow measurement of a liquid's volume with the greatest precision?

a)

50mL cylinder graduated in 1mL increments

b)

100mL cylinder graduated in 0.5mL increments

c)

100mL cylinder graduated in 1mL increments

d)

200mL cylinder graduated in 5mL increments

5.

Four balances are available for students to use for their laboratory experiment. The table shows the range and precision of each balance. The students want to mix 0.100 kg of salt with 2.20 kg of water. Which balance would provide the greatest precision?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

6.

Which of lthe following quantities has been correctly reported to 4 significant figures?

a)

1.034 g

b)

1200 mL

c)

0.005 amps

d)

8090 N

7.

5.368 g ÷ 10.1 mL = 0.531485149 g/mL


Which of the answer choices below shows the density correctly rounded to the proper number of significant digits?

a)

o.53 g/mL

b)

0.531 g/mL

c)

0.5314 g/mL

d)

0.5315 g/mL

8.

92.6 g - 62.57 g = 30.03 g

Which of the answer choices below shows the mass correctly rounded to the proper number of significant digits?

a)

30.0 g

b)

30.03 g

c)

30.g

d)

30 g

9.

0.0500 m


How many significant figures are in the number shown above?

a)

1 sig fig

b)

5 sig figs

c)

3 sig figs

d)

4 sig figs

10.

1205000 g


How many significant figures are in the number shown above?

a)

3 sig figs

b)

6 sig figs

c)

4 sig figs

d)

7 sig figs

11.

The label shown above contains information about some harmful effects acetone. A group of students plans to use acetone to rinse out a glass container. A second group of students is working at the same lab table. Which of the following lab procedures should the second group avoid?

a)

Heating water with an open flame

b)

Pouring hydrochloric acid into a beaker

c)

Filtering precipitates from a liquid solution

d)

Collecting oxygen from plants in a test tube

12.

This picture indicates that the chemical represented is --

a)

pressurized

b)

corrosive

c)

flammable

d)

toxic

13.

The diagram shows a graduated cylinder containing water on s cale before and after a small object was placed into the cylinder. Determine the density of the object to the correct number of significant figures.

a)

1.4 g/mL

b)

1.42 g/mL

c)

1 g/mL

d)

1.4154 g/mL

14.

The picture above shows samples of aluminum in different sizes and shapes. Which sample demonstrates that aluminum is a ductile metal?

a)

Q

b)

R

c)

S

d)

T

15.

Which of the following lists records the states of matter in order from the most compressible to the least compressible?

a)

solid, liquid, gas

b)

liquid, solid, gas

c)

gas, solid, liquid

d)

gas, liquid, solid

16.

The experiment illustrates that iron and sulfur combine to form -

a)

a nonmetal

b)

a compound

c)

a mixture

d)

an alloy

17.

A liquid sample is brought into the lab for testing. It is determined that the sample is a combination of simpler substances which have been joined together in a definite ration, and that it can be chemically broken apart into simpler substances. The sample is ---

a)

an element

b)

a compound

c)

a mixture

d)

a solution

18.

A metal sample with a high, broad melting point is examined in a lab. The lab determines that the sample can be separated into simpler substances by melting it and allowing it to separate based on density of constituents. The sample is a/an ---

a)

polymer

b)

alloy

c)

aqueous solution

d)

compound

19.

The substance commonly referred to a water (H2O) is an example of ---

a)

an element

b)

a compound

c)

a mixture

d)

a solution

20.

During a lab exercise students were asked to observe several changes to matter. They were then instructed to classify these changes as either physical or chemical. Which of the following tables was completed correctly?

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.

Magnets can be used to easily remove certain metals from heterogeneous mixtures. These metals are called ferromagnetic metals. Which of the following metals is considered to be ferromagnetic?

a)

aluminum

b)

sodium

c)

lead

d)

cobalt

22.

Which of the following processes is an example of a physical change associated with an oak tree?

a)

Decomposition of bark by bracket fungi

b)

Starches and sugars being broken down during energy production

c)

Water and carbon dioxide being converted to glucose

d)

Evaporation of water from the surfaces of leaves

23.

Which of the following is classified as an intensive physical property?

a)

Moles

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Number of atoms

d)

Density

24.

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a)

Salt is dissolved in water

b)

Water is boiled on a stove

c)

Gasoline combusts in an engine

d)

Copper metal is stretched into a long wire

25.

A chemistry student conducted an investigation using the procedure above. Which of the following statements best identifies the properties described in the procedure above?

a)

He measured two extensive properties and calculated an extensive property

b)

He measured two intensive properties and calculated an intensive property

c)

He measured two extensive properties and calculated an intensive property

d)

He measured two intensive properties and calculated an extensive property

26.

The diagram above shows a battery giving off a current producing bubbles in two test tubes. Which of the fullowing bet shows that the investigation results in a chemical change?

a)

Liquid condenses on a cold glass rod when gas from the test tube on the left is released.

b)

A gas probe indicates that the water in the beaker contains dissolved nitrogen and oxygen.

c)

A burning wood splint placed above the mouth of the test tube on the right glows brighter when some gas is released frm the test tube.

d)

The temperature of the wire connected to the battery increases.

27.

J.J. Thomson is credited with the discovery of the first subatomic particle, the electron. To make his discovery, Thomson conducted several experiments with cathode ray tubes and analyzed the bright beam that went across the tube. Which of the following is not an accurate conclusion that Thomson drew from his experiment?

a)

The beam was made of partlcles because it was bent by a simple magnet.

b)

The beam was negatively charged since it was attracted to a positive charge.

c)

The beam was much smaller than hydrogen based on the mass to charge ratio.

d)

The beam was emitted from the nucleus of atoms because light was given off

28.

Ernest Rutherford is credited with the discovery of the nucleus of atoms. Which of the following experimental setups was used by Rutherford to make this momentous discovery?

a)

A thin sheet of gold was bombarded with alpha particles and deflections were detected on a shet of zinc sulfide.

b)

The beam within a Crookes tube was observed using fluorescent material and the behavior of the beam in electromagnetic fields was examined.

c)

The light emitted from fluorescing materials was analyzed to determine the energy that was contained within each photon.

d)

The atomic weights and chemical properties of similar atoms were analyzed and recorded until patterns emerged.

29.

Neils Bohr was a great contributor to our understanding of the atomic model. Which of the following conclusions that was drawn by Bohr remains in our current model of the atom?

a)

Electrons circle the nucleus of the atom in fixed orbits.

b)

Electrons are contained within different energy levels in the atom.

c)

The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons.

d)

Electrons are negatively charged particles witch are much smaller than protons.

30.

A scientist examines a sample of an unknown metal. She isolates several atoms which contain 29 protons and 35 neutrons. Which of the following isotopes has she isolated?

a)

Copper-64

b)

Gadolinium-35

c)

Bromine-29

d)

Chlorine-35

31.

A scientist examines a sample of an unknown nonmetal. She isolates several atoms which contain 53 protons and 74 neutrons. Which of the following isotopes has she isolated?

a)

Iodine-127

b)

Chromium-53

c)

Tungsten-184

d)

Arsenic-74

32.

An unknown element, A, is isolated and examined. It is determined that 30.45% of the sample is composed of the isotope 102A, 35.23% of the sample is the isotope 104A, and the other 34.32% of the sample is composed of 106A. Based on this information, what is the approximate atomic mass of element A?

a)

103.4g

b)

104.1g

c)

105.4g

d)

100.8g

33.

C-12 and C-13 are naturally-occurring isotopes of the element carbon. C-12 occurs 98.89% of the time and C-13 occurs 1.108% of of the time. What calculation should be used to determine the atomic mass of this element?

a)
b)
c)
d)
34.

Dalton formulated an atomic theory. When J.J. Thomson discovered the electron in 1897, which postulate of Dalton's Atomic Theory conflicted with the new information?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

35.

The element chlorine exists as two naturally occurring isotopes. Cl-35 occurs 75% of the time and Cl-37 occurs 25% of the time. Which of the following calculations should be used to calculate the correct average atomic mass of chlorine?

a)
b)
c)
d)
36.

The elements of which of these groups on the periodic table are most resistant to forming compound?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 9

c)

Group 14

d)

Group 18

37.

Which family of elements is most likely to donate two electrons?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

38.

An unidentified element has man of the same physical and chemical properties as magnesium and strontium but has a lower atomic mass than either of these elements. What is the most likely identity of this element?

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Beryllium

d)

Rubidium

39.

The elements above are referred to as the iron triad. What unique physical property is shared by the elements of this triad?

a)

They only form covalent compounds with other metals

b)

They all have densities lower than water allowing them to float

c)

They all exist in the gaseous phase at room temperature

d)

The ability to be formed into permanent magnets

40.

Which of the following Lewis dot diagrams shows an accurate representation of potassium?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

Which of the following elements does not contain 2 electrons in its outermost energy level?

a)

Mg

b)

He

c)

Sr

d)

B

42.

According to the periodic table of the elements, how many valence electrons are present in an atom of nitrogen?

a)

14

b)

15

c)

5

d)

7

43.

The elements from whichof the following groups are most likely to react with magnesium(Mg)?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 16

d)

Group 18

44.

In which model of the periodic table does the shaded area show the location of elements that require the least energy to lose one electron?

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.

What is the ground state electron configuration of scandium?

a)

[Ar]4s23p1

b)

[Ar]4s23d1

c)

[Ar]4s24p1

d)

[Ar]4s24d1

46.

A student created the Lewis dot diagram of sodium shown above. What should be done to this diagram so that it most accurately represents sodium?

a)

The dot above the symbol should be removed

b)

Only the dot on the right of the symbol should be kept

c)

An additional dot should be placed below the symbol

d)

Nothing, the Lewis dot diagram is correct as shown

47.

Which periodic table shown below represents the predicted trend associated with atomic radii? The arrows point in the direction from lowest(-) to greatest(+).

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Which of the following elements has the greatest electronegativity?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Krypton

c)

Phosphorous

d)

Bromine

49.

Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Chlorine

c)

Aluminum

d)

Sodium

50.

Which of the following elements would decrease in size when it became an ion?

a)

Silicon

b)

Lead

c)

Sulfur

d)

Carbon

51.

Chlorine forms a -1 ion. How many electrons does a chloride ion have?

a)

1

b)

16

c)

17

d)

18

52.

Which of the groups below has the electron dot structure shown above?

a)

Noble gases

b)

Halogens

c)

Alkali metals

d)

Transition metals

53.

An element has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s2. Which of these will be in the same group as this element?

a)

1s22s22p6

b)

1s22s22p63s23p64s2

c)

1s22s22p63s1

d)

1s22s22p63s23p6

54.

The Lewis dot system represents electrons in the ---

a)

outer energy level

b)

inner level

c)

middle level

d)

core level

55.

What is the main similarity among elements in group 2?

a)

Atomic radius

b)

Chemical properties

c)

Mass number

d)

Boiling point

56.

What is the correct Lewis dot structure for arsenic?

a)
b)
c)
d)
57.

How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in a neutral atom of sodium?

a)

11 p+, 12 n0, 11 e-

b)

11 p+, 11 n0, 12 e-

c)

12 p+, 11 n0, 12 e-

d)

12 p+, 11 n0, 11 e-

58.

Which periodic table shown below represents the predicted trend associated with electronegativity? The arrows point in the direction from lowest(-) to greatest(+).

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.

Which of the following groups contains members with similar chemical reactivity?

a)

K, Sr, Lu

b)

Cu, Ag, Au

c)

N, S, Br

d)

Hg, Tl, Pb

60.

Data for the atomic radii and ionization energies of elements in Group 1 are shown above. Which statement regarding these elements is supported by this information?

a)

Electrons closer to the nucleus require more energy to remove.

b)

Elements with greater atomic mass require more ionization energy.

c)

Elements with small atomic radii easily gain electrons.

d)

Electrons are lost from the inner energy levels first.

61.

Which of the following elements has the greatest electronegativity based on its placement on the periodic table?

a)

chlorine

b)

phosphorous

c)

nitrogen

d)

bromine

62.

Magnesium chloride is a coagulant used in the preparation of tofu, and it is mainly obtained from seawater. The correct formula for magnesium chloride is ---

a)

MgCl

b)

MgCl2

c)

Mg2Cl

d)

Mg2Cl3

63.

Dihydrogen monosulfide is a colorless, poisonous and flammable gas which has a foul odor akin to rotten eggs. It is often a metabolic product of bacteria which decompose organic matter in the absence of oxygen. The correct formula for dihydrogen monosulfide is ---

a)

HS

b)

HS2

c)

H2S

d)

H3S

64.

Barium sulfate is a white crystalline solid that will not dissolve in water. It is commonly used as a component of the white pigments in paint. The correct formula for barium sulfate is —

a)

BaS

b)

BaS2

c)

BaSO4

d)

Ba2SO4

65.

AlBr3 can be used as a catalyst in the Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. The correct name for the compound represented by the formula AlBr3 is —

a)

aluminum bromide

b)

monoaluminum tribromide

c)

aluminide bromine

d)

aluminum tribromide

66.

SiO2

What is the name of the compound whose formula is shown above?

a)

silicon oxide

b)

silicon dioxide

c)

monosilicon oxide

d)

disilicon monoxide

67.

What is the correct name for the compound represented by the formula shown in the box above?

a)

potassium nitride

b)

potassium nitrate

c)

tripotassium mononitride

d)

potassium mononitride

68.

The chemical formula for calcium chloride is —

a)

Ca2Cl

b)

CaCl

c)

CaCl2

d)

Ca2Cl3

69.

According to this information, what is the chemical formula for ferric nitrate?

a)

FeNO3

b)

Fe(NO3)3

c)

Fe3NO3

d)

Fe(NO3)2

70.

The correct name of the compound shown in the box above is —

a)

phosphorous chloride

b)

monophosphorous chloride

c)

diphosphorous tetrachloride

d)

phosphorous trichloride

71.

Which Lewis dot diagram has been constructed to accurately depict a diatomic molecule of iodine?

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

Which Lewis dot diagram below best represents calcium fluoride (CaF2)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

Which diagram accurately represents the structure of a compound whose formula is shown above?

a)
b)
c)
d)
74.

Which diagram shown below accurately represents the structure of bromomethane (CH3Br)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
75.

Which is the correct formula for iron (III) sulfate?

a)

Fe3(SO4)2

b)

FeSO4

c)

Fe2(SO4)3

d)

Fe2(SO3)3

76.

The correct formula of an ionic compound containing Al3+ and CO32- is —

a)

AlCO3

b)

Al(CO3)3

c)

Al2(CO3)3

d)

Al3(CO3)2

77.

Using the table above, what is the correct formula for ammonium phosphate?

a)

NH4PO4

b)

(NH4)2(PO4)3

c)

(NH4)3PO4

d)

NH4(PO4)3

78.

The correct formula for copper (I) bromide is —

a)

CuBr

b)

CuBr2

c)

Cu2Br

d)

Cu2Br3

79.

Which of the following represents the Lewis dot diagram of ammonia (NH3)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.

Hydrogen chloride is a covalent compound. Which is a correct Lewis dot structure for HCl?

a)
b)
c)
d)
81.

What is the formula of the ion hydrogen sulfite, which has a charge of 1?

a)

SO3 –1

b)

SO4 –1

c)

HSO3 –1

d)

HSO4 –1

82.

The formula for lithium nitride is —

a)

LiN

b)

Li3N

c)

Li3N3

d)

N3Li

83.

What is the formula mass of the covalent compound silicon dioxide (SiO2)?

a)

7193.6 g/mol

b)

30.0 g/mol

c)

44.1 g/mol

d)

60.1 g/mol

84.

A student is given a sample of aluminum metal at her laboratory station. She is instructed to measure the mass of the sample and determines that it has a mass of 34.2 grams. Approximately how many moles of aluminum are in this student’s sample?

a)

923.4 mol

b)

1.27 mol

c)

0.789 mol

d)

27.0 mol

85.

Sodium metal (Na) is very reactive and can replace hydrogen in water. This reaction is very exothermic. In fact, so much heat is released that the hydrogen gas given off from the reaction actually ignites. Because of the safety hazards surrounging this substance, sodium is usually only handled by teachers. If a teacher decides to use 3.00 grams of sodium metal in a demonstration, how many atoms of sodium does he plan on using?

a)

7.85 x 1022

b)

4.15 x 1025

c)

1.15 x 10-22

d)

2.17 x 10-25

86.

A student is given an Erlenmeyer flask and measures the mass of the empty flask. He then adds water and measures the mass of the flask with the water inside. The student’s measurements are shown above. Approximately how many molecules of water are contained within the flask?

a)

5.42 x 1026 molecules

b)

1.67 x 1024 molecules

c)

1.50 x 10-19 molecules

d)

4.61 x 10-22 molecules

87.

How many atoms are contained within the sample of carbon shown on the scale above?

a)

1.20 x 1024 atoms

b)

3.01 x 1023 atoms

c)

3.01 x 1024 atoms

d)

6.02 x 1023 atoms

88.

The tank above contains 5.00 kilograms of oxygen gas. Approximately how many molecules of oxygen gas are contained with this gas tank?

a)

9.41 x 1025 molecules

b)

9.41 x 1022 molecules

c)

1.88 x 1026 molecules

d)

1.88 x 1023 molecules

89.

Nitrogen gas is a diatomic molecule. What is the approximate mass of one mole of nitrogen gas?

a)

7 g

b)

14 g

c)

28 g

d)

6 × 1023

90.

The molar mass (gram formula mass) for the compound sodium thiosulfate, Na2S2O3, is—

a)

71 grams

b)

153 grams

c)

158 grams

d)

254 grams

91.

What is the mass of one mole of CO2?

a)

24 g

b)

28 g

c)

44 g

d)

56 g

92.

A large glass bottle contains 20. grams of ammonia (NH3). Approximately how many molecules of ammonia are contained within this bottle?

a)

7.1 x 1023

b)

2.0 x 1026

c)

2.0 x 10-24

d)

1.2 x 1025

93.

How many molecules are in 0.500 mole of N2O5?

a)

1.20 × 1023 molecules

b)

3.01 × 1023 molecules

c)

6.02 × 1023 molecules

d)

3.01 × 1024 molecules

94.

How many atoms are present in 179.0 g of iridium?

a)

5.606 × 1023 atoms

b)

6.464 × 1023 atoms

c)

1.078 × 1026 atoms

d)

1.157 × 1026 atoms

95.

What percentage of the molar mass of vanadium pentoxide (V2O5) is derived from oxygen?

a)

56.0%

b)

44.0%

c)

28.0%

d)

8.8%

96.

What percentage of the molar mass of sodium sulfate (Na2SO4) does sodium constitute?

a)

32.4%

b)

22.6%

c)

45.0%

d)

16.2%

97.

A compound is analyzed and found to contain selenium and bromine. When a specific sample is examined, it is found to contain 7.928 g of selenium and 32.072 g of bromine. What is the empirical formula of this compound?

a)

SeBr3

b)

Se2Br5

c)

SeBr4

d)

Se2Br3

98.

What is the molecular formula of a compound with a molar mass of approximately 381 g/mol and an empirical formula of PS2?

a)

P5S10

b)

P3S6

c)

P2S4

d)

P4S8

99.

Sodium peroxide is a strong base and a very reactive oxidizer. Peroxides are a special class of compounds formed when oxygen reacts in a way not predicted by its placement on the periodic table. A sample of sodium peroxide contains 59% sodium and 41% oxygen. The molar mass of sodium peroxide is 78.0 grams. What is the molecular formula of sodium peroxide?

a)

Na2O

b)

Na2O2

c)

NaO

d)

NaO2

100.

Formic acid is the simplest carboxylic acid. Carboxylic acids are characterized by a carbon which is double bonded to an oxygen as well as being attached to a hydroxyl group. What would be the predicted molecular geometry of formic acid with respect to the carbon atom?

a)

Trigonal planar

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Tetrahedral

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

101.

The valence shell electron pair repulsion theory is used to predict the molecular shapes of compounds. What would be the shape of the molecule in the box above according to this theory?

a)

Trigonal Pyramidal

b)

Trigonal Planar

c)

Bent

d)

Tetrahedral

102.

Which of the following molecules would be predicted to have the largest bond angle based on the valence shell electron pair repulsion theory?

a)
b)
c)
d)
103.

Hydrofluoric acid is shown in the box above. This molecule has a tetrahedral electron geometry with respect to fluoride. What would its molecular geometry be?

a)

Bent

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Linear

d)

Trigonal Planar

104.

The empirical formula for ethyne (C2H2) is —

a)

CH

b)

C2H2

c)

CH2

d)

C2H

105.

A compound has 50% sulfur and 50% oxygen. What is its empirical formula?

a)

SO4

b)

S2O4

c)

SO3

d)

SO2

106.

A compound is composed of 85.64% carbon and 14.36% hydrogen. The compound has a formula mass of 42.08 grams. What is the molecular formula?

a)

CH2

b)

C3H6

c)

C2H4

d)

C2H18

107.

According to the valence shell electron pair repulsion theory, what molecular structure would phosphorous trihydride have?

a)

Bent (109.5o)

b)

Bent (120o)

c)

Trigonal Planar

d)

Trigonal Pyramidal

108.

What is the percentage by mass of sodium (Na) in a formula unit of sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3)?

a)

44.2%

b)

37.7%

c)

27.4%

d)

16.7%

109.

Which of the following correctly matches a compound with its molecular geometry?

a)

Water (H2O): linear

b)

Carbon dioxide (CO2): tetrahedral

c)

Ammonia (NH3): trigonal planar

d)

Methane (CH4): tetrahedral

110.

The empirical formula for C6H12 is —

a)

C3H6

b)

C2H4

c)

CH3

d)

CH2